ĐỀ THAM KHẢO KÌ THI TỐT NGHIỆP THPT NĂM 2025

Bài thi: NGOẠI NGỮ; Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH

Thời gian làm bài: 50 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề

ĐỀ SỐ 1

Read the following announcement and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
option that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 1 to 6.
School Charity Event
We are pleased to announce that our school will be hosting a special charity event to support those
in need. This is a great chance (1) ______ students, parents, and teachers to come together.
The event will take place on Saturday, April 20th, from 9:00 AM to 3:00 PM in the school gym.
There will be various activities, (2) ______ a bake sale, a raffle, and games for children. Additionally,
you can also donate (3) ______ items at our booth. If you want to volunteer, please sign up at the school
office by Friday, April 12th.
All proceeds from this event will go to local charities (4) ______ help underprivileged families.
Let’s work together to create positive change!
We sincerely hope (5) ______ many of you there, as your presence would mean a lot. Join us and
help (6)______ a truly meaningful impact on our community!
Question 1. A. to B. for C. with D. of
Question 2. A. which included B. included C. to include D. including
Question 3. A. useful B. use C. usefully D. usefulness
Question 4. A. that B. who C. what D. where
Question 5. A. to be seen B. seeing C. to see D. see
Question 6. A. give B. get C. take D. make

Read the following advertisement and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
option that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 7 to 12.
Glow Every Day with FreshGlow!
Want healthy, glowing skin? We’re (7)______ to introduce - your natural skincare solution!
This skincare set includes a gentle cleanser, a moisturizing cream, and a refreshing toner.
Unlike (8) ______ products, FreshGlow uses natural ingredients to nourish your skin without harsh
chemicals. The set works best when you follow the simple routine provided. (9) ______, it is suitable for all
skin types.
To make your experience even better, we are offering a special (10) ______ for the first 100 customers.
You can (11) ______ your set at our store or order it online. Don’t forget to share your results with us on
social media!
Try FreshGlow Skincare Set today, and see the difference for yourself. We believe this product will
become a part of your daily (12) ______. Don’t miss out - get yours now!
Question 7. A. excited B. surprised C. amazed D. terrified
Question 8. A. another B. other C. the other D. others
Question 9. A. Therefore B. In addition C. However D. For example
Question 10. A. account B. solution C. advert D. discount
Question 11. A. check in B. pick up C. put on D. look at
Question 12. A. routine B. system C. procedure D. custom

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the best arrangement of utterances or
sentences to make a meaningful exchange or text in each of the following questions from 13 to 17.
Question 13.
a. Lucy: That’s great! What inspired you to pursue this career?
b. Tom: I’ve always dreamed of working as a software engineer.
c. Tom: I’ve always been fascinated by technology and solving problems.
A. b-a-c B. a-b-c C. c-b-a D. b-c-a
Question 14.
a. Mark: That’s great! What changes have you made so far?
b. Anna: Yes, I’ve been taking shorter showers and fixing leaky faucets to save water.

c. Anna: I’ve been trying to live a more sustainable life lately.

d. Mark: That’s a good start! Have you thought about reducing your water usage too?
e. Anna: I started using reusable bags and switched to energy-efficient light bulbs.
A. c-a-e-d-b B. c-e-d-b-a C. d-b-a-e-c D. d-e-a-b-c
Question 15.
Hi Jane,
a. I’ll let you know if I come across any other useful tools for learning.
b. I appreciate your suggestion about the new note-taking app - it’s really helping me stay organized.
c. The best part is that I can access my notes on both my phone and laptop, which makes studying much
easier.
d. Have you found any other great apps lately? I’d love to hear your recommendations.
e. I also tried the flashcard app you mentioned, and it’s been great for memorizing key terms.
Drop me a line soon.
Emily
A. b-d-e-c-a B. a-d-b-e-c C. a-c-d-b-e D. b-e-c-d-a
Question 16.
a. That's why it's vital that consumers thoughtfully examine the media they access.
b. It includes various forms such as television, radio, newspapers, and social media platforms.
c. Mass media play a significant role in shaping public opinion and culture.
d. However, while mass media can inform, it can mislead or manipulate if not used responsibly.
e. With the rise of the internet, online news and digital content have become essential sources of
information.
A. c-e-d-a-b B. a-b-c-d-e C. a-c-b-e-d D. c-b-e-d-a
Question 17.
a. Although numbers changed slightly in the middle period, by 2015, both groups had returned to nearly the
same unemployment rates as in 1990, with 14% for non-graduates and 10% for graduates.
b. The line graph illustrates the unemployment trends among recent graduates and non-graduates aged 21 to
30 between 1990 and 2015.
c. At all times, the number of unemployed non-graduates was higher than that of recent graduates.
d. Throughout the period, there were fluctuations in both groups, with a decline followed by an increase.
e. From 1990 to 2000, unemployment decreased, with a slight drop in the early years and a more significant
decline towards 2000.
A. a-c-b-d-e B. b-d-c-e-a C. b-e-d-c-a D. a-e-d-b-c

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option
that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 18 to 22.
Self-driving cars are rapidly becoming a reality in today's world. Major companies like Tesla and
Google (18) _______. Tesla's autopilot system, for instance, was first introduced in 2015 and has since been
refined to enhance vehicle safety and navigation. These cars rely on sophisticated AI systems to function
autonomously, allowing them to perform tasks such as braking, accelerating, and steering without human
input. (19) _______. It can also predict traffic movements, and navigate roads efficiently.
The technology behind self-driving cars is still developing, but it has already begun to revolutionize
the way we think about transportation. Companies that create autonomous vehicles focus on building reliable
systems (20) _______. Legal frameworks around the world are also evolving to regulate the use of these
cars. Many experts say that self-driving cars are believed to help reduce accidents, improve efficiency and
decrease fuel consumption by optimizing driving efficiency.
However, the challenges are not just technological. (21) ______. People from different backgrounds
and driving experiences need to feel confident in the safety of self-driving cars before they can be widely
adopted. Nonetheless, as advancements continue, it seems inevitable that autonomous vehicles will play a
critical role in shaping the future of transportation, (22) ______.
Question 18.
A. which has invested heavily in developing autonomous driving technology
B. was invested heavily in developing autonomous driving technology
C. having invested heavily in developing autonomous driving technology
 D. have invested heavily in developing autonomous driving technology

Question 19.
A. Some people worry about the safety of self-driving cars on busy roads.
B. Engineers continue to improve AI to make autonomous cars smarter.
C. This technology uses sensors, cameras, and radar to detect obstacles.
D. Many cities are testing self-driving cars as a future transport option.
Question 20.
A. whose efforts in AI and engineering has led to this innovation
B. brought about by the collaboration of AI engineers and designers
C. of which AI research plays a key role in their advancement
D. that depend on both AI research and engineering for their success
Question 21.
A. Researchers work to improve the reliability of AI-driven cars.
B. Transparent AI decisions help build trust in self-driving cars.
C. Public trust in autonomous vehicles is crucial for their adoption.
D. Ethical AI choices ensure fairness in self-driving technology.
Question 22.
A. leading to smarter cities and more sustainable mobility solutions.
B. smarter cities and more sustainable mobility solutions thus prevail
C. improve the urban infrastructure and citizens’ standard of living.
D. this therefore brings about better urban and rural environments.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the best
answer to each of the following questions from 23 to 30.
The concept of obtaining fresh water from an iceberg that is towed to populated areas and arid
regions of the world was once treated as a joke more appropriate to cartoons than real life. But now it is
being considered quite seriously by many nations, especially since scientists have warned that the human
race will outgrow its fresh water supply faster than it runs out of food. Glaciers are a possible source of
freshwater that has been overlooked until recently.
Three-quarters of the Earth's freshwater supply is still tied up in glacial ice, a reservoir of untapped
fresh water so immense that it could sustain all the rivers of the world for 1,000 years. Floating on the
oceans every year are 7,659 trillion metric tons of ice encased in 10,000 icebergs that break away from the
polar ice caps, more than ninety percent of them from Antarctica.
Huge glaciers that stretch over the shallow continental shelf give birth to icebergs throughout the
year. Icebergs are not like sea ice, which is formed when the sea itself freezes; rather, they are formed
entirely on land, breaking off when glaciers spread over the sea. As they drift away from the polar region,
icebergs sometimes move mysteriously in a direction opposite to the wind, pulled by subsurface currents.
Because they melt more slowly than smaller pieces of ice, icebergs have been known to drift as far north as
35 degrees south of the equator in the Atlantic Ocean.
The difficulty arises in other technical matters, such as the prevention of rapid melting in warmer
climates and the funneling of fresh water to shore in great volume. But even if the icebergs lost half of their
volume in towing, the water they could provide would be far cheaper than that produced by desalination, or
removing salt from water.
(Adapted from TOELF reading)
Question 23: Which of the following is NOT mentioned as a challenge in towing icebergs?
A. Prevention of rapid melting B. Funneling fresh water to shore
C. High cost of desalination D. Subsurface currents
Question 24: The word arid in paragraph 1 is OPPOSITE in meaning to _______.
A. dry B. wet C. remoted D. high
Question 25: The word they in paragraph 3 refers to _______.
A. glaciers B. sea ice C. icebergs D. polar regions
Question 26: The word immense in paragraph 2 could be best replaced by _______.
A. small B. limited C. huge D. little
Question 27: Which of the following best paraphrases the underlined sentence in paragraph 1?
A. Scientists believe that fresh water storage will run out before humans need food.
 B. Scientists warn that the demand for fresh water will exceed supply faster than food.

C. Scientists predict that food shortages will inevitably occur before water shortages.
D. Scientists claim that fresh water and food shortages will never happen at the same time.
Question 28: Which of the following is TRUE according to the passage?
A. In Atlantic, icebergs are usually formed when the sea water freezes in winter.
B. Most icebergs originate from the Arctic region and break off glaciers.
C. Icebergs have been recorded at 35 degrees south of the equator in the Atlantic.
D. Glaciers contain less than half of the Earth’s fresh water.
Question 29: In which paragraph does the writer mention the formation of icebergs?
A. Paragraph 1 B. Paragraph 2 C. Paragraph 3 D. Paragraph 4
Question 30: In which paragraph does the writer mention the cost comparison between iceberg water and
desalination?
A. Paragraph 1 B. Paragraph 2 C. Paragraph 3 D. Paragraph 4
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the best
answer to each of the following questions from 31 to 40.
The custom of paying a bride price before marriage remains a deeply rooted tradition in many
African cultures. [I] The groom’s family must provide payment to the bride’s family before the marriage is
permitted. [II]The form of payment varies across regions—Zulu and Swazi tribes in southern Africa often
use cattle, while kola nuts, blankets, shells, and other goods are common in West Africa. [III] The amount
paid also varies, with some modern bride prices being largely symbolic, while others remain significant,
especially among traditional or high-status families. [IV]
Several reasons justify the payment of bride price. It compensates the bride’s family for the cost of
raising her and acknowledges their loss as she officially joins her husband’s family. On a deeper level, the
bride price is also a recognition of the children the bride will bring into her husband’s family, increasing its
wealth. This idea is reinforced by the common practice of refunding the bride price if the marriage
does not result in children.
The bride price influences African society in various ways. It strengthens family bonds, as sons rely
on their fathers and elders for financial support, fostering respect and obedience. Negotiations over the bride
price encourage families to interact and build relationships before the marriage. Additionally, because the
bride price is often repaid in cases of divorce, the bride’s family has a vested interest in ensuring marital
stability. Furthermore, the practice redistributes wealth within African communities, as wealthier families
support the marriages of their sons, transferring resources to others.
However, the system also has drawbacks. One significant issue is the age disparity between
husbands and wives. Since young men often lack the financial means to afford a bride price, women
frequently marry older men. This results in many young women marrying before the age of 18, cutting short
their education. Additionally, a large age gap can mean that a husband passes away while his wife is still
relatively young, leaving her to raise their children alone. While bride price remains an important cultural
tradition, it has lost its popularity in recent years.
(Adapted from TOELF reading)
Question 31: Where in paragraph 1 does the following sentence best fit?
Although money is sometimes exchanged, goods are more frequently used.
A. [I] B. [II] C. [III] D. [IV]
Question 32: The word symbolic in paragraph 1 could be replaced by _______.
A. representative B. worthless C. expensive D. complicated
Question 33: According to paragraph 2, which of the following is NOT a reason for paying bride price?
A. Compensation for raising the bride B. A guarantee of marital happiness
C. Payment for the bride’s family’s loss D. Recognition of future children
Question 34: Which of the following best paraphrases the underlined sentence in paragraph 2?
A. The bride price is often returned to the groom’s family when a couple separates for any reason.
B. The belief is strengthened by the fact that the bride price is returned if the couple has no children.
C. The groom’s family demands a refund of the bride price if the bride fails to fulfill household
duties.
D. The tradition of paying a bride price is disappearing due to modern changes in marriage customs.
Question 35: The word their in paragraph 3 refers to _______.
A. weathier families B. African communities C. fathers D. bride’s families
Question 36: Which of the following best summarises paragraph 3?
A. Wealthy families often avoid paying high bride prices due to their status.
B. Paying the bride price can be a significant burden on African families.
C. The bride’s family typically benefits the most from the bride price payment.
D. Bride price promotes family bonds, social stability, and wealth distribution.
Question 37: The word disparity in paragraph 4 is OPPOSITE in meaning to _______.
A. equality B. difference C. distance D. imbalance
Question 38: Which of the following is NOT TRUE according to the passage?
A. Some bride prices are purely symbolic in modern times.
B. The bride price is refunded if the bride does not bear children.
C. The groom’s family receives payment from the bride’s family.
D. Wealthier families can afford higher bride prices.
Question 39: Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?
A. The bride price tradition may decline in the future.
B. Bride price ensures that all marriages are successful.
C. Most women in Africa prefer to marry rich older men.
D. Education for women is not affected by bride price.
Question 40: Which of the following best summarises the passage?
A. The bride’s family often receives financial benefits from the bride price tradition.
B. Bride price is a long-standing African tradition with both benefits and challenges.
C. Bride price is an outdated tradition and therefore should be abolished immediately.
D. Bride price contributes to promoting gender equality within marital relationships.
 ĐỀ THAM KHẢO KÌ THI TỐT NGHIỆP THPT NĂM 2025
Bài thi: NGOẠI NGỮ; Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
Thời gian làm bài: 50 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề

ĐỀ SỐ 2

Read the following announcement and mark the letter A, B, C, and D on your answer sheet to indicate
the option that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 1 to 6
Volunteer Recruitment
Summer Science Camp
Location: Greenfield Academy, Maplewood School, Hillside College
Dates: 20th June – 5th August 2024
Ages: 15 – 18 years old
We are excited to announce that our school is hosting a Summer Science Camp (1) ______
to inspire young minds. This is a fantastic opportunity for students to explore the world of
science through fun and interactive activities.
The camp will take place at Greenfield Academy, Maplewood School, and Hillside
College from June 20th to August 5th. It is open (2) ______ students aged 15 to 18 who are
curious about science and eager to learn. Our program includes daily workshops (3) ______
include interactive experiments and group projects. In addition to these activities, there will be
exciting excursions to science museums and research centers. Experienced instructors will guide
students through various (4) ______ fields, motivating them to pursue their passion for
discovery.
On-campus accommodation with full-time supervision ensures a safe and supportive
environment. Whether you are new to science or already fascinated by it, this camp offers
something for everyone.
Don’t miss this opportunity to (5) ______ your sense of curiosity and discover new
passions! We genuinely look forward to (6) ______ you there for an unforgettable summer of
learning and fun adventures!
Question 1. A. designing B. designed C. design D. to design
Question 2. A. to B. for C. with D. by
Question 3. A. when B. where C. which D. who
Question 4. A. scientific B. scientifical C. scientist D. science
Question 5. A. reduce B. boost C. hinder D. deter
Question 6. A. have seen B. be seen C. see D. seeing

Read the following advertisement and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
option that best fits each numbered blank from 7 to 12.
New IELTS Preparation Course – Enroll Today!
Are you planning to take the IELTS exam? We are excited to introduce our Intensive IELTS
Preparation Course, designed to help you achieve your (7) ______ score.
This course covers all four skills: Listening, Reading, Writing, and Speaking. Unlike (8) ______
courses, our program includes practice tests, personalized feedback, and useful strategies to boost your
confidence. You will also work with experienced teachers who understand your needs. (9) ______, the
course offers flexible schedules to fit your routine.
To support your learning, we provide online materials that you can use anytime. You can (10) ______
at our center or register through our website. Don’t miss this opportunity to improve your English skills and
reach your goals!
Join our Intensive IELTS Preparation Course today and take the first step (11) ______ success. We
believe this course will help you reach your full (12) ______. Spaces are limited—register now!
Question 7: A. target B. aim C. objective D. ending
Question 8: A. another B. other C. the other D. others
Question 9: A. Therefore B. Moreover C. However D. For example
Question 10: A. figure out B. come up C. sign out D. sign up
Question 11: A. through B. toward C. in D. about
Question 12: A. potential B. success C. limit D. possibility

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the best arrangement of utterances or
sentences to make a meaningful exchange or text in each of the following questions from 13 to 17.
Question 13.
a. Lisa: Nice to meet you, Mike! I’m Lisa. I’ve heard a lot about you.
b. Mike: Hi, I don’t think we’ve met before. My name is Mike, by the way.
c. Mike: Oh really? I hope it’s all good things!
A. b-a-c B. a-b-c C. c-b-a D. b-c-a
Question 14.
a. Tom: How can we help protect the environment?
b. Tom: I’ll definitely start recycling more and being more mindful about energy use.
c. Tom: That sounds good. What about reducing energy use?
d. Lisa: We should also turn off lights when we’re not using them and use energy-efficient appliances.
e. Lisa: We can reduce waste by recycling and using less plastic.
A. a-b-c-d-e B. a-e-d-c-b C. a-e-c-d-b D. b-a-c-d-e
Question 15.
Hi Mark,
a. Thanks so much for the article about the latest AI developments you sent me last week.
b. It was really interesting to read about how AI is transforming the healthcare industry.
c. I’ve been thinking a lot about how AI could change education as well. What are your thoughts on that?
d. It’s amazing how AI can analyze data so quickly, but I’m also a little worried about its impact on jobs.
e. I’m excited to learn more about this technology, but I’m still focused on my current project at the moment.
Write back soon,
Tom
A. d-b-a-c-e B. b-e-a-d-c C. a-d-b-c-e D. c-a-d-b-e
Question 16.
a. Online shopping offers convenience, allowing consumers to purchase products from the comfort of their
homes.
b. However, one of the challenges is that customers cannot physically examine the products before buying
them.
c. It's important to read product reviews and check return policies before making a purchase.
d. Online shopping platforms offer a wide range of items, from electronics to clothing and groceries.
e. Despite its convenience, online shopping can sometimes lead to impulse buying and overspending.
A. a-b-c-d-e B. c-b-a-e-d C. d-a-b-c-e D. e-d-b-c-a
Question 17.
a. However, despite this increase in opportunities, many fields still lack sufficient training programs,
especially in smaller towns.
b. Career paths have evolved dramatically over the years, with more options available than ever before.
c. The rise of digital technologies has also created new jobs, especially in fields like IT, marketing, and
online business.
d. This shift in the job market has led to a surge in specialized education and training, giving people a chance
to pursue various career interests.
e. As a result, more young people are seeking out non-traditional careers that allow for remote work and
flexible schedules.
A. b-d-e-c-a B. b-c-a-e-d C. d-b-e-c-a D. b-d-c-a-e

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option
that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 18 to 22.
Renewable energy sources are becoming increasingly important in the fight against climate change.
Solar and wind power, (18) _______, are two of the fastest-growing energy sources. Many countries have
invested in these technologies to reduce dependence on fossil fuels and lower greenhouse gas emissions.
Some nations try to harness sunlight and wind (19) _______. Advancements in technology have also made
these energy sources more efficient and accessible.
One key advantage of renewable energy is that it does not produce carbon emissions during operation.
(20) ______. Additionally, renewable energy ensures a stable electricity supply, as improving technologies
enhance efficiency. Battery storage systems and smart grids help address power fluctuations, making
renewable energy more reliable.
However, the transition is not without challenges. One major issue is the cost of infrastructure, whose
development demands significant funding from governments. (21) ______. Despite these difficulties, experts
agree that increasing investment in renewable energy will contribute significantly to a more sustainable
future. Many governments have implemented policies to support the development of renewable energy, and
these efforts are expected to continue in the coming years. (22) ______. As technology advances and costs
drop, it will become more accessible, benefiting both the environment and the economy.
Question 18.
A. which are both clean and abundant
B. causing significant pollution
C. are depleting at a rapid speed
D. that rely heavily on human factors
Question 19.
A. for electricity is generated by them without harmful pollutants
B. that is why they avoid using harmful pollutants to generate electricity
C. when harmful pollutants should be eliminated to generate electricity
D. so that they can generate electricity without harmful pollutants
Question 20.
A. This process releases a large amount of greenhouse gases which pollute the air.
B. This makes it more sustainable than coal and oil, which pollute the atmosphere.
C. This kind of energy requires a lot of financial investment, but no pollution.
D. This method of production leads to success in getting rid of numerous pollutants.
Question 21.
A. A significant amount of money is needed to fund the construction process
B. Developing some of which necessitates a large financial commitment
C. Building solar, wind farms and storage facilities requires substantial investment
D. There is a high cost associated with widening production land for the industries
Question 22.
A. In the long term, renewable energy sources will play a crucial role in solving the crisis
B. The future developments require both public and private sector participation
C. The coming shift to renewable resources is predicted to become obsolete in the near future
D. Soon, the replacement of the investors may greatly contribute to the potential energy

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the best
answer to each of the following questions from 23 to 30.
Today, the most universally known style of trousers for both men and women is jeans; these trousers
are worn throughout the world on a variety of occasions and in diverse situations. Also called “levis” or
“denims”, jeans have an interesting history, one that is intermixed with the derivations of the words; jeans,
denims, and levis.
The word “jeans” is derived from the name of the place where a similar style of pants developed. In
the sixteenth century, sailors from Genoa, Italy, wore a rather unique type of cotton trousers. In the French
language, the word for the city of Genoa and for the people from that city is Genes; this name became
attached to the specific style of pants worn by the sailors from this city and developed into the word jeans
that today describes the descendants of the Genovese sailors' cotton pants.
Similar to the word “jeans”, the word “denim” is also derived from a place name. In the seventeenth
century, French tailors began making trousers out of a specialized type of cloth that was developed in the
city of Nimes, France, and was known as serge de Nimes. This name for the cloth underwent some
transformations, and it eventually became today's denim, the material from which jeans are made and an
alternate name for these popular pants.
The word “levis” came from the name of a person rather than a place. In the nineteenth century,
immigrant Levi Strauss came to America and tried his hand at selling heavy canvas to miners taking part in
the hunt for gold in northern California. Strauss intended for this canvas to be used by miners to make
heavy-duty tents. This first attempt was a failure, but Strauss later found success when he used the
heavy canvas to make indestructible pants for the miners. Levi then switched the fabric from brown
canvas to blue denim, creating a style of pants that long outlived him and today is referred to by his name. A
modern-day urban shopper out to buy some levis is searching for a close relative of the product that Strauss
had developed years earlier.
(Adapted from TOEFL reading)
Question 23. Which of the following is NOT mentioned as a term for jeans?
A. denims B. genes C. levis D. serge
Question 24. The word “unique” in paragraph 2 is OPPOSITE in meaning to _______.
A. common B. special C. rare D. unusual
Question 25. The word “this name” in paragraph 2 refers to _______.
A. Genoa B. Genes C. Italy D. Jeans
Question 26. The word “transformations” in paragraph 3 could be best replaced by _______.
A. developments B. replacements C. destructions D. preservations
Question 27. Which of the following best paraphrases the underlined sentence in paragraph 4?
A. Strauss’s canvas tents were unpopular, so he switched to producing pants for miners.
B. Strauss’s first business idea was unsuccessful, but he continued selling canvas to miners.
C. Strauss failed to sell canvas for tents but later succeeded with durable pants for miners.
D. Strauss’s success in selling pants led him to experiment with other types of fabric for jeans.
Question 28. Which of the following is TRUE according to the passage?
A. Jeans were originally made from brown canvas.
B. The word “denim” comes from the city of Genoa in Italy.
C. Levi Strauss initially sold tents to miners hunting for gold.
D. The word “jeans” is derived from the French word for Genoa.
Question 29. In which paragraph does the writer mention the origin of the word “denim”?
A. Paragraph 1 B. Paragraph 2 C. Paragraph 3 D. Paragraph 4
Question 30. In which paragraph does the writer mention Levi Strauss’s switch from canvas to denim?
A. Paragraph 1 B. Paragraph 2 C. Paragraph 3 D. Paragraph 4

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the best
answer to each of the following questions from 31 to 40.
It is estimated that over 99 percent of all species that have ever existed on Earth are now extinct. [I]
Extinction occurs when a species can no longer survive in a changing environment. [II] Causes vary but
often include climate shifts, food shortages, and competition from better-adapted species. [III] Natural
disasters such as volcanic eruptions, earthquakes, and asteroid impacts have also played a role in extinctions.
[IV] In other words, when sudden changes make an environment uninhabitable, species may perish.
The fossil record shows that extinction has always been a part of Earth’s history. However, scientists
have discovered that, at certain times, large numbers of species have disappeared simultaneously in events
called mass extinctions. One of the most famous occurred 65 million years ago, leading to the extinction of
dinosaurs and many other life forms. Scientists believe this was caused by an asteroid impact that triggered
fires, dust clouds blocking sunlight, and drastic climate changes. Another major mass extinction happened
around 225 million years ago, wiping out nearly 95 percent of all species. Mass extinctions can be worsened
by the interdependence of species—when one disappears, others that rely on it may also struggle, leading to
further extinctions.
An interesting observation is that extinctions over the past 250 million years seem to follow a cycle,
occurring roughly every 26 million years. Some scientists suggest this pattern is linked to Earth’s orbit
periodically intersecting with a cloud of comets, leading to impacts that cause extinction. However, this
theory is speculative, as no solid evidence supports it. Other researchers propose that extinction is sometimes
random, meaning species may survive or vanish by chance rather than their ability to adapt. This suggests
that parts of evolutionary history may be shaped by unpredictable events.
While extinction is natural, human activities such as deforestation, pollution, and climate change have
accelerated species loss. Unlike past extinctions caused by natural forces, the current biodiversity crisis is
largely due to human actions. Scientists warn that without stronger conservation efforts, another mass
extinction could occur, leading to irreversible ecosystem damage and the loss of countless species essential
for ecological balance.
(Adapted from TOEFL reading)
Question 31. Where in paragraph I does the following sentence best fit?
“Some species fail to adjust and eventually disappear.”
A. [I] B. [II] C. [III] D. [IV]
Question 32. The word “perish” in paragraph 1 could be best replaced by _______.
A. develop B. adapt C. vanish D. multiply

Question 33. According to paragraph 1, which of the following is NOT a cause of extinction?
A. natural catastrophes B. food insufficiency
C. ability to adapt D. climatic variations
Question 34. The word “One” in paragraph 2 refers to _______
A. fossil record B. mass extinction
C. extinct species D. asteroid impact
Question 35. Which of the following best summarizes paragraph 2?
A. Extinction is a natural process, but mass extinctions have wiped out many species at once.
B. Dinosaurs were the only species to go extinct due to an asteroid impact 65 million years ago.
C. Mass extinctions throughout history have always been caused by climate change alone.
D. The most recent mass extinction event nearly wiped out all existing species on Earth.
Question 36. The word “worsened” in paragraph 2 is OPPOSITE in meaning to _______.
A. intensified B. increased C. improved D. strengthened
Question 37. Which of the following best paraphrases the sentence “This suggests that parts of
evolutionary history may be shaped by unpredictable events.” in paragraph 3?
A. Evolutionary history always follows a determined and predictable pattern.
B. Some aspects of evolution might have been influenced by random occurrences.
C. Scientists fully understand all factors that have shaped evolutionary history.
D. Evolution is entirely based on natural selection and survival of the fittest species.
Question 38. Which of the following is NOT TRUE according to the passage?
A. Some scientists believe that mass extinctions occur in cycles.
B. The extinction of one species can lead to the extinction of others.
C. Human activities are currently contributing to species loss.
D. The last mass extinction event occurred 26 million years ago.
Question 39. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?
A. Human-caused extinction rates are faster than natural extinctions in the past.
B. All mass extinctions in Earth's history have been caused by asteroid impacts.
C. Species that are unable to adapt to environmental changes will always survive.
D. Earth has completely stopped experiencing extinction events in recent history.
Question 40. Which of the following best summarizes the passage?
A. Extinction is a natural process, but humans have significantly increased species loss.
B. Dinosaurs were not the only species to go extinct in a mass extinction event.
C. Evolution helps species adapt but does not prevent all from going extinct.
D. Mass extinctions are rare events that occur approximately every 100 million years.
 ĐỀ THAM KHẢO KÌ THI TỐT NGHIỆP THPT NĂM 2025
Bài thi: NGOẠI NGỮ; Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
Thời gian làm bài: 50 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề

ĐỀ SỐ 3

Read the following announcement and mark the letter A, B, C and D on your answer sheet to indicate the
option that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 1 to 6
DISCOVER WILDLIFE CONSERVATION EXHIBITION!
Date: Saturday, March 15th
Time: 8:00 AM to 6:00 PM
Location: Wildlife Conservation Center, Ha Noi
Immerse yourself in the (1)_______ world of wildlife conservation at our upcoming exhibition!
Explore captivating exhibits (2)_______ endangered species, their habitats, and conservation
efforts.
Activities:
- Engage (3)_______ hands-on workshops led by conservationists, where you’ll learn about
wildlife tracking, habitat restoration, and sustainable practices.
- Join informative presentations by renowned experts on topics like (4)_______ and marine
conservation.
- (5)_______ memories with your favourite animals with our interactive wildlife photo booth.
- Enjoy delicious refreshments and browse eco-friendly products at our conservation marketplace.
Contact Information: For inquiries, email us at info@wildlifeexpo.com or call 023- 456-7899.
Come together with fellow wildlife enthusiasts to support conservation efforts and (6)_______
our planet’s precious biodiversity! Admission is free for all ages.

Question 1. A. fascinate B. fascinatingly C. fascinating D. fascination

Question 2. A. which features B. featuring C. featured D. are featuring
Question 3. A. on B. for C. in D. up
Question 4. A. endangered species protection B. species endangered protection
C. endangered protection species D. protection endangered species
Question 5. A. Receive B. Produce C. Capture D. Obtain
Question 6. A. to protect B. protected C. protecting D. protect

Read the following advertisement and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
option that best fits each numbered blank from 7 to 12.
Win Tickets to a Spectacular Theatre Experience!
Webber’s all-time classic Joseph and the Amazing Technicolor Dreamcoat is heading to the
Congress Theatre this summer.
The Congress Theatre is located in the (7) ______ of London’s theatre district, with performances
starting from Monday, June 18, to Saturday, June 23.
Four lucky listeners (8) ______ a pair of top-price tickets for the opening night in this free-to-enter
competition. You will also receive free ice cream, drinks, and other treats while you enjoy the performance.
(9) ______ leaving after the show, you can have a chance to be taken backstage to meet the actors. You will
be (10) ______ the technical side of the production.
Tickets are selling fast, with prices ranging from £11 to £24.50, including a special half-price child
ticket offer for (11) ______ performances.
To enter our competition, (12) ______submit the correct answer to our question before June 13:
Name a song from Joseph and the Amazing Technicolor Dreamcoat. Meanwhile, call the box office at 01323
412000 or visit our website to book your tickets today!
(Adapted from SUCCEED Preliminary B1)
Question 7. A. heart B. root C. base D. top
Question 8. A. have won B. win C. won D. will win
Question 9. A. Irrespective of B. Instead of C. In spite of D. Due to
Question 10. A. taken over B. shown around C. put through D. stepped into
Question 11. A. little B. much C. some D. few
Question 12. A. simply B. firmly C. briefly D. closely

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the best arrangement of utterances or
sentences to make a meaningful exchange or text in each of the following questions from 13 to 17.
Question 13.
a. Waiter: I’m so sorry to hear that. Let me get you a fresh plate right away.
b. Lisa: I’m really disappointed with the service. My food was cold when it arrived.
c. Lisa: Thank you. I appreciate it.
A. a-b-c B. b-a-c C. c-b-a D. b-c-a
Question 14.
a. Emily: Have you had any experience in managing projects before?
b. Emily: That sounds interesting! What type of job are you looking for?
c. James: I’ve been considering a career change lately. I’m not happy with my current job.
d. James: I think I would like to try something in project management. I feel it suits my skills.
e. James: Yes, I’ve worked as an assistant manager on a few projects, so I’m confident I can move into that
role.
A. c-d-b-e-a B. c-b-d-a-e C. d-b-a-e-c D. d-e-a-b-c
Question 15.
Hi Sarah,
a. Thanks so much for the article about the impact of social media on society you sent me last week.
b. It was great to read about how the media can shape public opinion.
c. I think we should discuss this topic further - what do you think?
d. I also appreciate the links to documentaries on media influence; they’re much more insightful than some
of the articles I’ve been reading.
e. Mass media has changed over time, but I’m currently focused on my research on digital journalism.
Write back soon,
David
A. d-b-a-c-e B. a-c-d-b-e C. d-a-b-c-e D. a-b-d-e-c
Question 16.
a. Many animals are at risk due to factors like deforestation, pollution, and illegal hunting.
b. By raising awareness and supporting conservation organizations, we can all contribute to protecting
wildlife for future generations and ensuring a healthy planet.
c. Wildlife conservation is the protection and preservation of animal species and their natural habitats.
d. This can be done through establishing protected areas, enforcing laws against poaching, and promoting
sustainable practices.
e. Conservation efforts help prevent species from going extinct and keep ecosystems balanced.
A. c-a-e-d-b B. c-b-e-a-d C. c-d-e-b-a D. c-a-d-e-b

Question 17.
a. However, despite the growing importance of continuous learning, many adults still face barriers to
accessing education, such as time constraints and financial challenges.
b. The rise of online courses and self-paced learning platforms has made it easier for people of all ages to
acquire new skills.
c. Lifelong learning is becoming increasingly essential as the job market evolves, requiring workers to stay
updated with new technologies and methodologies.
d. Over the past decade, there has been a growing recognition of the value of lifelong learning, both in
professional and personal contexts.
e. This shift in attitude towards learning has led to more people pursuing further education, with an
increasing number of individuals enrolling in online degree programs and skill-building workshops.
A. d-b-c-e-a B. d-c-e-b-a C. e-d-b-c-a D. b-e-d-c-a

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option
that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 18 to 22.
 The integration of technology into education has transformed the learning experience for both students
and teachers. Digital tools, such as tablets and online resources, (18) _______. As a result, learning has
become more interactive and accessible to a wider audience.
One of the significant advantages of using technology in education is the ability to customize learning
experiences. Students can work through learning materials at their own pace and choose resources (19)
______. This personalized approach has been shown to enhance engagement and motivation, leading to
better academic performance.
Furthermore, technology facilitates collaboration among students and teachers. (20) _______. This
collaborative learning environment helps students develop essential skills such as teamwork and problem-
solving, which are critical in today’s job market.
(21) _______. Dependence on technology in classrooms can lead to distractions and hinder the
development of critical thinking skills. Educators must find a balance between incorporating technology and
maintaining traditional teaching methods to ensure a well-rounded education.
Finally, the cost of implementing new technologies can be a significant barrier for some educational
institutions. (22) _______. It can also restrict the amount of support and supplies provided to teachers and
students. Thus, it is essential for schools to seek funding and support to effectively integrate technology into
their curricula.
Question 18.
A. have significantly altered the traditional classroom environments
B. having gradually replacing traditional classroom environments
C. are rapidly depleting traditional classroom environments
D. is transforming the way we see traditional classroom environments
Question 19.
A. that suit their individual learning styles
B. progressing through their lessons
C. which represents the educational achievements
D. engaged with educational content at schools
Question 20.
A. The use of digital platforms enables real-time communication and idea sharing
B. Access to online forums and discussion groups make it hard to share ideas and converse
C. The collaborative tools and resources requires communication regardless of distance
D. Technology's role in promoting group projects allows users to exchange thoughts instantly
Question 21.
A. Hence, overexposure to digital devices improves concentration
B. However, the reliance on technology also raises concerns
C. Besides, excessive screen time leads to better learning outcomes
D. Nevertheless, electronic devices eliminates the need for critical thinking
Question 22.
A. The required financial investment stretches their budgets thin
B. That financial limitation creates budget problems for numerous schools
C. The increasing affordability of advanced educational technology promotes innovation
D. The challenge of maintaining outdated systems places burden on many schools

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the best
answer to each of the following questions from 23 to 30.
Helping children learn to judge their own work is a crucial skill that begins early in life. When a
child learns to talk, they aren’t constantly corrected; instead, they observe and adjust their language by
comparing it to those around them. This natural process allows them to improve independently. Similarly,
children learn other skills like running, climbing, or riding a bicycle by observing others and refining their
own efforts. To foster independence, children should be encouraged to evaluate their own work, whether it’s
solving a math problem, writing a sentence, or completing a project. With guidance and peer collaboration,
they can learn to identify and correct their mistakes.
In subjects like math or science, providing tools such as answer books can empower children to
check their own work. This reduces the need for teachers to spend time on routine corrections and allows
them to focus on supporting students who struggle with specific challenges. By encouraging self-assessment,
children

develop critical thinking and problem-solving skills. They learn to measure their own understanding and
recognize gaps in their knowledge, which are essential skills for lifelong learning.
To support this process, teachers and parents should create an environment where children feel safe
to make mistakes and learn from them. Instead of relying on grades or exams, which often discourage
experimentation, children should be encouraged to explore and reflect on their progress . This approach
helps them take ownership of their learning and builds confidence in their abilities.
Ultimately, the goal is to prepare children for a world that values adaptability and self-directed
learning. By teaching them to judge their own work, we equip them with the tools to navigate challenges and
acquire new knowledge independently. If they miss something essential, they’ll have the skills to learn it
when needed, ensuring they thrive in an ever-changing world.
(Adapted from TOELF reading)
Question 23: Which of the following is NOT mentioned as a skill children learn independently?
A. talking B. running C. swimming D. riding a bicycle
Question 24: The word “refining” in paragraph 1 is OPPOSITE in meaning to _______.
A. improving B. damaging C. developing D. adjusting
Question 25: The word “them” in paragraph 3 refers to _______.
A. teachers B. children C. mistakes D. parents
Question 26: The word “empower” in paragraph 2 could be best replaced by _______.
A. weaken B. enable C. discourage D. restrict
Question 27: Which of the following best paraphrases the underlined sentence in paragraph 3?
A. Children should be assessed via exploration and self-reflection instead of grades or exams.
B. Children should avoid grades and exams to focus on creative experimentation and learning.
C. Teachers should ban grades and exams to encourage student progress and personal growth.
D. Reflection and exploration are far more important than grades and exams in education.
Question 28: Which of the following is TRUE according to the passage?
A. Children should rely on teachers to correct all their mistakes.
B. Self-assessment helps children develop critical thinking skills.
C. Grades and exams are essential for building confidence.
D. Children cannot learn independently without constant correction.
Question 29: In which paragraph does the writer mention the role of teachers and parents in creating a
supportive environment?
A. Paragraph 1 B. Paragraph 2 C. Paragraph 3 D. Paragraph 4
Question 30: In which paragraph does the writer mention the importance of adaptability and self-directed
learning?
A. Paragraph 1 B. Paragraph 2 C. Paragraph 3 D. Paragraph 4

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the best
answer to each of the following questions from 31 to 40.
[I] A considerable amount of research suggests a strong correlation between birth order and
personality development. [II] Psychologist Alfred Adler was a pioneer in this field, emphasizing that it is not
the numerical birth position itself that shapes personality, but rather the way families respond to children in
specific birth order positions. [III]For example, first-borns, who initially receive undivided attention from
their parents, often develop strong bonds with adults but may struggle with peer socialization later in life.
[IV]
Studies on birth order categorize individuals into four main types: first-born, middle, last-born, and
only children. First-borns tend to exhibit strong leadership qualities, responsibility, and academic
achievement. Research has shown that a disproportionately high number of first-borns become U.S.
presidents, members of Congress, and National Merit scholars. However, first-borns are also more prone to
stress and pressure, leading them to be labeled as "problem children" more often than their younger siblings.
Their high expectations can make them more perfectionistic and competitive.
Middle children, unlike first-borns, often feel overshadowed by older siblings. They may struggle
with feelings of inferiority, as they compare their achievements to their older siblings without considering
age differences. As a result, middle children often carve out their own identity by excelling in areas where
their older siblings do not. They are generally more social, trusting, and cooperative, which makes them
excel in team sports and group activities. They are also known to be more diplomatic, acting as peacemakers
within the family. Last-borns, often considered the "babies" of the family, tend to be more carefree,
outgoing, and

socially successful. With a strong sense of security, they engage in group activities such as sororities,
fraternities, and social clubs, and are less competitive than their older siblings.
Only children share traits with both first- and last-borns. Like last-borns, they often develop a strong
sense of security and self-esteem due to receiving full parental attention. However, like first-borns, they are
highly achievement-oriented, excelling academically and often setting high personal goals. Despite these
strengths, only children may struggle with forming close relationships and tend to have a lower need for
social affiliation. With no siblings to compete or cooperate with, they may become more independent but
also experience difficulties in peer relationships.
(Adapted from TOELF reading)
Question 31: Where in paragraph I does the following sentence best fit?
“In contrast, later-born children grow up interacting with siblings from an early age, leading to stronger
socialization skills and adaptability.”
A. [I] B. [II] C. [III] D. [IV]
Question 32: According to paragraph 2, which of the following is NOT a characteristic of first-borns?
A. Leadership qualities B. Academic achievement
C. Peacemakers D. High expectations
Question 33: The word "carve out" in paragraph 3 could be best replaced by
A. erase B. create C. destroy D. follow
Question 34: The word “they” in paragraph 3 refers to _______
A. first-borns B. middle children C. siblings D. last-borns
Question 35: Which of the following best summarizes paragraph 3?
A. Middle children struggle with finding their own place but develop strong social skills.
B. Middle children tend to be highly competitive and naturally dominate their siblings.
C. Middle children often struggle with social skills and frequently fail to succeed in life.
D. Middle children are always completely dependent on their older and younger siblings.
Question 36: The word "carefree" in paragraph 3 is OPPOSITE in meaning to
A. anxious B. cheerful C. outgoing D. sociable
Question 37: Which of the following is NOT TRUE according to the passage?
A. Only children share traits with both first-borns and last-borns.
B. Middle children tend to be more competitive than first-borns.
C. First-borns are more likely to achieve high academic success.
D. Last-borns tend to be more involved in social groups.
Question 38: Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?
A. Birth order has no impact on personality development.
B. Personality traits are influenced by birth position.
C. First-borns are the least likely to succeed academically.
D. Last-born children struggle with socialization.
Question 39: Which of the following best paraphrases the underlined sentence in paragraph 4?
"Only children may struggle with forming close relationships and tend to have a lower need for
social affiliation."
A. Only children are often highly dependent on others for emotional support and guidance.
B. Only children sometimes prefer isolation and may avoid forming close relationships.
C. Only children may find it difficult to bond with others and don’t seek social interactions
D. Only children have no social skills and are incapable of forming close relationships.
Question 40: Which of the following best summarizes the passage?
A. Birth order is sometimes believed to have no real effect on personality development.
B. Different birth positions in families tend to influence personality traits and behavior.
C. Middle children are not always more successful than first-borns.
D. Last-borns are often thought to be the ones who develop strong social skills.
 ĐỀ THAM KHẢO KÌ THI TỐT NGHIỆP THPT NĂM 2025
Bài thi: NGOẠI NGỮ; Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
Thời gian làm bài: 50 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề

ĐỀ SỐ 4

Read the following advertisement and mark the letter A, B, C and D on your answer sheet to indicate the
option that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 1 to 6
Discover the Power of Mass Media
Are you looking to boost your brand’s (1) _____ and reach thousands of viewers? Mass media can
help you achieve that! With a (2) _____ on TV, radio, and online platforms, your message will be seen and
heard by a wide audience. Commercials, which are designed to grab attention, can be created for you by
professional teams, (3) _____ your product stands out.
By using platforms that are trusted by millions, your brand will grow in ways you have never
imagined. (4) ______ it’s through ads that are made to inspire or campaigns that are crafted to inform, mass
media works like a charm to deliver results. Don’t miss this chance to connect (5) _____ your audience in a
way (6) _____ leaves a lasting impression. Contact us today and let your story be told!
Question 1. A. publicity B. public C. publicly D. publicize
Question 2. A. strong presence media B. presence strong media
C. strong media presence D. media presence strong
Question 3. A. ensuring B. ensure C. to ensure D. which ensured
Question 4. A. While B. When C. Whether D. If
Question 5. A. for B. with C. by D. to
Question 6. A. whose B. who C. whom D. that

Read the following leaflet and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option
that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 7 to 12.
How AI Can Help You Learn!
AI is transforming education in incredible ways, and it’s here to make your learning journey (7) _____and
more effective. Let’s explore how it can help you:
Facts and figures:
AI tools can create (8) _____ digital portfolios which showcase your skills and achievements in a
professional and organized way. They can (9) _____ sort information into categories, making complex
concepts clearer to understand.
Positive action!
* Use AI to (10) _____ opportunities relevant to your skills.
* Let AI organize your work for you. You can have tasks like progress checks, scheduling, and reminders
done (11) _____, saving your time and energy.
* Engage in (12) _____ activities to reduce the amount of wasted time.
* Use AI to sort your materials efficiently and focus on what matters.
Question 7. A. easy B. easier C. easiest D. easily
Question 8. A. a variety of B. a wealth of C. a great deal of D. plenty of
Question 9. A. too B. still C. also D. yet
Question 10. A. look up B. break down C. narrow down D. apply for
Question 11. A. effortlessly B. manually C. randomly D. strenuously
Question 12. A. casual B. tailored C. outdated D. formal

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the best arrangement of utterances or
sentences to make a meaningful exchange or text in each of the following questions from 13 to 17.
Question 13.
a. Janet: Hi Miranda, how are things?
b. Janet: Oh, I'm facing a similar challenge. My parents are very strict and set hard rules, too.
c. Miranda: Everything is great at school; except I'm having problems with my parents at home.
A. a-b-c B. b-c-a C. a-c-b D. b-a-c
Question 14.
a. An: I’m thinking of going hiking if the weather is nice!
b. Jane: I totally get that. Got any fun plans for the weekend?
c. An: Hey, how’s your day going?
d. An: Same here, just trying to get everything done before the weekend.
e. Jane: Not bad, just a bit busy. How about yours?
A. a - d - c - e - b B. b - c - e - a - d C. d - e - a - b - c D. c - e - d - b - a
Question 15.
Dear Sreya,
a. If there is any way of preponing the get-together to any time before the month-end, I can definitely make
it to our gathering.
b. It is extremely thoughtful of you to plan a get-together for all of us.
c. Waiting to hear from you.
d. I hope we can reschedule the get-together and not miss the chance to meet up.
e. I wish I could join you, but I am sorry to say that I have a project starting next month, and it would not be
possible for me to be there.
With love,
Surya
A. b - d - a - e - c B. b - e - a - d - c C. b - a - e - d - c D. b - a - d - e - c
Question 16.
a. By imposing restrictions, parents can allocate more time for learning and healthier outdoor pursuits.
b. Secondly, excessive screen time poses health risks, including potential damage to eyesight, headaches,
and issues like sleep disturbances and weight problems.
c. Firstly, prolonged screen use often hinders teenagers from completing their homework, impacting both
their academic performance and outdoor activities.
d. Excessive screen time is a prevalent issue among today's teenagers, and I strongly advocate for parents to
impose strict limits on their usage for two crucial reasons.
e. In conclusion, parental control over teenagers' digital device usage is vital to ensure a balance between
academic responsibilities, outdoor activities, and the protection of their overall health
A. c - e - d - a - b B. d - c - a - b - e C. d - e - c - a - b D. d - c - e - a - b
Question 17.
a. However, experts believe that AI will not just eliminate jobs but also create new opportunities
in areas that require human creativity, emotional intelligence, and complex problem-solving skills.
b. The rapid development of artificial intelligence (AI) is significantly altering the global job market, with
many industries being affected.
c. A report showed that in 2023 alone, over 1.5 million jobs were automated globally due to advancements
in AI technologies, and this number is expected to rise.
d. Numerous workers are growing increasingly concerned about job security as AI continues to replace
positions traditionally held by humans, particularly in fields like manufacturing and customer service.
e. In conclusion, the key challenge for the workforce will be to adapt to these changes by reskilling and
embracing new roles that AI cannot easily replace.
A. b - a - c - d - e B. b - d - c - a - e C. d - a - c - b - e D. a - d - c - b – e

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option
that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 18 to 22.
AI All Around Us
Artificial intelligence, or AI, is the development of computer systems that can carry out tasks that
normally require human intelligence, such as interpretation and decision-making. (18)______, AI enables
machines to process large amounts of information and imitate real human brain functions. The amazing
accuracy and efficiency of AI have resulted in its widespread use in a variety of areas, and there are already
a number of different applications for the technology.
Nowadays, AI-powered robots are becoming increasingly common. Industrial robots, for instance,
(19) ______. Experts have said that these robots are designed to work with a high level of accuracy and
speed, which improves productivity in factories. There are also AI-equipped rescue robots that can be used
to help save lives in emergency situations. (20) ______.
 At the same time, AI is also being used to power gadgets that help us in our daily lives. Private
digital assistants, for example, can understand and respond to users' voice commands, (21) ______. AI-
powered navigation apps can use real-time data processing to help us find the quickest and most efficient
routes to our destinations when we are travelling. A diet tracker is another type of AI application that can
provide users with nutrition recommendations based on their specific needs. In this way, AI is changing our
routines and personal habits. AI is a rapidly developing technology that is not only transforming industries
(22)______. In the years to come, we can surely expect more innovative and amazing AI applications.
(Adapted from Tiếng Anh 12 Bright, page 78 )
Question 18.
A. Used Algorithm- known as complex mathematical rules
B. The widespread use of mathematical rules called Algorithm
C. Using complex mathematical rules called Algorithm
D. Through Algorithm- complex mathematical rules being used
Question 19.
A. having widely been used to perform tasks related to manufacturing like painting and product assembly
B. are widely used to perform tasks related to manufacturing like painting and product assembly.
C. perform tasks related to manufacturing like painting and product assembly are widely used.
D. which are widely used to perform tasks related to manufacturing like painting and product assembly
Question 20.
A. These machines can make intelligent choices to avoid obstacles in almost all dangerous environments.
B. The fact that these machines can make intelligent choices to avoid obstacles in dangerous environments.
C. What makes these machines become intelligent choices to avoid obstacles in dangerous environments.
D. These machines making intelligent choices to avoid obstacles in dangerous environments may be a reality.
Question 21.
A. which makes looking up information online and scheduling appointments more complicated.
B. which makes them useful for simple tasks like looking up information online and scheduling appointments.
C. among which tasks like looking up information online and scheduling appointments become more useful.
D. where various functionalities have been introduced to elevate its performance in real-world situations
Question 22.
A. but it also changing our daily lives and doing tasks that used to be considered impossible for machines.
B. but tasks are also considered impossible for machines and changes our daily lives in different ways.
C. but also changing our daily lives and doing tasks that used to be considered impossible for machines.
D. and it is also changing our daily lives and doing some tasks that may be unsuitable for machines.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the best
answer to each of the following questions from 23 to 30.
The overall level of urbanization in Indonesia is low in relation to other countries that are at a comparable
stage of economic growth. This can be explained by the phenomenon of nonpermanent, or “circular,”
migration on Java and elsewhere: individuals from rural areas live and work in the cities, but they return to
their homes at least once every six months. Nevertheless, although there is regional variation in urban
growth rates, cities of every population size are growing rapidly.
The growth of the cities has not been accompanied by a parallel growth of industry. The outlook of
much of the urban population is still rural. For example, large parts of the population, even in Jakarta, live in
settlements that amount to urban kampongs (villages), maintaining rural customs. Urban dwellers generally
have a higher standard of living than their rural counterparts, but the availability of adequate housing,
potable water, and public transportation services has remained a critical concern.
Indonesia’s urban areas also display great social and economic diversity. The upper class consists of
government officials, military officers, and business leaders with a Western orientation; the growing middle
class includes civil servants, teachers, and other professionals, as well as skilled workers who typically must
struggle to maintain their economic position; and the lower class comprises a larger number of minimally
educated and unskilled laborers, traders, and other members of the informal economy who strongly identify
with their villages and frequently move back and forth to engage in economic pursuits in both areas.
The significant rural migration rate in main cities makes them ethnically diverse. Jakarta is the most
diverse. Many individuals born or raised there still refer to themselves as Batak, Javanese, or Minangkabau
and use their local languages at home. These ethnic ties often are strengthened by trips to home villages
during harvest time or Ramadan month.
 (Adapted from https://www.britannica.com/Indonesia/Urban-settlement)

Question 23. The word they in paragraph 1 refers to ______.

A. cities B. individuals C. homes D. areas
Question 24. Which of the following best paraphrases the underlined sentence in paragraph 2?
A. Industrial progress has outpaced the development of cities in some aspects.
B. The increase in urban areas has been mirrored by equivalent industrial growth.
C. The growth of the cities has been influenced by the vibrant industry.
D. While cities have expanded, industry has failed to grow at the same rate.
Question 25. The word potable in paragraph 2 could be best replaced by ______.
A. drinkable B. polluted C. portable D. salty
Question 26. The phrase identify with in paragraph 3 is OPPOSITE in meaning to ______.
A. turn away from B. form attachments to
C. feel sympathy with D. remain linked to
Question 27. Which of the following is NOT mentioned as a critical concern in Indonesian urban areas?
A. adequate housing B. potable water
C. rural customs D. public transportation services
Question 28. Which of the following is NOT TRUE according to the passage?
A. Indonesian cities are growing quickly because of urbanization.
B. Skilled workers in Indonesia can easily maintain their economic position.
C. Many people living in urban kampongs still keep rural customs
D. Indonesian business leaders gradually have a Western orientation.
Question 29. In which paragraph does the writer compare the overall level of urbanization in Indonesia with
that in other countries?
A. Paragraph 1 B. Paragraph 2 C. Paragraph 3 D. Paragraph 4
Question 30. In which paragraph does the writer discuss the ethnic diversity of Indonesia's main cities?
A. Paragraph 1 B. Paragraph 2 C. Paragraph 3 D. Paragraph 4

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the best
answer to each of the following questions from 31 to 40.
A Biography of Vincent Van Gogh (1853-1890)
[I] Vincent Van Gogh was one of history’s greatest painters, although he met only rejection and failure
during his lifetime. Van Gogh was born in the Netherlands. [II] He was well educated in French and English
but was shy and introverted as a child, lacking self-confidence. His greatest friend was his younger brother
Theo, who supported him emotionally and financially all his life. [III] At 16, Van Gogh turned to religion
and became a preacher in an impoverished mining district of Belgium. [IV] Van Gogh still stayed without
pay because he was concerned about the suffering of the poor miners.
After his failure as a preacher, Van Gogh decided to devote his life to art. Although he had been drawing
since childhood, his first major painting, “Potato Eaters”, was completed when he was in his late twenties. In
1886, Van Gogh briefly attended formal art school in Antwerp, where he discovered Japanese art, which
inspired him to use bright, vibrant colors. For him, color was the key to communicating his emotions.
In 1887, Van Gogh visited Theo in Paris, where he met the Impressionists; he liked their use of natural
light and color, although he regretted their lack of commitment to social causes. Van Gogh wanted his
artworks to hang in poor people’s homes to bring them happiness through beauty. Unlike the Impressionists,
he painted not what he saw but what he felt. His style of Expressionism opened the way to the modern,
abstract art of the 20th century.
In 1888, Van Gogh moved to Arles, in the South of France. There, he spent most of the money Theo sent
him on painting supplies, neglecting his health. Feeling lonely as a foreigner and an artist, he invited Paul
Gauguin to found an artists’ colony, but the two soon quarreled. Suffering from severe depression, Van
Gogh asked to be taken to a mental hospital, where he continued painting. He passed away in Auvers, near
Paris, at the age of 37. His last words were, “The sadness will never end.” Theo died six months later and
was buried next to his brother.
(Adapted from Longman Academic Reading)
Question 31. Where in paragraph 1 does the following sentence best fit?
He was dismissed by his church after six months.
A. [I] B. [II] C. [III] D. [IV]
Question 32. The word impoverished in paragraph 1 could be best replaced by ______.
A. poor B. improved C. industrial D. wealthy
Question 33. The word inspired in paragraph 2 is OPPOSITE in meaning to ______.
A. motivated B. discouraged C. expected D. allowed
Question 34. Which of the following best summarizes paragraph 2?
A. Van Gogh pursued a career as a preacher after discovering his talent for art and mastering
Japanese artist techniques in his early years.
B. After abandoning preaching, Van Gogh pursued art, drawing inspiration from Japanese styles and
using color to express emotions.
C. Van Gogh succeeded as a preacher in 1886 and went to art school in Antwerp, where he
completed his first major Japanese painting.
D. Transitioning from preaching, Van Gogh embraced art as his true calling and created “Potato
Eaters”, a Japanese-style major work of art.
Question 35. Which of the following best paraphrases the underlined sentence in paragraph 3?
A. Their utilization of natural light and color was appealing to him, but he felt that they should have
been more invested in social concerns.
B. It was not until he felt disappointed in their lack of dedication to social problems that they utilized
natural light and color.
C. Had they used more natural light and color in their paintings, he would have appreciated their
social commitment.
D. Though he admired their dedication to social problems, he criticized their use of natural light and
color in their paintings.
Question 36. The word them in paragraph 3 refers to ______.
A. poor people B. the Impressionists
C. social causes D. his artworks
Question 37. According to paragraph 4, which of the following places was NOT involved in Van Gogh’s
life?
A. Arles B. Auvers C. France D. Japan
Question 38. Which of the following is TRUE according to the passage?
A. Van Gogh became a preacher at the age of 18.
B. Van Gogh’s final painting was “Potato Eaters”.
C. Van Gogh met the Impressionists in Paris.
D. Van Gogh died after his brother Theo.
Question 39. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?
A. Paul Gauguin consistently got along well with Van Gogh.
B. Van Gogh and the Impressionists shared the same interest in helping the poor.
C. Buying art supplies was more important to Van Gogh than his health.
D. Van Gogh was successful when working as a preacher in Belgium.
Question 40. Which of the following best summarizes the passage?
A. Vincent Van Gogh, a great painter, devoted his life to creating artworks with emotion-driven
techniques that influenced modern abstract art despite his personal struggles, loneliness, and lack of
recognition during his lifetime.
B. Vincent Van Gogh, a passionate artist, transitioned from failed preacher to create expressive
paintings, pioneering modern Expressionism despite a life marked by rejection and profound personal
loneliness.
C. Vincent Van Gogh, a misunderstood genius, revolutionized art with vibrant, emotion-filled works,
aiming to convey raw human feeling despite facing poverty, mental illness, and critical indifference.
D. Vincent Van Gogh, a dedicated painter, crafted unique artworks blending Japanese art and
Impressionism, reflecting his inner struggles and religious beliefs despite battling depression and enduring
public criticism.
 ĐỀ THAM KHẢO KÌ THI TỐT NGHIỆP THPT NĂM 2025
Bài thi: NGOẠI NGỮ; Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
Thời gian làm bài: 50 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề

ĐỀ SỐ 5

Read the following advertisement and mark the letter A, B, C and D on your answer sheet to indicate the
option that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 1 to 6
Canteen Manager Recruitment Notice
Are you passionate about food service?
Are you ready for a (1) ______ role?
Queen Mary University of London is seeking (2) ______ dedicated Canteen Manager. The ideal candidate
should hold a diploma in Hospitality Management (or a related field) and have at least two years of
experience in food service or canteen management . The candidate (3) ______ to demonstrate a strong
understanding of food hygiene (4) ______, inventory control, and customer service.
We value people maintaining a clean, safe, and efficient canteen environment. The role requires a proactive
attitude and a commitment (5) ______ upholding high standards in all aspects of food service. The candidate
should (6) ______ daily tasks and ensure smooth operations every day.
Interested candidates should submit their detailed CVs to the Principal, Queen Mary University of London,
by May 15, 2025.
Question 1. A. challenge B. challenging C. challenged D. challengingly
Question 2. A. an B. the C. a D. no article
Question 3. A. is expected B. was expected C. was being expected D. had been
expected
Question 4. A. factors B. habits C. practices D. effects
Question 5. A. for B. to C. about D. of
Question 6. A. take B. make C. have D. handle

Read the following leaflet and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option
that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 7 to 12.
Simple Steps to Save Water Outdoors
Irrigate with care
Apply moderate amounts of water to create a healthy, drought- and stress-tolerant lawn. For most lawns,
applying no more than (7) ______ of an inch of water per application is enough to (8) ______ the grass.
Plant Florida-friendly lawns
Plant native or drought-tolerant vegetation that thrives in the native soil and local weather conditions.
(9)______, they require less maintenance and help conserve water.
Nozzle outdoors
Equip hoses (10) ______ automatic shutoff nozzles for car washing, hand watering, etc.
Avoid Buzz Cuts
Cut no more than one-third of the grass length at one time to encourage deeper root growth.
Fertilize Responsibly
Excessive nutrients (11) ______ our waterways do not only come from big industry or agriculture. The use
of fertilizers and pesticides on our yards results in pollutants contaminating the waterways. (12)______ are
encouraged to use fertilizers or pesticides in the correct amounts during other times of the year.

Question 7. A. three-quarters B. three-quarter C. third-quarters D. third-quarter

Question 8. A. renew B. revitalize C. replace D. restore
Question 9. A. However B. Although C. Moreover D. Otherwise
Question 10. A. with B. of C. in D. at
Question 11. A. running off B. flowing into C. dropping from D. floating along
Question 12. A. People B. Occupants C. Citizens D. Residents
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the best arrangement of utterances or
sentences to make a meaningful exchange or text in each of the following questions from 13 to 17.

Question 13.
a. Peter: Excuse me. Can you show me the way to the nearest bank?
b. Peter: Thank you so much!
c. Local: Sure! Go straight ahead, then turn left at the second intersection. The bank is on your right.
A. c-a-b B. b-c-a C. c-b-a D. a-c-b
Question 14.
a. John: Jogging every morning? Isn’t that tiring?
b. Anna: I go jogging every morning and eat healthy food.
c. John: How do you stay so fit?
d. John: That’s great! Maybe I should try jogging too.
e. Anna: Not really! It gives me more energy for the day.
A. c-b-a-e-d B. c-e-d-b-a C. d-b-a-e-c D. d-e-a-b-c
Question 15.
Hi James,
a. But I’m a bit worried about the time commitment.
b. Thanks for inviting me to join your study group!
c. I really like the idea because it helps me stay motivated.
d. Are the meetings flexible, or do we have fixed schedules?
e. If it works for my schedule, I’d love to join!
Write back soon.
Anna
A. d-b-a-c-e B. b-e-a-d-c C. b-c-a-d-e D. a-c-d-b-e
Question 16.
a. Throughout the past two years, I have been deeply immersed in the fulfilling vocation of teaching English,
where I facilitate students in refining their linguistic capabilities and bolstering their self-assurance.
b. My enduring passion for education and personal advancement has driven me to pursue a career dedicated
to teaching.
c. In summation, the profession of teaching epitomizes a profoundly gratifying pursuit that aligns
impeccably with my ambitions and fervent interests.
d. While the challenges of managing a classroom can be formidable, the profound satisfaction derived from
observing my students' progress renders all efforts worthwhile.
e. Teaching not only affords me the privilege of disseminating knowledge but also grants me the invaluable
opportunity to glean insights from my students.
A. d-b-c-e-a B. a-b-c-d-e C. b-c-d-a-e D. b-a-e-c-d
Question 17.
a. Despite the remarkable developments, the public transportation infrastructure remains inadequate, creating
significant challenges for the daily commutes faced by numerous residents.
b. Over the past decade, Riverton has experienced an extraordinary transformation, characterized by
substantial growth and modernization.
c. Numerous outdated residential structures have been supplanted by contemporary apartment complexes,
attracting a diverse array of young professionals and families.
d. This swift urbanization has acted as a catalyst for economic expansion, leading to the emergence of new
shopping centers, upscale dining venues, and corporate office spaces.
e. The population has surged by nearly 30%, resulting in increased demand for housing and skyrocketing
property prices.
A. d-b-c-e-a B. b-c-d-e-a C. d-e-a-b-c D. d-e-b-c-a
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option
that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 18 to 22.
The field of robotics has witnessed remarkable advancements, with humanoid robots now playing an
active role in society. One of the most advanced examples, Ameca, (18) ______. Designed with the latest
artificial intelligence and robotics technology, Ameca has impressed audiences worldwide with its realistic
facial expressions and conversational abilities.
 Ameca was developed by Engineered Arts, (19) ______. The company specializes in creating lifelike
robotic models that can interact with humans in a natural manner. (20) ______.
Ameca’s sophisticated design allows it to mimic human gestures and emotions. (21) ______. Powered by
advanced AI systems, (22) ______. This capability enables it to adapt its responses based on the emotional
context of the interaction, enhancing the quality of communication.
As societal needs evolve, the role of humanoid robots like Ameca will become increasingly
significant. They could provide companionship to the elderly, assist in educational settings, or serve as
interactive guides in museums. The integration of such technology not only represents a leap forward in
robotics but also invites important discussions about the ethical implications and future of human-robot
relationships. As we move forward, the potential for humanoid robots to enrich human lives appears
boundless.
Question 18.
A. was first revealed to the public in December 2021
B. of which the first introduction was in December 2021
C. having been introduced to the public in December 2021
D. which had its first appearance in December 2021
Question 19.
A. which has pioneered in lifelike robotics for over a decade
B. whose work in robotics has led to the development of humanoid models
C. that brought humanoid robots to reality through innovative research
D. of which research and development in robotics resulted in Ameca
Question 20.
A. It has been designed to enhance human interaction in various fields
B. The objective was to improve human interaction across multiple domains
C. Ameca was developed to enhance human interaction in a variety of fields
D. With the aim of improving human interaction, Ameca was built
Question 21.
A. Equipped with sensors and AI, Ameca can detect emotions and respond naturally
B. Ameca can detect emotions and respond naturally with the help of sensors and AI
C. Ameca utilizes AI sensors to detect human emotions and respond naturally
D. With the help of AI sensors, Ameca is capable of detecting emotions and responding naturally
Question 22.
A. Ameca can comprehend and engage in significant conversations with humans
B. Ameca specializes in understanding and engaging in meaningful conversations
C. The humanoid robot engages in meaningful conversations with humans
D. One of Ameca's capabilities is engaging in meaningful conversations

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the best
answer to each of the following questions from 23 to 30.
There is growing concern about how artificial intelligence (AI) is used. While AI provides many
benefits, it can also create some problems. In this essay, I will discuss both the pros and cons and whether
the advantages outweigh the disadvantages.
Most people agree that AI can help free up human time and energy by automating tasks. This will
allow humans to focus on more creative activities. It is already being used to replace humans in tedious tasks
such as data entry and cleaning. In addition to this, AI can also improve accuracy for certain tasks since AI
does not get tired and make mistakes because of that. It can also process data much faster than humans. For
example, a new AI system can suggest correct treatments for 94% of cases with eye conditions. The benefits
that AI brings can assist humans in various tasks, from simple to complicated ones, and allow us to focus on
creating even greater inventions.
On the other hand, there are also some potential drawbacks of using AI. Since AI is used to
automate tasks, it could lead to job losses for millions of people. It is estimated that 3-14% of people will
lose their jobs to AI by 2030. Another key thing to consider is that AI can increase disinformation. It is
impossible to distinguish between a real video and a fake one generated by AI, which makes it easier to
spread false information. However, these problems can be solved by training humans to work with AI and
creating laws to control how AI is used.
 All things considered, AI has some potential drawbacks, such as job losses and spreading
disinformation. However, I believe the benefits, such as improving accuracy and processing speeds, are far
greater. If we make sure AI is used responsibly, it can help us create a better and more efficient world.
(Adapted from ILSW 12)

Question 23. Which of the following is NOT mentioned as a benefit of AI?

A. automating repetitive tasks B. improving accuracy
C. helping humans focus on creativity D. reducing unemployment
Question 24. The word This in paragraph 2 refers to _______.
A. AI replacing humans in tedious tasks B. AI improving accuracy
C. AI being used for creative work D. AI making mistakes
Question 25. The word drawbacks in paragraph 3 is OPPOSITE in meaning to _______.
A. benefits B. disadvantages C. risks D. problems
Question 26. The word automate in paragraph 3 could be best replaced by _______.
A. control B. replace C. mechanize D. eliminate
Question 27. Which of the following best paraphrases the underlined sentence in paragraph 3?
"Another key thing to consider is that AI can increase disinformation."
A. AI makes it easier to spread false information. B. AI reduces the chance of misinformation.
C. AI prevents people from accessing fake news. D. AI controls information flow on the internet.
Question 28. Which of the following is TRUE according to the passage?
A. AI will replace humans in all jobs. B. AI has both advantages and disadvantages.
C. AI does not affect employment. D. AI is only used in factories.
Question 29. In which paragraph does the writer mention a real-world example of AI improving accuracy?
A. Paragraph 1 B. Paragraph 2 C. Paragraph 3 D. Paragraph 4
Question 30. In which paragraph does the writer discuss the impact of AI on employment?
A. Paragraph 1 B. Paragraph 2 C. Paragraph 3 D. Paragraph 4

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the best
answer to each of the following questions from 31 to 40.
Human populations have tended to increase over time. As more people were born, small groups of
individuals found reasons to come together to form groups and, with the advent of agriculture, small
sedentary communities. A small number of these settlements grew into what we now call cities. This kind of
growth often corresponds with a shift from one way of organizing labor to another.
The world population has grown significantly and our economies have become more
industrialized over the past few hundred years. As a result, many more people have moved into cities.
This process is known as urbanization. Even after cities emerged, however, a large majority of people lived
and worked in rural areas. It was not until large-scale industrialization began in the eighteenth century that
cities really began to boom. Nearly half of all people now live in urban areas. They are attracted by jobs in
manufacturing and the professions, as well as by increased opportunities for education and entertainment.
Urbanization is often discussed in reference to countries that are currently in the process of
industrializing and urbanizing, but all industrialized nations have experienced urbanization at some point in
their history. Moreover, urbanization is on the rise all over the globe.
[I] One effect of this huge increase in people living in urban areas is the rise of the megacity, which
is a city that has more than 10 million inhabitants. [II] There are now cities with even more than that. [III]
Another effect of urbanization is urban sprawl. [IV] Urban sprawl is when the population of a city becomes
dispersed over an increasingly large geographical area. This movement from higher density urban cores to
lower density suburbs means that as cities expand, they often begin to take up significant tracts of land
formerly used for agriculture. Sprawl also increases the need for travel infrastructure, such as roads, because
people’s homes are likely to be farther away from where they work and the amenities they enjoy.
As we move forward in the 21st century, the global population is likely to continue growing. Urban
areas will continue to grow with the population. This continual growth presents complex challenges as we
prepare for the cities of the future. How we choose to manage urbanization will have consequences for our
world for many years to come.
(Adapted from ttps://education.nationalgeographic.org/resource/urbanization/ )
Question 31. The word “boom” in paragraph 2 is OPPOSITE in meaning to _______.
A. decline B. expand C. develop D. increase
Question 32. The word “They” in paragraph 4 refers to _______.
A. higher density B. suburbs C. cities D. movement
Question 33. Where in paragraph 4 does the following sentence best fit?

Tokyo, Japan, for example, has nearly 40 million residents.

A. [I] B. [II] C. [III] D. [IV]
Question 34. The phrase “urban sprawl” in paragraph 4 could be best replaced by _______.
A. the increase of public transport in cities B. the uncontrolled expansion of urban areas
C. the reduction of city populations D. the improvement of housing conditions
Question 35. According to paragraph 4, which of the following is NOT a consequence of urban sprawl?
A. The expansion of cities into agricultural land
B. An increase in the need for transportation infrastructure
C. A notable rise in population density within city centers
D. The movement of people from city centers to suburbs
Question 36. Which of the following best summarises paragraph 3?
A. Urbanization is exclusively observed in the modern era.
B. Urbanization occurs worldwide and has been a historical process.
C. Industrialized nations no longer experience urbanization.
D. Urbanization is mostly found in developing countries.
Question 37. Which of the following is NOT TRUE according to the passage?
A. Cities have always been the most common places for people to live.
B. Urbanization progressively increases as economies undergo industrialization.
C. The process of urbanization has happened in all industrialized nations.
D. Megacities are cities characterized by over 10 million people.
Question 38. Which of the following best paraphrases the underlined sentence in paragraph 4?
A. The world’s population has shrunk as industrialization spread.
B. Industrialization has led to population growth.
C. Industrialization has had little effect on population.
D. Population growth has slowed in industrialized economies.
Question 39. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?
A. Poorly managed urbanization can cause problems.
B. Urban sprawl makes cities more sustainable.
C. The world’s population will stop growing soon.
D. Transport development does not affect urbanization.
Question 40. Which of the following best summarises the passage?
A. Urbanization is ongoing, bringing both opportunities and challenges.
B. Cities are steadily shrinking as more people relocate to rural regions.
C. Industrialization does not significantly influence the process of urbanization.
D. Urban sprawl actually contributes to preserving existing agricultural land.
 ĐỀ THAM KHẢO KÌ THI TỐT NGHIỆP THPT NĂM 2025
Bài thi: NGOẠI NGỮ; Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
Thời gian làm bài: 50 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề

ĐỀ SỐ 6

Read the following advertisement and mark the letter A, B, C and D on your answer sheet to indicate the
option that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 1 to 6
Exciting News: Find Your Perfect Study Buddy with StudyMatch!
Are you tired (1) ______ studying alone or working with the wrong partner? StudyMatch is here to help!
Our new ‘Find & Learn’ system makes it easy to connect with the right study buddy.
When you sign up, you can create a profile and share your subjects and interests with other students. You
will also see their profiles. This way, you can choose the (2) ______ based on your learning style and
goals.
● If you want to focus on your schoolwork, find a serious study partner who shares your academic
interests and (3) ______ to learning with you.
● Prefer a fun study session? Connect with students who enjoy chatting about hobbies and learning
in a relaxed way.
● Need help with a difficult subject? You (4) ______ match with someone who has strong skills in
that area.
● With StudyMatch, learning becomes easier and more (5) ______. Don't waste time studying
alone—find the right partner today!
Sign up now and start learning smarter! Visit www.studymatch.com or download the app to (6) ______
started.
Question 1: A. of B. with C. by D. on
Question 2: A. ideal companion learning B. companion learning ideal
C. learning ideal companion D. ideal learning companion
Question 3: A. to commit B. commits C. commit D. committing
Question 4: A. shouldn’t B. must C. should D. mustn’t
Question 5: A. enjoy B. enjoyment C. enjoyable D. enjoyably
Question 6: A. get B. be C. make D. become

Read the following leaflet and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option
that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 7 to 12.
We are excited to announce that our school will be hosting a Charity Fun Fair next Saturday for the
local orphanage! There will be (7) ______ exciting activities. We would like to remind you that all students
must register in advance (8) ______ we can prepare accordingly. Registration forms are available at the
school office.
To make this event successful, we are looking for volunteers who can (9) ______ their time to help
with setting up stalls, managing activities, and (10) ______ afterward. Your support will make a big
difference!
We also need donations of books, clothes, and toys. All donated items should be in good (11) ______.
If you are interested in helping, please sign up with the Student Council, who is organizing the event
(12)______ the orphanage. We truly appreciate your efforts and hope that everyone will join in to make this
event a success.
Question 7: A. any B. little C. much D. many
Question 8: A. although B. because C. so that D. unless
Question 9: A. borrow B. donate C. waste D. remove
Question 10. A. cleaning up B. running away C. putting off D. turning down
Question 11: A. condition B. standard C. situation D. criterion
Question 12: A. on behalf of B. instead of C. in spite of D. in case of
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the best arrangement of utterances or
sentences to make a meaningful exchange or text in each of the following questions from 13 to 17.

Question 13:
a. Lisa: Yes! I’ve just passed my driving test.
b. Kate: Hi, Lisa! You look so happy today.
c. Kate: Wow! Congratulations! I’m so proud of you.
A. a – b – c B. b – a – c C. c – a – b D. b – c – a
Question 14:
a. Lan: I often go hiking with my friends. It’s really fun and refreshing.
b. Huong: How do you usually spend your weekends, Lan?
c. Lan: We usually go to the mountains near our city. The scenery is amazing there.
d. Huong: That sounds interesting! Where do you usually go?
e. Huong: I’d love to try that someday!
A. b – a – d – c – e B. b – d – a – c – e C. e – b – d – c – a D. b – a – e – c – d
Question 15:
Dear Emma,
a. I’ve recently read an article about endangered species, and it made me realize how urgent it is to protect
wildlife.
b. Have you ever participated in any wildlife conservation projects? I’d love to get involved but don’t know
where to start.
c. The destruction of natural habitats and illegal hunting are causing so many animals to disappear.
d. I hope we can find ways to contribute, even in small ways, to help protect these animals.
e. Let me know if you have any suggestions! Looking forward to your reply.
Best wishes,
Sarah
A. a – c – b – d – e B. a – b – c – d – e C. a – c – d – b – e D. a – d – c – b – e
Question 16:
a. Globalization has enabled people from different cultures to interact more easily than ever before.
b. However, cultural differences can sometimes lead to misunderstandings and conflicts.
c. To overcome these challenges, individuals should develop cultural awareness and respect for others'
traditions.
d. As a result, societies today are becoming more multicultural and diverse.
e. By promoting cross-cultural understanding, people can build a more inclusive and harmonious world.
A. a - b - d - e - c B. d - a - b - c – e C. a - d - b - c - e D. a - d - e - b - c
Question 17:
a. These skills include communication, teamwork, time management, and problem-solving.
b. In today's workplace, soft skills are just as important as technical skills.
c. Employers highly value candidates who possess strong soft skills, as they contribute to a positive and
productive work environment.
d. Without these abilities, even the most skilled employees may struggle to collaborate effectively.
e. Therefore, developing soft skills should be a priority for anyone preparing to enter the workforce.
A. b – a – d – c – e B. a – b – c – d – e C. b – c – a – d – e D. b – a – c – d – e

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option
that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 18 to 22.
Artificial intelligence (AI) has become an essential tool for conservationists to protect endangered
species and monitor ecosystems. By using machine learning algorithms, AI can analyze vast amounts of data
collected from camera traps, satellites, and drones, (18) ______. AI-powered image recognition software is
particularly useful in distinguishing individual animals (19) ______. This technology helps in understanding
migration patterns, detecting potential threats such as poaching or habitat destruction, and even predicting
environmental changes.
Recognizing the immense potential of AI, conservationists collaborate with AI developers to refine
these systems further. By integrating AI-driven predictive models, they can assess the impact of climate
change on biodiversity and develop effective conservation strategies. Moreover, in remote or hazardous
environments where human research is challenging, AI-driven robots can take on data collection tasks
without disturbing wildlife. (20) ______.

Despite its advantages, there are still challenges and limitations that need to be addressed. (21)
______. Others point out that AI systems require significant amounts of data, which may not always be
available in remote regions. However, as AI continues to evolve, (22) ______.
Question 18:
A. which allow researchers to identify animal populations and track their movements with
remarkable accuracy
B. allowing researchers to identify animal populations and track their movements with remarkable
accuracy
C. it allows researchers to identify animal populations and track their movements with remarkable
accuracy
D. allow researchers to identify animal populations and track their movements with remarkable
accuracy
Question 19:
A. whose patterns and behaviors can now be monitored more efficiently
B. which helps conservationists analyze climate change data
C. that makes AI a less effective tool for identifying species
D. despite its limitations in monitoring large animal populations
Question 20:
A. This collaboration has led to the complete replacement of human researchers with AI, making
fieldwork unnecessary.
B. The use of AI in conservation has significantly reduced the need for habitat protection, as
technology alone can ensure species survival.
C. By relying solely on AI-driven models, conservationists no longer need to study ecological
systems in depth.
D. This synergy is transforming conservation, making environmental protection more efficient and
proactive.
Question 21:
A. Some critics argue that an overreliance on technology can lead to a lack of human expertise in
conservation efforts.
B. Many experts believe that AI alone is sufficient to replace all human involvement in conservation.
C. AI technology has already solved all major challenges in wildlife protection, making human
intervention unnecessary.
D. Some researchers claim that AI's main purpose in conservation is to generate economic profit
rather than protect biodiversity.
Question 22:
A. it is gradually being abandoned in favor of traditional conservation methods that have proven
more effective
B. it is becoming less relevant in conservation of the current self-sustaining ecosystems
C. it has shown little promise in addressing environmental issues
D. it is becoming an indispensable ally in global conservation efforts for balanced and protected
ecosystems

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the best
answer to each of the following questions from 23 to 30.
Artificial Intelligence: The Future of Technology
Artificial Intelligence (AI) is one of the most exciting and rapidly developing fields in technology
today. It refers to the ability of machines to perform tasks that usually require human intelligence. These
tasks include learning, reasoning, problem-solving, and understanding language. AI is already changing
many aspects of our lives, from virtual assistants like Siri and Alexa to self-driving cars and advanced
medical diagnosis. Businesses, healthcare, education, and entertainment are all benefiting from AI-driven
innovations that improve efficiency and decision-making.
 There are two main types of AI: narrow AI and general AI. Narrow AI is designed for specific tasks,
such as recognizing speech, recommending products based on browsing history, or detecting fraud in
banking transactions. General AI, on the other hand, aims to perform any intellectual task that a human can
do. While

narrow AI is widely used today, general AI remains a future goal for researchers. Scientists continue to work
on developing AI systems that can think and learn like humans, but many challenges remain.
AI has many benefits. It can process large amounts of data quickly and accurately, helping businesses
make better decisions. In healthcare, AI assists doctors in diagnosing diseases and suggesting
treatments. This ability to analyze medical data and detect patterns faster than humans has the potential to
save many lives. Additionally, AI is used in education to personalize learning experiences, helping students
learn at their own pace. However, there are also challenges. Some people worry that AI could replace human
jobs, leading to unemployment. Others are concerned about ethical issues, such as privacy and security risks.
Ensuring that AI is used responsibly is an ongoing debate among experts and policymakers.
Despite these challenges, AI continues to advance and shape the world. Experts believe that AI will
play an even bigger role in the future, improving efficiency and creating new opportunities across various
industries. Whether it is in business, medicine, or daily life, AI is here to stay and will continue to evolve.
The key question is how we can harness its potential while addressing its risks.
Question 23: Which of the following is NOT mentioned as a task AI can perform?
A. learning B. cooking C. problem-solving D. understanding language
Question 24: The word “rapidly” in paragraph 1 is OPPOSITE in meaning to:
A. slowly B. efficiently C. powerfully D. continuously
Question 25: The word “These” in paragraph 1 refers to______.
A. virtual assistants B. tasks requiring human intelligence
C. AI researchers D. medical treatments
Question 26: The word “widely” in paragraph 2 could be best replaced by:
A. rarely B. commonly C. exclusively D. secretly
Question 27: Which of the following best paraphrases the underlined sentence in paragraph 3?
A. AI can replace doctors in diagnosing diseases and and suggesting treatments.
B. AI helps doctors identify illnesses and recommend treatments.
C. AI is used for administrative tasks rather than diagnosing diseases and suggesting treatments.
D. AI can’t be applied in healthcare.
Question 28: Which of the following is TRUE according to the passage?
A. AI is only used in the healthcare industry.
B. General AI is already widely used.
C. AI can help businesses make decisions.
D. AI refers to the ability of machines to copy human intelligence.
Question 29: In which paragraph does the writer mention a concern about AI replacing human jobs?
A. Paragraph 1 B. Paragraph 2 C. Paragraph 3 D. Paragraph 4
Question 30: In which paragraph does the writer discuss the future role of AI?
A. Paragraph 1 B. Paragraph 2 C. Paragraph 3 D. Paragraph 4

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the best
answer to each of the following questions from 31 to 40.
The Rapid Growth of Cities Around the World
[I] Urbanization is growing very quickly in developing countries, particularly in Africa, Asia, and
Latin America, where millions of people are leaving rural areas to settle in cities. [II] Many of these people
move because they hope to find better-paying jobs in factories, offices, or construction, which are often more
available in urban areas. [III] Others come to cities for better education opportunities, like schools and
universities, which can help their children have a brighter future. Access to healthcare is another big reason -
cities usually have more hospitals and doctors than villages, making it easier for families to stay healthy.
[IV]
Cities offer many opportunities. For example, in India, cities like Mumbai and Delhi have grown
because “they” provide work in factories, offices, and technology companies. People also enjoy better
schools, hospitals, and transportation, like buses and trains. However, this rapid growth creates big
challenges. Many cities become overcrowded, and there aren’t enough houses for everyone. This leads to
slums - poor areas with no clean water, electricity, or good roads. Traffic jams and pollution also get worse
as more cars and factories fill the air with smoke and noise.
Another problem is how cities “expand” into rural areas. When cities grow, they often take over
farmland, leaving less space for farming. This can make food more expensive and harder to find. For
instance, in Nairobi, Kenya, urban areas have spread quickly, but not all neighborhoods have enough
services like clean water or waste management. Some areas also face flooding because of poor planning and
too much concrete, which stops rainwater from soaking into the ground.
Experts say “urban planning” is key to solving these problems. Governments need to build more
affordable housing, improve roads, and create green spaces like parks. Using clean energy, such as solar
power, can reduce pollution. In some cities, like Seoul, South Korea, officials have used land-use plans to
manage growth carefully, balancing new buildings with nature. Community groups also play a role by
mapping needs and working with leaders to provide better services.
Urbanization won’t stop, but it can be managed better. Cities should grow in a way that’s
sustainable - meaning they’re good for people and the environment. If leaders plan well, urbanization can
bring progress without harming the planet or leaving people behind. It’s a big challenge, but with the right
actions, cities can become better places for everyone.
(Adapted from "Urban Expansion in the Global South: Challenges and Solutions,)
Question 31: Where in paragraph 1 does the following sentence best fit?
This rapid movement is creating both exciting possibilities and big challenges for these growing urban
regions, as they try to support so many new residents.
A. [I] B. [II] C. [III] D. [IV]
Question 32: The word "they" in paragraph 2 refers to _______.
A. people B. opportunities C. cities D. hospitals
Question 33: According to paragraph 3, which of the following is NOT a problem caused by urban
expansion?
A. Loss of farmland B. Increased food prices
C. More job opportunities D. Flooding due to poor planning
Question 34: Which of the following best summarizes paragraph 2?
A. Cities provide many benefits, but rapid growth leads to problems like slums and pollution.
B. Rural areas are disappearing as cities expand quickly, but causing no problems to humans.
C. Traffic jams and pollution are the only problems caused by urbanization in developed countries.
D. Cities in developed countries do not experience urbanization issues, except environmental
pollution.
Question 35: The word "expand" in paragraph 3 is OPPOSITE in meaning to _______.
A. grow B. shrink C. rise D. spread
Question 36: The phrase "urban planning" in paragraph 4 could be best replaced by _______.
A. city destruction B. city organization C. rural development D. economic planning
Question 37: Which of the following is TRUE according to the passage?
A. Urbanization happens only in rich countries.
B. All cities in Africa manage their growth well.
C. Poor urban planning can lead to flooding.
D. The world’s urban population is decreasing.
Question 38: Which of the following best paraphrases the underlined sentence in paragraph 5?
A. Urbanization will continue, but it needs to be controlled for sustainability.
B. Urbanization should be stopped completely to protect the environment.
C. Most cities around the world must stop growing to prevent pollution.
D. Urbanization is a temporary issue that will disappear in the next century.
Question 39: Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?
A. Governments play a key role in making urbanization sustainable.
B. Most of cities in Africa and Asia have no urbanization challenges.
C. Urbanization in developing countries will stop in the next 50 years.
D. The process of expanding cities does not affect the environment.
Question 40: Which of the following best summarizes the passage?
A. Cities are growing rapidly, resulting in opportunities and problems, so proper urban planning and
sustainability measures are needed.
 B. Urbanization is only a problem in poor countries, and developed nations do not face any
challenges related to city expansion.
C. People are moving to cities in search of better jobs, and governments are implementing
sustainable urbanization practices to prevent pollution.
D. Many cities are expanding into rural areas, but this trend causes no negative effects on the
environment as well as people's lives.

ĐỀ THAM KHẢO KÌ THI TỐT NGHIỆP THPT NĂM 2025

Bài thi: NGOẠI NGỮ; Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
Thời gian làm bài: 50 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề

ĐỀ SỐ 7

Read the following advertisement and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
option that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 1 to 6.
STUDYING STRESSING YOU OUT?
Students face more pressure these days than they ever have before. Every school day brings with it a new set
of challenges, on top of other commitments such as sports, clubs, and leisure activities. (1) ______
Supercharge Energy Drink twice a day to improve your concentration and help you (2) ______ in your best
body condition. Supercharge is made with organic ingredients and contains no caffeine, so it is safe (3)
______ children. Supercharge has been shown to reduce stress in over 95% of students (4) ______ in a
recent survey. Supercharge is quality guaranteed, and if you are not (5) ______ with our product, we will
gladly refund the price of your purchase. Visit your local convenience store today to (6) ______ a bottle of
Supercharge Energy Drink.
(Adapted from New TOEIC 4n4 – 860 Level)
Question 1. A. Take B. Do C. Make D. Put
Question 2. A. stayed B. to staying C. staying D. to stay
Question 3. A. to B. with C. for D. from
Question 4. A. interviewing B. interviewed C. who interviewed D. was interviewed
Question 5. A. satisfied B. satisfying C. satisfactory D. satisfactorily
Question 6. A. take up B. get up C. pick up D. set up

Read the following leaflet and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option
that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 7 to 12.
What is Your Water Footprint?
Your water footprint is the amount of water that you consume by your way of life. It includes the water
that is used to make the clothes you wear, the food you eat, and any (7) ______ products you consume.
The world’s water supply is under (8) ______ from a growing population. Already, 1.2 billion people,
about a fifth of the world’s population, are living in areas where water is (9) ______.
So what can you do to reduce your water footprint? First, try (10) ______ some bad habits you have.
Take a shower instead of a bath and turn off the tap while brushing your teeth. Another important way to
reduce water waste is not to waste food. The less food you waste, the (11) ______ water you waste.
Knowing your water footprint and making an effort to reduce it can really make a (12) ______.
(Adapted from Smart Time)
Question 7. A. the other B. the others C. others D. other
Question 8. A. trouble B. danger C. pressure D. matter
Question 9. A. scared B. sacred C. scary D. scarce
Question 10. A. changing B. to change C. changed D. change
Question 11. A. little B. less C. much D. least
Question 12. A. discovery B. comparison C. difference D. decision

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the best arrangement of utterances or
sentences to make a meaningful exchange or text in each of the following questions from 13 to 17.
Question 13.
a. Anna: I mostly do Hatha yoga. It’s perfect for beginners and really focuses on breathing and relaxation.
b. Anna: I do yoga every morning, and it’s amazing how much it helps with my stress levels.
c. Sarah: That sounds great! What kind of yoga do you practice?
A. a-c-b B. b-c-a C. c-b-a D. a-c-b
Question 14.
a. Mike: Sounds interesting. What did you see there?
b. Lisa: Well, it all began with a volunteer trip I took to Africa.
c. Mike: So, what inspired you to start a non-profit organization?
d. Lisa: The poverty was overwhelming, but so was the resilience of the people.
e. Mike: That must have been a life-changing experience.
A. c-d-a-b-e B. b-a-c-e-d C. c-b-a-d-e D. b-c-a-e-d
Question 15.
Dear Sarah,
a. Thank you so much for the dress. It is exactly what I want for Christmas!
b. How are you? I've already received the Christmas gift from you.
c. When we meet next time, I will have a special gift for you too!
d. Its colour and design suit me perfectly. I feel very happy and confident in it.
e. Hope to see you soon!
Take care,
Emily
A. a-d-b-c-e B. b-a-d-c-e C. a-b-d-c-e D. b-c-d-a-e
Question 16.
a. Over the past few years, I’ve journeyed to various parts of the world, from the bustling streets of Tokyo to
the serene beaches of Bali.
b. My love for adventure and curiosity about different ways of life has fueled my desire to explore, making
each trip more rewarding than the last.
c. Traveling to new countries and experiencing diverse cultures has always been my greatest passion.
d. Each destination offers unique adventures, whether it’s sampling street food, exploring historical sites, or
connecting with locals who share their stories.
e. In conclusion, being a globetrotter not only enriches my life but also broadens my perspective, reminding
me of the beauty of our diverse world.
A. d-b-a-c-e B. a-b-c-d-e C. b-c-d-e-a D. c-a-d-b-e
Question 17.
a. In places like Beijing, China, the air is often full of smoke and harmful gases from cars and factories.
b. Children and elderly people are especially affected by the dirty air and can get sick more easily.
c. The pollution makes it hard to breathe, and people sometimes wear masks to protect themselves.
d. In many big cities, air pollution is a serious problem.
e. To improve the situation, the government is working on better public transportation and encouraging the
use of clean energy.
A. d-a-c-b-e B. d-a-b-e-c C. d-c-a-e-b D. d-b-c-a-e

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option
that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 18 to 22.
Turning Trash into Trolls
Seventeen heads sit on shelves at a warehouse in Copenhagen, Denmark. The heads are over one meter
tall and are waiting (18) ______. They are the work of Danish sculptor Thomas Dambo. Dambo creates huge
trolls from “trash wood” – wood that he finds on the ground or (19) ______.
When they are completed, Dambo puts the trolls outside in green spaces. One project – The Great Troll
Folk Fest – featured five- to seven-meter-tall trolls placed in parks around Denmark. (20) ______. Since
2014, Dambo has put trolls in other green spaces around the world, such as South Korea, China, Puerto Rico,
France, and the United States.
Dambo uses trash wood he finds in each country to make the trolls. For a project in Culebra, Puerto Rico,
Dambo recycled plywood that had covered windows during a hurricane. (21) ______. To make the troll’s
hair for The Great Troll Folk Fest in Denmark, he used fallen branches and twigs from local forests.
Dambo’s work has a purpose: He wants the trolls to connect us to nature. (22) ______, Dambo hopes that
people think twice about doing things that damage the environment. He hopes that people see that trash can
be turned into something beautiful. If we “throw the world out,” says Dambo, “then we’ll have a world with
no mountains, no woods.”
(Adapted from Pathways)
Question 18.
A. for attachment to bodies B. for bodies to be attached
C. attaching to bodies D. to be attached to bodies

Question 19.
A. that people don’t want anymore B. it isn’t wanted by anyone
C. people don’t want it anymore D. that no one wants it anymore
Question 20.
A. Unless you visit Denmark, you can’t see the trolls
B. If you can't get to Denmark to find a troll, don't worry
C. Dambo has created trolls for parks in Denmark only
D. Dambo started placing trolls in other countries in 2020
Question 21.
A. In Maine, USA, old pallets were thrown away by local hardware store
B. In Maine, USA, local hardware store didn’t use old pallets
C. In Maine, USA, he used old pallets from a local hardware store
D. In Maine, USA, local hardware store gave away the old pallets
Question 22.
A. Using trash wood to connect people with nature
B. Trash wood connects people with nature
C. That trash wood connects people with nature
D. Trash wood is used to connect people with nature

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the best
answer to each of the following questions from 23 to 30.
In general terms, the Internet is a way of accessing information from many different sources via a
computer at home or connected to a local network. At its simplest, the Internet consists of individual
computers linked via a network. The network consists of three basic items: backbones, Internet Service
Providers (ISPs) and routers connected to servers that store and send data to and from people.
When people want to access the data, the information goes through four stages. First, their computer
is connected to an ISP via a modem or a local area network (LAN). A modem is a piece of equipment for
people using a computer at home which converts the signal of the telephone line to a digital signal. A local
area network is a network of computers linked together with a digital line.
Next, the request for data is broken into pieces of information about 1 kilobit in size called packets.
The next step is for these packets to be broken up into three parts. The head contains the sender's and
receiver’s addresses, the data contain the information, and the footer comprises data which show the end of
the packet and an error check.
The packets are subsequently transferred to a router - a specialised computer that sends information
to its destination along thousands of pathways. Networks are connected through routers which make sure the
packet is sent to the correct place and determine the best way for the packet to go. One router communicates
with the next router to make sure the next part of the network is clear. If a network path or part of a
network is busy, a different route may be chosen. Thus, information that is sent over the Internet travels
in separate packets through several possible different routes.
(Adapted from Achieve IELTS)
Question 23. Which of the following is NOT mentioned as one basic component that makes up the Internet
network?
A. backbones B. modems C. Internet Service Providers D. routers
Question 24. The word linked in paragraph 1 is OPPOSITE in meaning to ______.
A. disconnected B. accessed C. combined D. associated
Question 25. The word their in paragraph 2 refers to ______.
A. people B. data C. stages D. servers
Question 26. The word comprises in paragraph 4 could be best replaced by ______.
A. protects B. produces C. includes D. excludes
Question 27. Which of the following best paraphrases the underlined sentence in paragraph 4?
A. When a specific segment of the network is congested, the system might stop.
B. If a network pathway is clear, the information is forced to follow a different route.
C. A new route may be selected if a network path or a section of a network is congested.
D. An alternate route may be used when one section of the network is slow.

Question 28. Which of the following is TRUE according to the passage?

A. The head is made up of information that displays the packet's end and an error check.
B. Routers not only send packets to the correct destination but also determine the best route.
C. Data is transmitted over the Internet using a single fixed network path for all packets.
D. Once a packet's route is chosen, no further communication between routers occurs.
Question 29. In which paragraph does the writer mention the first stage involved in accessing data over the
Internet?
A. Paragraph 1 B. Paragraph 2 C. Paragraph 3 D. Paragraph 4
Question 30. In which paragraph does the writer explore the process of how data packets are structured?
A. Paragraph 1 B. Paragraph 2 C. Paragraph 3 D. Paragraph 4

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the best
answer to each of the following questions from 31 to 40.
Helping Hands is a non-profit organisation that breeds, raises and trains capuchin monkeys to provide
daily assistance to people living with spinal cord injuries. [I] Capuchin monkeys are native to Central and
South America, but all the monkeys used by Helping Hands are born and raised in the United States. [II]
Because they are intelligent, adaptable and sociable, they make perfect partners to humans, lending a hand
and offering companionship. [III] In the same way as guide dogs provide eyes to the blind, Helping Hands
monkeys provide hands to individuals with physical disabilities, more specifically, those who are
quadriplegic. [IV]
The monkeys are specially bred at Southwick Zoo in Massachusetts. At the age of 5-10 years, they are
taken into foster homes to get used to living side by side with humans. After this, they enter Monkey College
in Boston when they are between 12 and 18 years old and embark on their training in earnest. During the
training process, each monkey masters simple everyday activities such as helping with the use of telephones,
opening a bottle and setting up a drink of water, scratching an itch, and picking up a dropped object.
Throughout their training, monkeys are encouraged to complete tasks and are rewarded with praise,
affection and small treats. The trainers, who sit in wheelchairs for training purposes, never threaten to use
physical force. Laser pointers and simple words are the main means of guiding monkeys to carry out their
tasks.
Helping Hands is able to provide these specially-trained service animals and their lifetime
support, including all their training, food and equipment, free of charge. This is only possible because
of the generosity of donors and they ask people to help them by giving whatever they can afford. In 1998,
Helping Hands launched an educational program to raise awareness among young people about spinal cord
injuries, encouraging them to avoid risky behaviors and consider the challenges faced by those with
disabilities.
(Adapted from Close-up)
Question 31. Where in paragraph 1 does the following sentence best fit?
These people are paralysed from the neck down, as a result of an accident, injury or disease.
A. [I] B. [II] C. [III] D. [IV]
Question 32. The phrase lending a hand in paragraph 1 could be best replaced by ______.
A. caring for B. helping out C. looking after D. bringing up
Question 33. The word they in paragraph 2 refers to ______.
A. humans B. years C. monkeys D. homes
Question 34. According to paragraph 2, which of the following is NOT a task the monkeys learn?
A. scratching an itch B. preparing a drink of water
C. opening a bottle D. throwing away a dropped object
Question 35. Which of the following best summarises paragraph 3?
A. Monkeys are educated using strict discipline and physical force.
B. Monkeys are trained through positive reinforcement and gentle guidance.
 C. Trainers use advanced technology and complex commands to teach monkeys.
D. Monkeys learn tasks independently without any human intervention.
Question 36. The word affection in paragraph 3 is OPPOSITE in meaning to ______.
A. hostility B. kindness C. approval D. concern
Question 37. Which of the following is TRUE according to the passage?
A. All the monkeys adopted by Helping Hands are born in Central and South America.
B. The old monkeys are brought into foster homes to adapt to living with humans.

C. Small rewards are given to the monkeys when they complete tasks.
D. Laser pointers are only used to teach the monkeys in some urgent situations.
Question 38. Which of the following best paraphrases the underlined sentence in paragraph 4?
A. Helping Hands provides these specially-trained service animals with free lifetime support, including
training, food, and equipment.
B. Helping Hands offers service animals for specifically training at a small cost, covering training,
food, and medical care.
C. The specially trained animals receive full financial assistance from Helping Hands to cover their
services like food and training.
D. It costs almost nothing for Helping Hands to train and care for service animals, especially their
equipment and food.
Question 39. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?
A. The smart, adaptable, and social nature of capuchin monkeys makes them great human companions.
B. Capuchin monkeys can work with guide dogs to help blind people in their everyday life routines.
C. When encouraged, capuchin monkeys can learn and perform any complex tasks assigned with no
difficulty.
D. The monkeys have such short lifespans that they require frequent replacement as service animals.
Question 40. Which of the following best summarises the passage?
A. Helping Hands raises capuchin monkeys in captivity and sells them to individuals in need of help
with daily tasks, charging fees for their ongoing care and support.
B. Helping Hands is an organization that breeds capuchin monkeys and trains them to assist
individuals with disabilities, providing these services free of charge through donor support.
C. Helping Hands trains capuchin monkeys solely for entertainment purposes, teaching them tricks for
performances rather than for practical assistance.
D. Helping Hands, a nonprofit program, focuses on breeding capuchin monkeys and encouraging
disabled people to join simple training programs with a minimal expense.
 ĐỀ THAM KHẢO KÌ THI TỐT NGHIỆP THPT NĂM 2025
Bài thi: NGOẠI NGỮ; Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
Thời gian làm bài: 50 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề

ĐỀ SỐ 8

Read the following advertisement and mark the letter A, B, C and D on your answer sheet to indicate the
option that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 1 to 6.
Unlock Your Full Potential!
Are you ready to become the best version of yourself? The term ‘personal development’ is often
ssociated (1)______ activities like dieting or exercise, or perhaps learning a new computer program. But
while these things are (2)______ important, there are many other worthwhile skills which are often
overlooked.
At LifeMaster program, we emphasize (3)______ comprehensive approach to personal growth and
development! Academic or cognitive skills such as clear critical thinking, memorisation and creativity are
important, as are social and emotional skills like friendliness, positive thinking and self-esteem. Other
essential skills highly (4)______ include self-control, time management and finding a balanced life.
The important thing is to (5)______ a ‘holistic approach’ to personal development, ensuring that you
grow in all aspects rather than (6)______ on one at the expense of the others.
💡 Take charge of your personal development today!
📅 Join our program now and start transforming your life!
(Adapted from Move on)
Question 1. A. on B. in C. with D. of
Question 2. A. undoubtedly B. undoubted C. doubt D. doubtful
Question 3. A. an B. a C. the D. no article
Question 4. A. was valued B. which valued C. was valuing D. valued
Question 5. A. take B. get C. put D. do
Question 6. A. being focused B. to focusing C. focusing D. to focus

Read the following leaflet and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option
that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 7 to 12.
3 DIFFERENT TYPES OF EXERCISE
A healthy body is (7) ______ that is strong, flexible and can keep working over a long period. That’s
why it’s important to do these three different types of exercise:
1. AEROBIC EXERCISE
This kind of exercise makes you (8) ______ more oxygen, and it’s great for your heart. When you do
aerobic exercise frequently, you build (9) ______, so you can continue to do exercise for a long time.
2. EXERCISE TO BUILD YOUR STRENGTH
When you do exercise, you want to make your heart strong, but also to make your muscles strong. This
helps you to be active, (10) ______ full of energy. Strong muscles also protect your body.
3. EXERCISE TO IMPROVE YOUR FLEXIBILITY
Exercise can help to make you flexible. That means your muscles are strong but they can also move
easily and in lots of different (11) ______. Gymnastics, yoga, and martial arts can all help you to
become flexible. That helps reduce the (12) ______ of injuries you might get from sports.
(Adapted from C21 Smart)
Question 7. A. the one B. one C. ones D. the ones
Question 8. A. take in B. take off C. put off D. burn out
Question 9. A. weight B. relaxation C. endurance D. balance
Question 10. A. or B. but C. and D. so
Question 11. A. positions B. angles C. gestures D. situations
Question 12.A. amount B. number C. figure D. total

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the best arrangement of utterances or
sentences to make a meaningful exchange or text in each of the following questions from 13 to 17.
Question 13.
a. Lan: That’s right. My dad is a factory worker, so he works in shifts. Today he’s on the night shift.
b. Lan: Come in, Mark. Did you find my place easily?
c. Mark: Yes, I actually met your dad in the street and he showed me the way. He said he was on his way to
work.
A. c-a-b B. b-c-a C. c-b-a D. a-c-b
Question 14.
a. Grace: Well I really appreciate that you can still hang out with me.
b. Alex: I'm so busy this week that I barely have time to eat.
c. Grace: Did you just get home? You go outside too often these days.
d. Grace: You're thinking of quitting? Great!
e. Alex: No problem. Oh, do you know anyone that has a new job opening?
A. c-b-a-e-d B. c-e-d-b-a C. d-b-a-e-c D. d-e-a-b-c
Question 15. Dear Sir or Madam,
a. I am very adaptable, reliable and excellent at multitasking.
b. I would be grateful if you consider me for the IT position.
c. I believe that I am perfectly suited for this role. Last year, I gained valuable experience working part-time
at a local computer repair center.
d. I can work independently or as part of a team as I have experience working in a collaborative
environment.
e. I am writing to apply for the IT support technician position advertised in the local newspaper on Tuesday
5th July.
I look forward to hearing from you soon.
Billy.
A. d-b-a-c-e B. e-c-a-d-b C. a-d-b-c-e D. e-d-b-a-c
Question 16.
a. To begin with, students can gain and develop important skills that may be useful in their future careers.
b. Today, more and more students are doing part-time jobs while they are still studying at secondary school.
Having a job while at school can benefit secondary school students in several ways.
c. For example, if a student works as a waiter or waitress, he or she can learn how to greet and communicate
with customers.
d. The real work environment can help students learn more new skills as well as improve existing ones such
as communication, teamwork, or problem-solving skills.
e. Those who are equipped with various life skills can perform better in their future jobs.
A. d-b-c-e-a B. a-b-c-d-e C. b-a-d-c-e D. c-a-d-b-e
Question 17.
a. Responsible digital citizens respect other people's privacy, too.
b. They don't post pictures of others or discuss people's personal lives without their permission because that
could harm their online security.
c. In this way, digital citizens help others to feel safer and more comfortable in the digital world.
d. A responsible digital citizen is someone who uses technology in a sensible way and encourages others to
do the same.
e. They are careful about their online behaviour and always try to be as polite as possible, which helps others
to avoid having negative experiences online.
A. d-b-c-e-a B. d-c-a-b-e C. d-e-a-b-c D. d-e-b-c-a

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option
that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 18 to 22.
In 2007, design graduates, Joe Gebbie and Brian Chesky, (18) ______. Hearing that there was a
conference coming to town and there were no hotel rooms available, they created the website
airbedandbreakfast.com (19) ______. Only six days later, they had three guests sleeping on their floor.
They knew immediately that this was the start of something big.
Being budding entrepreneurs, (20) ______. They enlisted Gebbie's former flatmate, Nathan
Blecharczyk, a computer science graduate, to develop their website. Their idea was to target conferences
and festivals across the USA, getting local people to list their rooms and travelers to book them. (21)
______. Within a week, they had 800 listings, an achievement which dealt in part with the shortage of
hotel rooms, but did not solve their financial problems, as the site was not making any money.
The team decided that they would have to handle payment for the bookings. (22) ______.
Meanwhile, investors had started showing interest in the company. By April 2009, when larger
investments began to arrive, they moved the company out of their flat into a new state-of-the-art office
and hired more staff.
Since then Airbnb has gone from strength to strength. The company now has over 1.5 million
listings in 34,000 cities in 190 countries, and is rumoured to be worth around $20 billion.
(Adapted from Friends Global)
Question 18.
A. were struggling to pay the rent for their San Francisco apartment
B. paid the rent for their San Francisco apartment to struggle
C. had an unpaid apartment in San Francisco for rent
D. wanted to have an apartment in San Francisco without paying
Question 19.
A. where they offered free airbeds in return for user feedback
B. where they advertised three airbeds at $80 nightly with breakfast
C. to list spare rooms for conference attendees needing quick lodging
D. where they invited hotel managers to join their new website
Question 20.
A. they quickly acknowledged the need to expand their current service
B. they planned to abandon the project due to limited success
C. they decided to suspend the idea after early setbacks occurred
D. they chose to advance the promising concept with further development
Question 21.
A. the site initially served mostly friends but soon gained traction
B. their early marketing targeted urban centers across the nation directly
C. their first success occurred at a major local public event
D. the new website launched promptly to meet upcoming conference demands
Question 22.
A. they opted to offer discounts to the initial thousand bookings
B. they charged hosts three percent and travelers six percent fees
C. they initially refrained from charging fees to attract more users
D. they resorted to asking for donations to sustain the website

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the best
answer to each of the following questions from 23 to 30.
HISTORY OF THE WEEKEND
What are you doing this weekend? Perhaps you're spending time with family, friends, or playing a
sport. Around the world, people unwind at the end of the working week and take part in leisure activities. In
many countries, the weekend consists of Saturday and Sunday, while in others, Friday and Saturday are the
days of rest. In Afghanistan, Thursday and Friday form the weekend, while in Brunei, Friday and Sunday are
the days off.
The modern weekend took shape during the Industrial Revolution. In the early 19th century, people
left the countryside to work in towns and cities. Factories were springing up, and employers demanded a six-
day workweek of up to 12 hours a day, followed by one day of rest.
Campaigns for workers’ rights appeared. By the end of the century, the working week was reduced
to five and a half days. In the US in the 1920s, Henry Ford helped establish the weekend by giving workers
Saturday and Sunday off so they could buy and enjoy the cars they were producing.
Today, a 40-hour workweek is standard in many countries. Many people have a nine-to-five job, but
even that is rapidly changing. Technology enables more people to work from home and plan their own
use of time. Perhaps in the future we will work fewer hours altogether. If we become more productive, we
should be able to afford the same lifestyle by working fewer hours.
 Some believe a worker in the US could achieve a 1950s standard of living by working just 11 hours a
week. Others suggest a 21-hour workweek could help with unemployment and climate change. However,
while it may mean more leisure time, it could also limit people’s ability to earn enough money to enjoy it.
(Adapted from Optimise B1+)

Question 23. Which of the following is NOT mentioned as a reason for the reduction of working hours?
A. Workers' rights campaigns. C. The invention of modern education.
B. Employers’ need for a new work rhythm. D. The influence of Henry Ford.
Question 24. The phrase “unwind” in paragraph 1 could best be replaced by _______.
A. expand B. relax C. emerge D. enhance
Question 25. The word “reduced” in paragraph 3 is OPPOSITE in meaning to _______.
A. increased B. improved C. declined D. eliminated
Question 26. The word “it” in paragraph 5 refers to _______.
A. The 21-hour working week. B. Technology enabling remote work.
C. The traditional work schedule. D. The industrial work environment.
Question 27. Which of the following best paraphrases the underlined sentence in paragraph 4?
A. Modern technology often compels workers to remain at home for extended periods.
B. Technology has made work schedules rigid, so employees follow fixed office hours.
C. Modern technology reduces work time, yet people struggle to find meaningful tasks.
D. New technology permits workers to work remotely and manage their own schedules.
Question 28. Which of the following is TRUE according to the passage?
A. The modern weekend, in its current form, has existed since ancient times.
B. Henry Ford first introduced a two-day weekend for his American factory workers.
C. The Industrial Revolution did not change working hours, and patterns remained unchanged.
D. Some people believe that a shorter workweek might help reduce overall unemployment.
Question 29. In which paragraph does the writer mention the relationship between employers and the
modern weekend?
A. Paragraph 1 B. Paragraph 3 C. Paragraph 4 D. Paragraph 5
Question 30. In which paragraph does the writer discuss potential future developments in work schedules?
A. Paragraph 2 B. Paragraph 3 C. Paragraph 4 D. Paragraph 5

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the best
answer to each of the following questions from 31 to 40.
One woman’s trash is another woman’s treasure
The high living costs after Covid-19, especially in clothing and merchandise, have forced a lot of
people to buy second-hand goods to make ends meet. [I] Why would you want to pay for something that has
already been used by a stranger? [II] But now, it is a hot new thing that youths and adults are doing. [III] As
people become more environmentally conscious, they realise that handing over clothes is a solution to
reducing fashion waste and helping the disadvantaged. [IV]
Passing down clothes is not a new thing, and a person can then buy that item for half the price. Mrs.
Bảo Trân shared that today’s youth liked to buy expensive clothes to show off in a couple of pictures, then
they would sell them back to the store. She had even almost quit buying new clothes because she can just
buy almost unused clothes in a store that sells them at a 90% discount or even less. Not only is this practice
good for the wallet, but it is also fantastic for the environment. As 92 million tonnes of textile waste is
produced every year, the fashion industry is throwing away more clothes than ever before.
Besides taking care of the waste, giving away or buying second-hand clothes also helps the needy
who are struggling to survive during cold winters or to afford basic needs. Starting as a Facebook page for
selling second-hand clothes, an organisation now sells old clothing for charity money. Volunteers can either
donate their used fashion items to the shop to give to the poor or give them to the shop as free apparel. The
only requirement is that the clothes should be in good condition.
(Adapted from THiNK 12)
Question 31. Where in paragraph I does the following sentence best fit?
“Years before, buying second-hand goods was seen as unreasonable.”
A. [I] B. [II] C. [III] D. [IV]
Question 32. The phrase “handing over” in paragraph 1 could be best replaced by ____.
A. throwing out B. passing through C. putting on D. giving away
Question 33. The word "they" in paragraph 2 refers to ____.
A. second-hand stores B. expensive clothes C. today’s youth D. nice pictures
Question 34. According to paragraph 2, which of the following is NOT a reason why young people prefer
buying second-hand clothes?

A. They can get almost unused clothes at a much lower price.

B. It helps reduce fashion waste and protect the environment.
C. They want to show off their costly clothes in their photos.
D. It is a way to save money instead of buying brand-new items.
Question 35. Which of the following best summarises paragraph 3?
A. Donating or selling second-hand clothes can reduce waste and support people in need.
B. Second-hand clothing stores have become a major competitor to fashion retailers.
C. People are now required to donate their clothes to charity organisations.
D. The fashion industry is benefiting from the popularity of second-hand clothing.
Question 36. The word "afford" in paragraph 3 is OPPOSITE in meaning to ____.
A. acquire B. deprive C. sustain D. surrender
Question 37. Which of the following is TRUE according to the passage?
A. People donate clothes to second-hand stores mainly because they no longer follow current fashion
trends.
B. The second-hand clothing trend has grown due to rising costs and environmental awareness.
C. Buying second-hand clothes provides a cheaper alternative but does not significantly contribute to
sustainability efforts.
D. Young consumers generally avoid second-hand clothing due to concerns about hygiene and
quality.
Question 38. Which of the following best paraphrases the underlined sentence in paragraph 3?
A. All donated clothes, regardless of condition, are accepted.
B. The shop prefers brand-new clothes but occasionally accepts used ones.
C. Clothes donated for charity are preferred to be stylish and decent.
D. Donated clothes must be in wearable condition to be accepted.
Question 39. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?
A. Shopping second-hand is a temporary trend that will soon fade away.
B. The fashion industry is producing more waste than ever due to fast fashion trends.
C. Young people are not interested in second-hand clothes because of hygiene concerns.
D. Second-hand clothing stores offer fewer choices than regular fashion retailers.
Question 40. Which of the following best summarises the passage?
A. Rising costs and environmental concerns drive the shift to second-hand shopping.
B. Second-hand stores are increasingly replacing most of the traditional fashion retailers.
C. Purchasing second-hand items saves money but fails to deliver environmental benefits.
D. Donating used clothes to charity is now mandatory to reduce waste.
 ĐỀ THAM KHẢO KÌ THI TỐT NGHIỆP THPT NĂM 2025
Bài thi: NGOẠI NGỮ; Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
Thời gian làm bài: 50 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề

ĐỀ SỐ 9

Read the following advertisement and mark the letter A, B, C and D on your answer sheet to indicate the
option that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 1 to 6.
Are you looking for new career opportunities? Join us at the Annual Job Fair the National
Convention Center. This event will feature more than 100 companies from various industries, (1)______ a
wide range of job positions.
Throughout the day, attendees can participate in career workshops and resume-building sessions,
which are led by experienced human (2)______ professionals. These workshops aim to provide useful
advice on job searching and interview skills.
In addition, you can meet successful industry experts, many of (3)______ have years of experience in
their fields. If you would like (4)______different career paths, don’t miss the opportunity to attend our
industry panel discussions. Don't forget to bring multiple copies of your resume and dress professionally to
(5)______ a strong impression on potential employers.
To register, visit our official website and fill out the online form. Early registration will give you
access (6)______ exclusive networking sessions.
Question 1. A. offered B. offers C. which offered D. offering
Question 2. A. courses B. resources C. sources D. reserves
Question 3. A. whom B. which C. who D. whose
Question 4. A. to explore B. explore C. exploring D. to exploring
Question 5. A. put B. take C. make D. pay
Question 6. A. for B. to C. in D. on

Read the following leaflet and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option
that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 7 to 12.
You want to improve your skills and advance in your career? Our professional online courses offer a
great opportunity to gain valuable knowledge from experts in various fields.
Unlike (8)______ training programs, our courses are flexible, allowing you to learn at your own
pace. Whether you want to (8)______ a new skill or enhance your existing expertise, we have a course for
you! Many professionals struggle to find time for learning (9)______ their busy schedules. That’s why our
courses (10) ______ to fit into your daily routine, making skill development easier than ever.
We provide a large (11)______ of high-quality learning materials, including video lectures,
interactive exercises, and real-world case studies. With our support, you can gain confidence and (12)______
your career goals. Sign up today and start your learning journey! Visit our website for more details.
Question 7. A. other B. another C. others D. the others
Question 8. A. put up B. take up C. bring about D. give off
Question 9. A. instead of B. in spite of C. because of D. in place of
Question 10. A. are designed B. have designed C. designed D. is designed
Question 11. A. deal B. amount C. plenty D. number
Question 12. A. gather B. earn C. defend D. achieve

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the best arrangement of utterances or
sentences to make a meaningful exchange or text in each of the following questions from 13 to 17.
Question 13.
a. Anna: Hi, John! You look so cheerful these days!
b. John: Thanks, Anna! I’ve been learning some new skills and getting more sleep.
c. Anna: You look great too. Have you been doing anything special lately?
A. c-a-b B. b-c-a C. c-b-a D. a-b-c
Question 14.
a. Emma: Why do you want to join a cooking class?
b. Jack: I'm planning to try a cooking class.
c. Emma: How do you plan to improve your cooking skills?
d. Emma: I think cooking classes are too expensive. I don't think I'll try them.
e. Jack: They teach you new recipes, and you get to practice with experts.
A. d-b-a-e-c B. c-e-d-b-a C. c-b-a-e-d D. d-e-a-b-c
Question 15.
Hi Sarah,
a. But, I finished reading the first two parts of the book you recommended last month.
b. Thanks so much for suggesting the book for me - I really loved it!
c. You know, we should discuss it together sometime. What do you think?
d. Thanks also for the list of books from the free website. It has much more interesting choices than the
websites I’ve known!
e. I’ve been quite busy lately with work, so I haven’t had much time for reading.
Write back soon.
A. d-b-a-c-e B. a-c-d-b-e C. a-d-b-c-e D. b-e-a-d-c
Question 16.
a. Although traveling for work can sometimes be tiring, the opportunity to collaborate with global teams is a
rewarding experience.
b. Working from different locations allows me to adapt to various cultures and enhances my problem-
solving abilities.
c. Over the past two years, I have excelled in my role as an international project manager, overseeing
multiple teams across different time zones.
d. My deep interest in logistics and global business development naturally led me to pursue a career in
project management.
e. All in all, I feel extremely fulfilled in my current position, as it aligns perfectly with both my professional
goals and personal passions.
A. d-b-c-e-a B. a-b-c-d-e C. b-c-d-a-e D. c-a-d-b-e
Question 17.
a. However, despite these advancements, the town still lacks a reliable public transportation system, with the
nearest bus station located over 20 miles away in the neighboring city.
b. Once home to sprawling farmlands, Maple Street and Pine Avenue have now become hubs for tech
companies, marking the region's shift towards a digital economy.
c. This technological shift has attracted a wide variety of new businesses, from co-working spaces to
software firms, boosting the local job market and making Maplewood a vibrant commercial center.
d. Maplewood has undergone significant changes in the past five years.
e. This rapid growth has led to a 15% increase in the population due to an influx of tech professionals,
causing more traffic congestion and a need for improved infrastructure.
A. d-b-c-e-a B. d-c-a-b-e C. d-e-a-b-c D. d-e-b-c-a

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option
that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 18 to 22.
A balanced diet is essential for maintaining overall health and well-being. It involves consuming a
variety of foods from all food groups in appropriate proportions. This ensures that your body receives the
necessary nutrients, vitamins, and minerals it needs to function optimally.
Fruits and vegetables are a cornerstone of a balanced diet, providing essential vitamins, minerals, and
antioxidants. (18)______. Including a variety of colorful produce in your diet ensures you get a range of
nutrients.
Whole grains are another important component, rich in fiber, (19) ______. They also provide B
vitamins, iron, and magnesium. Incorporating whole grains like brown rice, quinoa, oats, and whole wheat
bread into meals can provide these benefits.
Protein is necessary for building and repairing tissues, supporting immune function, and hormone
production. Lean sources of protein like poultry, fish, beans, and nuts (20) ______ to reduce intake of
saturated fats and cholesterol.
Healthy fats, found in avocados, olive oil, nuts, and fatty fish, are crucial for brain function, hormone
production, and maintaining healthy skin and hair. (21) ______.
 Hydration is also vital for a balanced diet, as water is essential for digestion, nutrient absorption, and
regulating body temperature. Aim for at least eight glasses of water per day, adjusting based on individual
needs. By prioritizing whole, nutrient-rich foods and staying mindful of portion sizes, (22) ______.
Question 18.
A. They help reduce the risk of chronic diseases such as heart disease, diabetes, and certain cancers
B. The risk of developing chronic diseases such as heart disease, diabetes, and certain cancers is lowered.
C. To reduce the risk of chronic diseases such as heart disease, diabetes, and certain cancers, they are used.
D. Reducing the risk of chronic diseases like heart disease, diabetes, and certain cancers enhances well-
being.
Question 19.
A. support digestion and assist in maintaining stable blood sugar levels
B. which aids digestion and helps regulate blood sugar level
C. that the regulation of blood sugar level and digestion in bodies
D. contribute to better digestion thanks to the the regulation of blood sugar level
Question 20.
A. should be included in a balanced diet
B. which are included in a balanced diet
C. including in a well-balanced diet
D. that a well-balanced diet includes
Question 21.
A. Due to their calorie density, these foods should be consumed in moderation
B. Without their high calorie content, healthy fats should be eaten in controlled amounts
C. Healthy fats need to be consumed in reasonable portions as they are not rich in calories
D. Their calorie density leads to the fact that healthy fats should be eaten in abundance
Question 22.
A. you can help support your overall health and well-being with a balanced diet
B. your overall health and well-being can be supported with a balanced diet
C. maintaining your good health is possible by consuming a well-balanced diet
D. eating a nutritious and balanced diet helps you promote overall well-being

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the best
answer to each of the following questions from 23 to 30.
For a vast number of people globally, online networking is now a part of daily life. With the rapid
expansion of digital platforms, the way people connect and communicate has transformed significantly.
However, an old insight into traditional social networks remains highly relevant. Decades ago,
Granovetter’s research revealed that many people secure jobs through weak ties rather than close
relationships. These weak ties, such as acquaintances and distant colleagues, often provide unexpected
opportunities.
Today, online networking has significantly increased these weak-tie connections. Social media
platforms allow users to maintain and even strengthen distant relationships. Jennifer Golbeck from the
University of Maryland explains that platforms like Facebook help us manage and maintain them. With just
a few clicks, people can reconnect with former classmates or colleagues. As a result, an old schoolfriend
you haven’t seen in years could provide a life-changing tip, from a job lead to a social invitation that shapes
your future. Maintaining such ties can open doors to new possibilities in both personal and professional life.
Judith Donath of Harvard University suggests that this surge in weak ties is reshaping our social
structures. Many people now rely on online connections rather than newspapers or TV for trusted
information. They turn to digital networks for career advice, product recommendations, or even political
views. While accuracy is a concern, this shift is undeniable.
Beyond social structures, online networking may also impact personal well-being. Nicole Ellison of
Michigan State University found a link between frequent social media use and increased self-esteem. She
attributes this to support from weak ties, as people now seek advice from acquaintances more openly.
Sandy Pentland from MIT agrees, noting that broadcasting feelings within a network prevents social
isolation.
In short, online networking is revolutionizing not only how we receive information but also how we
interact, form relationships, and find support in daily life.
Question 23. Which of the following is NOT mentioned as an impact of online networking?
 A. It increases weak-tie connections. B. It replaces traditional friendships.
C. It affects social structures. D. It can boost self-esteem.
Question 24. The word "accuracy" in paragraph 3 is OPPOSITE in meaning to:
A. falsehood B. precision C. reliability D. validity
Question 25. The word "them" in paragraph 2 refers to:
A. clicks B. weak-tie relationships
C. social media platforms D. former classmates or colleagues
Question 26. The word " attributes " in paragraph 4 is CLOSEST in meaning to:
A. describes B. separates C. credits D. defines
Question 27. Which of the following best summarizes paragraph 3?
A. Weak ties help people make important decisions.
B. Online networks are now the main source of information.
C. People still trust traditional news sources more than online ones.
D. The increase in weak ties has no major effect on social structures.
Question 28. According to the passage, what is one possible reason online networking boosts self-esteem?
A. It allows people to seek support from weak ties.
B. It reduces the amount of fake news people see.
C. It encourages people to limit their online presence.
D. It helps people avoid making close friends.
Question 29. In which paragraph does the writer discuss the effect of online networking on mental health?
A. Paragraph 1 B. Paragraph 2 C. Paragraph 3 D. Paragraph 4
Question 30. In which paragraph does the writer explain how online platforms help people maintain weak
ties?
A. Paragraph 1 B. Paragraph 2 C. Paragraph 3 D. Paragraph 4

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the best
answer to each of the following questions from 31 to 40.
[I] Biological diversity has become widely recognized as a critical conservation issue only in the past
two decades. [II] The rapid destruction of the tropical rain forests, which are the ecosystems with the highest
known species diversity on Earth, has awakened people to the importance and fragility of biological
diversity. The high rate of species extinctions in these environments is jolting, but it is important to
recognize the significance of biological diversity in all ecosystems. [III] In terrestrial ecosystems and in
fringe marine ecosystems (such as wetlands), the most common problem is habitat destruction. [IV] In most
situations, the result is irreversible. Now humans are beginning to destroy marine ecosystems through other
types of activities, such as disposal and runoff of poisonous waste; in less than two centuries, by
significantly reducing the variety of species on Earth, they have irrevocably redirected the course of
evolution.
Certainly, there have been periods in Earth’s history when mass extinctions have occurred. The
extinction of the dinosaurs was caused by some physical event, either climatic or cosmic. There have also
been less dramatic extinctions, as when natural competition between species reached an extreme
conclusion. Only 0.01 percent of the species that have lived on Earth have survived to the present, and it was
largely chance that determined which species survived and which died out.
However, nothing has ever equaled the magnitude and speed with which the human species is
altering the physical and chemical world and demolishing the environment. In fact, there is wide
agreement that it is the rate of change humans are inflicting, even more than the changes themselves, that
will lead to biological devastation. Life on Earth has continually been in flux as slow physical and chemical
changes have occurred on Earth, but life needs time to adapt-time for migration and genetic adaptation
within existing species and time for the proliferation of new genetic material and new species that may be
able to survive in new environments.
To address this crisis, urgent conservation efforts are needed. Protecting habitats, reducing pollution,
and promoting sustainable practices can help slow biodiversity loss. Scientific advancements also play a key
role in balancing human development with ecological preservation. Immediate action is crucial to
safeguarding ecosystems and ensuring a sustainable future for life on Earth.
https://tuhoc365.vn/qa/biological-diversity/
Question 31. Where in paragraph I does the following sentence best fit?
 As the human population continues to expand, it will negatively affect one after another of
Earth’s ecosystems.
A. [I] B. [II] C. [III] D. [IV]

Question 32.The word “they” in paragraph 1 refers to _________.

A. type of activities B. marine ecosystems C. humans D. species on Earth
Question 33. The word “dramatic” in paragraph 2 could be best replaced by ________.
A. ordinary B. severe C. gradual D. predictable
Question 34. According to the passage, which of the following is NOT an example of the effect of humans
on the world’s ecosystems that the author mentions?
A. habitat destruction in wetlands
B. the introduction of new varieties of plant species
C. damage to marine ecosystems
D. destruction of the tropical rain forests
Question 35. The word “inflicting” in paragraph 3 is OPPOSITE in meaning to
A. expanding B. alleviating C. imposing D. inflating
Question 36. Which of the following best paraphrases the underlined sentence in paragraph 3?
A. The human species is gradually changing the world in unprecedented ways that have never been
seen before.
B. No other species has ever changed the environment as quickly and drastically as humans are doing
now.
C. Humans have consistently influenced the physical environment in a gradual and foreseeable way.
D. The changes humans are making to the environment are slow but have significant long-term
effects.
Question 37. Which of the following is TRUE according to the passage?
A. The extinction of the dinosaurs was caused by human activities and was unrelated to
environmental changes.
B. The destruction of natural habitats in terrestrial and fringe marine ecosystems often cannot be
restored.
C. The human species has been altering the environment at a slower pace compared to previous mass
extinctions.
D. The primary cause of species extinction in tropical rain forests is the competition between species.
Question 38. Which of the following best summarises paragraph 4?
A. Conservation efforts and scientific advancements are essential in mitigating biodiversity loss and
ensuring a sustainable future.
B. Scientific and technological advancements can help mitigate biodiversity loss without major
lifestyle changes.
C. While human activities damage ecosystems, scientific advancements have already reversed most
negative effects.
D. The damage to ecosystems is irreversible, and conservation efforts will have little impact on
preserving biodiversity.
Question 39. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?
A. The destruction of ecosystems caused by human activities is merely a temporary issue that will
resolve itself over time.
B. The human species is the primary driver of mass extinctions, significantly impacting biodiversity
throughout Earth's history.
C. The rapid changes humans are making to the environment are creating challenges for other species
to adapt and survive.
D. Biological diversity has always been recognized as a conservation issue by societies and scientists
throughout the course of history.
Question 40. Which of the following best summarises the passage?
A. The extinction of species has always been caused by natural factors, and humans are not
significantly contributing to the current biodiversity crisis.
 B. The human species is accelerating the destruction of ecosystems and biodiversity, leading to
irreversible damage and challenging the survival of many species.
C. Biological diversity is not as important as humans' need for expansion and development, which is
the primary cause of environmental change.
D. Life on Earth has maintained a state of stability over time, and current environmental changes are
just components of a continuous natural cycle.

ĐỀ THAM KHẢO KÌ THI TỐT NGHIỆP THPT NĂM 2025

Bài thi: NGOẠI NGỮ; Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
Thời gian làm bài: 50 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề

ĐỀ SỐ 10

Read the following advertisement and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
option that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 1 to 6.
Imagine Dragons Live at VinFuture!
Get ready to Experience an unforgettable night with Imagine Dragons in Hanoi this month! The
event honors groundbreaking research (1) ______ impacts humanity and drives progress.
At the ceremony, Imagine Dragons will (2) ______ a powerful live performance, aligning with the
theme "Resilient Rebound." The show (3) ______ with "Believer," a global hit symbolizing strength and
perseverance. Lead vocalist Dan Reynolds will bring an (4) ______ charged rendition, reinforcing the
message of overcoming challenges.
Don’t miss this incredible night of music and inspiration, where science, innovation, and resilience
come together. Get ready (5) ______ by powerful stage performances and celebrate the brilliant minds
shaping our future. The event promises to be an experience you won’t forget, (6) ______ make sure to attend
and witness history in the making!
(Adapted from e.vnexpress.net)
Question 1. A. who B. that C. where D. whom
Question 2. A. deliver B. put C. take D. get
Question 3. A. kicks back B. kicks out C. kicks off D. kicks in
Question 4. A. emotion B. emotionally C. emotional D. emotions
Question 5. A. moved B. to move C. moving D. to be moved
Question 6. A. so B. but C. or D. yet

Read the following leaflet and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option
that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 7 to 12.
What to do in a crisis
In stressful situations, your brain triggers alarm signals, (7) ______ your heart race and muscles tense. This
reaction can prevent clear thinking.
A good skill you can develop is staying (8) ______ in a crisis. By recognizing your body's stress response
and ignoring the initial wave of emotions, you can think more clearly.
▪ (9) ______ skill you can develop is the ability to react calmly in a crisis.

▪ Remember to breathe. Deep breathing helps.

▪ A composed body creates a calmer mind.

▪ Focus (10) ______ solving the issue all the moment rather than dwelling on the past.

▪ Positive thinking helps. For example, telling (11) ______ you are brave can ease fear.

▪ Train yourself to (12) ______ the initial flood of emotions for better judgment.
(Adapted from Solution intermediate)
Question 7. A. made B. to make C. make D. making
Question 8. A. calmness B. calm C. calmly D. calming
Question 9. A. Another B. other C. Others D. The others
Question 10. A. at B. in C. on D. around
Question 11. A. yourself B. myself C. himself D. herself
Question 12. A. hold on B. let go of C. take after D. look forward to

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the best arrangement of utterances or
sentences to make a meaningful exchange or text in each of the following questions from 13 to 17.
Question 13. a. Emma: Hi, Jack! It’s been a while! You look great!
b. Jack: Thanks, Emma! I’ve been going for a run every morning and eating healthier.
c. Emma: I can see the difference! Have you been following this routine for long?
A. a - b - c B. c - a - b C. b - c - a D. a - c – b

Question 14. a. Alex: Do you like watching movies alone or with friends?
b. Alex: I think so too. Watching with friends makes it more enjoyable.
c. Sue: It’s more fun watching with friends, don’t you think?
d. Alex: I prefer comedies because they make me laugh.
e. Sue: What types of movies do you prefer?
A. a-c-e-b-d B. a-c-b-e-d C. d-b-a-e-c D. a-e-d-b-c
Question 15. Hi Gemma,
a. I appreciate the advice you gave me about improving my English skills, which has been
really useful.
b. I’ve been looking into the IELTS course you recommended, and it seems like exactly what
I need.
c. You know, we could sign up for the same course, so we could motivate each other
throughout the lessons.
d. They offer both online and in-person options, which makes it even more convenient for
both of us.
e. Let me know if you’re interested in joining, and we can register together!
Write back soon,
Billy
A. a-b-c-d-e B. a-b-d-c-e C. a-d-b-c-e D. e-c-d-b-a
Question 16. a. The ability of movies to transport audiences to different worlds and experiences is what
makes them such a powerful form of entertainment.
b. Over the years, I have explored various film genres, from thrilling action blockbusters to
emotional dramas that leave a lasting impact.
c. In conclusion, movies are more than just a pastime for me—they are a source of inspiration
and a window into different cultures and perspectives.
d. My passion for cinema started at a young age when I first discovered the magic of
storytelling through the big screen.
e. Whether it’s a beautifully crafted screenplay or stunning cinematography, every element of
filmmaking contributes to creating a captivating experience.
A. d-b-e-a-c B. a-d-b-e-c C. d-a-b-e-c D. b-d-a-e-c
Question 17.
a. With the increasing demand for academic success, many students turn to private tutoring as
a way to strengthen their knowledge and improve their exam performance.
b. However, while tutoring offers benefits, it also raises concerns about student stress and the
pressure of an overloaded schedule.
c. Over the past decade, tutoring has become a common practice, with more students enrolling
in extra classes to keep up with the competitive academic environment.
d. As a result, many parents invest heavily in private lessons, hoping to give their children an
advantage in exams and future career opportunities.
e. In conclusion, while tutoring can provide academic support, it is crucial to maintain a
balance to ensure students’ well-being and avoid excessive pressure.
A. c-a-d-b-e B. a-d-c-b-e C. c-d-a-b-e D. d-c-a-e-b

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option
that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 18 to 22.
 In the digital age, the role of newspapers has evolved significantly. Newspapers, traditionally, (18)
______. However, with the rise of the internet and social media, the newspaper industry has had to adapt to
new technologies and changing consumer habits. Many people now turn to online platforms for instant
access to news, (19) ______.
Despite the challenges posed by digital media, newspapers continue to play a crucial role in society.
They provide in-depth analysis, investigative journalism, and local coverage that is often not available
through digital-only platforms. Print newspapers still hold significant credibility among many readers,
especially older generations who value the physical format. (20) ______.
Moreover, newspapers have adapted by embracing digital platforms to reach a broader audience.
Many major newspapers now have online versions, offering news articles, multimedia content, and
interactive features. (21) ______. The move to digital has also led to the rise of subscription-based models,
where readers pay for premium content, creating new revenue streams for traditional media outlets.
However, the digital transformation has not been without its challenges. (22) ______, which often
provide quicker updates and attract younger audiences. Additionally, the rise of fake news and
misinformation on digital platforms has made it more difficult for traditional newspapers to maintain their
position as trusted sources of information. Despite these challenges, newspapers continue to play a vital role
in providing accurate and reliable news in an ever-changing media landscape.
Question 18.
A. had a limited role in society, as most people received information from television and radio.
B. mainly served as a means of entertainment, offering comics and short stories to readers.
C. focused on delivering local news to a small group of dedicated subscribers.
D. were the primary source of information, providing news, opinion pieces, and advertisements.
Question 19.
A. resulting in more people relying on traditional news sources.
B. that increases the competition among traditional and digital platforms.
C. which has led to a decline in print subscriptions.
D. allow newspapers to maintain their readership.
Question 20.
A. They remain relevant by providing news in print form, despite the challenges posed by online media.
B. They continue to be a reliable source for those who prefer detailed articles over short digital updates.
C. They are also important for reaching areas with limited internet access to ensure all stay informed.
D. They attract younger audiences who prefer reading newspapers rather than browsing online news.
Question 21.
A. As a result of these changes, newspapers have struggled to keep up with fast-paced digital media.
B. By adopting digital platforms, newspapers have expanded their influence while still maintaining
traditional readership.
C. This transformation has made newspapers more interactive, providing multimedia content alongside
written articles.
D. This shift has allowed newspapers to maintain their relevance and remain competitive in the digital
landscape.
Question 22.
A. Digital news platforms have forced traditional newspapers to shift their focus to investigative journalism
and editorials.
B. Newspapers face increasing competition from social media platforms, blogs, and online news outlets.
C. Online sources have introduced new challenges, making it harder for print newspapers to maintain
credibility.
D. The expansion of internet-based media has changed how people consume news, affecting traditional
newspapers significantly.

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the best
answer to each of the following questions from 23 to 30.
There are an estimated 3 billion American crows living in North America. Though they are often
confused with their cousin, the raven, crows are smaller and more common. Once found only in rural areas,
they now live just about everywhere. Their ability to live alongside humans has allowed them to thrive.
At night, crows may gather in huge flocks of a few thousand to roost in trees. The largest flock had
an estimated 200,000 birds! Their ear-splitting calls of "caw, caw" fill the air. At dawn, the birds separate to
search for food and return to roost at the end of the day. Their diet includes plants, animals, and handouts
from humans. Crows will crack open shellfish by dropping them on rocks, search cornfields for anything the
farmer left behind, and explore people's backyards for insects, frogs, and eggs. Groups of crows will often
roost in the same spot for several winters.
They are believed to mate for life, and both the male and the female share the task of nest-building.
When the young hatch and leave the nest, they do not set out on their own. Instead, the family sticks
together.
Research has proven the American crow to be among the most intelligent of birds. They can
count up to three or four, solve puzzles, retain information, and recognize symbols. In fact, these abilities
have probably contributed to the Crow's reputation as a clever pest which will often outwit human attempts
to keep

“them” away. More and more people, however, are recognizing potential benefits of these omnivorous birds
which eat many kinds of harmful insects and chase away predators like hawks and owls.
Question 23. Which of the following is NOT mentioned as one of the features of crows?
A. As the sun rises, the crows disperse in different directions to forage for food.
B. Flocks of crows tend to return to the same roosting location for multiple winters.
C. Crows migrate southward in the summer to escape the high temperatures.
D. Crows have become widely distributed and can be found in almost all environments.
Question 24. The word thrive in paragraph I is OPPOSITE in meaning to
A. decline B. grow C. accumulate D. increase
Question 25. The word them in paragraph 2 refers to
A. crows B. rocks C. shellfish D. cornfields
Question 26. The word outwit in paragraph 4 could be best replaced by
A. attack B. defeat C. defend D. avoid
Question 27. Which of the following best paraphrases the underlined sentence in paragraph 4?
A. Studies have shown that the American crow is one of the most intelligent birds.
B. Nobody has thought that the American crow is an intelligent bird species.
C. It is believed that American crows are the only birds that can count numbers.
D. It is said that most American crows have been trained to live with humans.
Question 28. Which of the following is TRUE according to the passage?
A. People never confuse American crows with ravens due to their similar appearance and behavior.
B. American crows have ability to adjust to human environments, allowing them to thrive in urban
and suburban areas.
C. Rather than inhabiting urban spaces, American crows primarily remain in rural regions and tend to
stay away from city life.
D. American crows’ diet consists solely of naturally available food sources, without dependence on
human-provided sustenance.
Question 29. In which paragraph does the writer mention places where crows find food?
A. Paragraph I B. Paragraph II C. Paragraph III D. Paragraph IV
Question 30. In which paragraph does the writer mention the intelligence of American crows and their
ability to solve problems?
A. Paragraph I B. Paragraph II C. Paragraph III D. Paragraph IV

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the best
answer to each of the following questions from 31 to 40.
One of the oldest mysteries in the world is Stonehenge. Even the name is ancient. The word “henge”
comes from Old English which was used in England over a thousand years ago. The word meant “hanging"
so Stonehenge means "hanging stones." However, the hanging stones go back much further than that.
Most recent research has found that Stonehenge was built in three stages and took at least 1,400 years
to build. The first stage was started about 5,000 years ago and took 50 years to complete. In this first
construction, the people who built Stonehenge dug a ditch and some holes. Historians believe these holes
held long wooden poles. They don’t know if there was a round building there or if the log poles were
connected together more like the stones that are there today. However, they have found some digging tools
made from animal bones there which has told them how old this stage is.
 The second stage lasted for approximately the next 500 years. In this phase, it seems that some new
holes were made and some of the old holes were filled in. One of the most interesting things is that the old
holes were usually filled with burnt materials, often human ashes! [I] These ashes and other building tools
help historians tell the age of the second phase. The new holes also held wooden poles, but once again, no
one seems to know how these poles worked together. Did they make buildings, or were they some other kind
of construction? No one knows. [II]
The final phase took the longest time; almost 1,000 years. [III] Some of the stones were brought by
water, while others came over land. These stones are terribly large and would be difficult even for modem
machines to move. How did the ancient people manage to move them? No one can say for certain, but it
seems most likely that they were moved through simple machines and willpower. [IV]
How the stones got into place is only one of the mysteries surrounding Stonehenge. Who built the
massive monument? Why did they build it? Was it for an ancient religion? Was it a tomb for a great person?

No one can answer these questions, but there is one thing people agree on whenever they see it, Stonehenge
is one of the most impressive ancient mysteries anyone has ever seen.

Question 31. Which is the best place for the following sentence?
This is when the ancient Stonehenge builders brought stones to the site.
A. [I] B. [II] C. [III] D. [IV]
Question 32. In paragraph 2, the word "they" refers to ______.
A. historians B. poles C. stones D. tools
Question 33. According to the passage, which of the following is NOT true about Stonehenge?
A. The construction of Stonehenge took over a period of more than a thousand years.
B. Experts firmly believe that the wooden poles were arranged to create structures.
C. Some of the stones were carried via waterways in the final phase.
D. Archaeologists discovered implements crafted from animal bones at the location.
Question 34. Which of the following best summarizes paragraph 2?
A. The first stage of Stonehenge involved wooden poles in dug holes, but their purpose remains
unknown.
B. The first stage of Stonehenge involved carving symbols to create an ancient writing system.
C. Historians discovered that the first builders of Stonehenge used metal tools to shape the stones.
D. The first builders of Stonehenge had advanced technology to create the structure quickly.
Question 35. The word ancient in paragraph 1 is OPPOSITE in meaning to
A. historical B. old-fashioned C. modern D. traditional
Question 36. Which of the following is TRUE according to the passage?
A. The builders of Stonehenge used human labor to move the stones.
B. Some of the holes at Stonehenge contained burned human remains.
C. The final phase of Stonehenge’s construction lasted only a few years.
D. Historians believe the stones were placed by a single ancient ruler.
Question 37. Which of the following best paraphrases the underlined sentence in paragraph 2?
A. The human ashes and tools help historians determine how old the second stage is.
B. Historians used modern technology to burn the remains and examine them.
C. The ashes and tools at Stonehenge were destroyed over time and cannot be studied.
D. Stonehenge was burned down completely during its second phase of construction.
Question 38. What does the word "monument" in the paragraph 5 most likely mean?
A. A small wooden house B. A large structure built to honor something
C. A modern building D. A scientific tool
Question 39. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?
A. They had advanced machinery to move the stones and hang them in the right position.
B. They likely used simple tools and teamwork to transport and position the stones.
C. They built Stonehenge in a short period with minimal effort of humans.
D. They recorded detailed written documents about its construction in the past.
Question 40. Which of the following best summarizes the entire passage?
A. Stonehenge is an ancient mystery built over a thousand years, but its purpose and construction
remain uncertain.
 B. Stonehenge was built in a single stage using advanced machinery, and its purpose is well
understood by researchers.
C. The purpose of Stonehenge is completely unknown, and no studies have been conducted to
understand its construction.
D. Historians believe that Stonehenge was built by a lost civilization that had access to magical
technology.

THE END