02/04/2025 Code B Phase 1

Corporate Office : AESL, 3rd Floor, Incuspaze Campus-2, Plot No. 13, Sector-18,
Udyog Vihar, Gurugram, Haryana - 122018, Ph.011-47623456

MM : 720 Final Test Series(P1)-2024-25_Test-07B Time : 180 Min.

Topics Covered:
Physics: Alternating Current, Electromagnetic Waves, Ray Optics and Optical Instruments, Wave Optics
Chemistry: Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure, Thermodynamics
Botany: Morphology of Flowering Plants, Anatomy of Flowering Plants
Zoology: Human Health and Disease

General Instructions :
Duration of Test is 3 hrs.
The Test consists of 180 questions. The maximum marks are 720.
There are four parts in the question paper consisting of Physics, Chemistry, Botany and Zoology having 45 questions in each part of equal
weightage.
Each question carries +4 marks. For every wrong response, –1 mark shall be deducted from the total score. Unanswered/unattempted
questions will be given no marks.
Use blue/black ballpoint pen only to darken the appropriate circle.
Mark should be dark and completely fill the circle.
Dark only one circle for each entry.
Dark the circle in the space provided only.
Rough work must not be done on the Answer sheet and do not use white fluid or any other rubbing material on the Answer sheet.

PHYSICS

1. A plane mirror is approaching you at a speed of 10 cm/s. 3. Which nature of light, was considered by Huygen’s when he
You can see your image in it. At what speed, will your image gave his theory of light?
approach you?
(1) Particle nature
(1) 10 cm/s
(2) Wave nature
(2) 5 cm/s
(3) Dual nature
(3) 20 cm/s
(4) None of these
(4) 15 cm/s
4. What is the average power dissipation in an ideal capacitor
2. In Young's double slit experiment, the nth red bright band C, when an AC voltage V(t) = V0sinωt is applied across it?
coincides with (n + 1)th blue bright band. If the wavelength (1) 2 C V0
2

of red and blue light are 7500 Å and 5000 Å, then the value
of ‘n’ is (2) 1
C V0
2

(1) 1
(3) Zero
(2) 2
(4) C V0
2

(3) 5
(4) 4

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Final Test Series(P1)-2024-25_Test-07B

5. Consider the following two statements 9. For the given half sinusoidal waveform, the r.m.s. value of
(a) Electric field is always conservative in nature. current for complete cycle is
(b) In electromagnetic waves the phase difference between
oscillating electric and magnetic field is 90°.
The correct statement(s) is/are
(1) Only (a)
(2) Only (b)
(3) Both (a) & (b)
(4) Neither (a) nor (b)

6. Maximum angular magnification produced by a simple

microscope having convex lens of focal length 4 cm is [least (1) I0
distance of distinct vision = 25 cm]
I0
(2)
(1) 29/4 √2

(2) 25/4 (3) I0

(3) 30/7
(4)
I0

(4) 25/6 2

7. A bulb rated 100 W, 220 V is connected across a household 10. If in a region there is a time varying electric field , then
supply of alternating voltage of 220 V. The maximum which of the following Maxwell’s equation will be most
instantaneous current through the filament is suitable? (I - conduction current)

(1) 0.45 A (1)

→
∮ B .d l
→
= I +
ε0 dϕE

dt

(2) 0.32 A
→ →

(3) 0.64 A (2) ∮ B .d l = μ0 I

(4) 0.16 A → →
(3) ∮ B .d l = μ0 [I +
ε0 dϕE
]
dt
8. Shape of wavefront in case of:
I. Light diverging from a point source is spherical. → →
II. Light emerging out of convex lens when a point source is (4) ∮ B .d l = μ0
ε0 dϕB

dt

placed at focus is planar.

III. Parallel beam diverging from the concave lens is 11. A converging lens of focal length 10 cm and a diverging
spherical. lens of focal length 20 cm are kept in contact. The power of
Which of the above statements is/are correct? combination is
(1) I and II only (1) 5 D
(2) II and III only (2) – 5 D
(3) I and III only (3) 10 D
(4) All I, II and III (4) – 10 D
12. Two mirrors are inclined at an angle of 90° with each other.
If a ray of light is incident as shown in figure, then angle
made by reflected ray, after reflection from both the mirrors,
with horizontal QR is

(1) 30°
(2) 90°
(3) 60°
(4) 15°

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Final Test Series(P1)-2024-25_Test-07B

13. According to Maxwell’s equation, the velocity of light in any 17. The Q-factor of LCR series circuit shown in the figure is
medium is expressed as (symbols have their usual
meanings)
1
(1) μ ε
√ 0 0

1
(2) √με

−
−
μ
(3) √
ε

(1) 0.1
−
μ−

(4) √
ε0
0

(2) 0.2

14. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as (3) 0.3
Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). (4) 0.4
A : A combination of convex lens and concave lens may
behave as a plane sheet. 18. Match List-I with List-II.
R : If the focal length of combination is zero, it behaves as a List-I List-II
plane sheet. (Magnitude of magnification for (Optical
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct real object) system)
answer from the options given below:
Convex
Both Assertion & Reason are true and the reason is the a. Always less than one (i)
(1) lens
correct explanation of the assertion
Both Assertion & Reason are true but the reason is not Convex
(2) b. Always equal to one (ii)
the correct explanation of the assertion mirror

(3) Assertion is true statement but Reason is false c. Can be more than one (iii) Plane mirror

(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false statements Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) a(i), b(ii), c(iii)
15. The focal length of a lens depends upon
(2) a(i), b(iii), c(ii)
(1) Nature of the material of lens
(3) a(iii), b(ii), c(i)
(2) Colours of light
(4) a(ii), b(iii), c(i)
(3) The medium in which lens is placed
(4) All of these 19. Among the following options, critical angle of light passing
from glass to air is maximum for
16. Given below are two statements:
(1) Blue
Statement I : The metal detector at the airport utilise the
principle of resonance in AC circuits. (2) Yellow
Statement II : Minimum power is dissipated in a circuit
(through resistor) at resonance. (3) Green
In the light of the above statements, choose the most (4) Orange
appropriate answer from the options below.
20. A ray of light is incident at an angle of incidence i on one
(1) Both statement I and statement II are correct face of a thin prism of refractive index μ and emerges
(2) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect normally from the opposite face. Angle of prism (A) is nearly
equal to
(3) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect
(1) μi
(4) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct
(2) (μ – 1)i

(3)
i

(4) μ–1
i

21. Displacement current can be produced by

(1) Uniform electric field
(2) Time varying electric field
(3) Position varying electric field
(4) Uniform magnetic field

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22. A capacitor of capacitance C is connected to a variable 24. A diffraction pattern is obtained by using a beam of blue
voltage source V = (–3t2 + 6t) volt. The graph that best light. If the blue light is replaced by red light, then
represents the variation of displacement current (id ) with (1) No change will take place
time (t), is
(2) Bands disappear
(3) Bands will become narrower
(4) Bands will become broader
(1) 25. Two polaroids are placed coaxially with 45° angular
separation from adjacent one as shown in figure (I0 :
Intensity of unpolarised light).

(2)
The intensity I of light emerging out of 2nd polaroid is

(1) I0

I0
(2) 2√2

I0
(3)
(3) √2

(4)
I0

26. A compound microscope has a magnifying power 40 and

magnification produced by the objective is 5. If final image
is formed at least distance of distinct vision, then focal
length of its eye piece is
(1) 5 cm
(4)
(2)
25
cm
7

(3) 25

8
cm

23. Ammeter reading in the series LR circuit given below is (All (4) 25

9
cm
the symbols have their usual meaning)
27. The position of final image formed by given lens
combination from second lens will be at a distance of
(where f is focal length)

1
(1) A
√2 (1) 5 cm
(2) 1 A (2) 10 cm
(3) –
√2 A (3) 40 cm
– (4) Infinity
(4) 11

20
√2 A

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28. Match List-I with List-II. 33. The oscillating magnetic field in an electromagnetic wave is
List-I List-II given by By = 4 × 10–6 sin(2000πx – 6 × 1011πt) T. The
(EM waves) (Application) frequency of the electromagnetic wave is (Where x is in
a. Microwaves (i) Remote switches metre and t is in second)
b. Infrared rays (ii) Cooking
(1) 6 × 1011 Hz
c. UV rays (iii) Medicine to destroy cancer cells
d. Gamma rays (iv) Water purifiers (2) 3 × 1011 Hz
Choose the correct answer from the options given below.
(3) 6 π × 1011 Hz
(1) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv)
(4) 3 π × 1011 Hz
(2) a(iii), b(iv), c(i), d(ii)
(3) a(ii), b(i), c(iv), d(iii) 34. Consider the graph in which variation of current i with time t
is shown. The mean value of current for half cycle is
(4) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i)

29. If an electromagnetic wave propagating through vacuum is

described by, Ex = E0sin(kz – ωt) and By = B0sin(kz – ωt),
then (All the symbols have their usual meaning)
(1) E0ω = B0k

(2) E0 B0 = ωk (1) l0
(3) E0k = B0ω (2) l0/2
(3) Zero
2

(4)
E0 ω
= ( )
B0 k

(4) 2 l0/π
30. For very low frequencies, the voltage drop across 20 μF
capacitor as shown in the circuit will be nearly 35. A small signal voltage V(t) = V0sinωt is applied across an
ideal inductor L, then
(1) Current I(t), leads voltage V(t) by 90°
Over a full cycle, the inductor L does not consume any
(2)
energy from the voltage source
(3) Current I(t) is in phase with voltage V(t)
(4) Current I(t) leads voltage V(t) by 180°

36. In YDSE, slits are 0.3 mm apart. They are 1 m away from the
screen. The second dark fringe is at a distance of 0.3 cm
(1) Zero
from the centre. Distance of fourth bright fringe from the
(2) 17V centre is
(3) 20 V (1) 0.6 cm
(4) 60 V (2) 0.8 cm

31. Power factor of series LCR circuit at resonance (3) 1.2 cm

(1) May be less than one (4) 0.12 cm

(2) May be more than one 37. The refractive angle of a prism is A, and the refractive index
(3) Is always equal to one of the material of the prism is cot (
A

2
) . The angle of
(4) Either (1) or (2) minimum deviation is

32. If 5 coherent sources of intensity I0 are super-imposed (1) 180° – 3A

constructively at a point, then intensity of point is (2) 180° + 2A

(1) I0 (3) 90° – A

5

(4) 180° – 2A
(2) I0

(3) 5I0

(4) 25I0

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Final Test Series(P1)-2024-25_Test-07B

38. The ratio of average energy density associated with the 42. If the radius of curvature of spherical glass surface shown
electric field and magnetic field of an electromagnetic wave below is 30 cm, then distance X such that image is formed
is equal to at infinity, is
(1) 1 : 1
(2) 1 : 2
(3) 2 : 1
(4) 2 : 3
39. A transformer is used to light a 100 W and 100 V lamp from (1) 10 cm
a 200 V mains. If the main current is 1 A, the efficiency of
transformer is (2) 20 cm

(1) 28.1% (3) 30 cm

(2) 16.6% (4) 60 cm

(3) 39.4% 43. Nature of image of a real object formed by convex lens is
(4) 50% (1) Virtual, erect and magnified

40. Two coherent point sources S1 and S2 are separated by a (2) Real, inverted and magnified
small distance d as shown below. The fringes obtained on (3) Real, inverted and diminished
the screen will be
(4) Any of these

44. The correct statement with regard to telescope is

(1) Eyepiece has large focal length
(2) Eyepiece has much larger aperture
(3) Objective has large focal length
(4) All of these

45. A radiation of energy E falls normally on a perfectly

reflecting surface. The momentum transferred to surface is
(1) Concentric ellipses (c = velocity of light)

(2) Concentric circles (1) E

(3) Concentric rectangles

(2) 2E

(4) Concentric squares

E
(3) 2

41. Path difference between two interfering waves at a point on c

screen is . The ratio of intensities at that point and that at

λ 2E

8 (4) c
2

the central fringe will be (Use 1

√2
= 0. 707 and assume that
intensity of two interfering wave is same)
(1) 0.652
(2) 0.853
(3) 0.743
(4) 0.921

CHEMISTRY

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Final Test Series(P1)-2024-25_Test-07B

46. Match List I with List II. 50. Consider the following statements about Fajans rule
List II (a) The smaller is the size of cation and the larger the size
List I (Compound) of the anion, the greater the covalent character of an ionic
(Shape/geometry)
bond.
A. NH3 I. Trigonal Pyramidal (b) The greater the charge on the cation, the greater the
B. BrF5 II. Square Planar covalent character of the ionic bond.
(c) For the cations of the same size and charge, the one,
C. XeF4 III. Octahedral
with electronic configuration (n – 1)d10ns0 is less
D. SF6 IV. Square Pyramidal polarising than the one with noble gas configuration,
Choose the correct answer from the options given below: ns2np6
(1) A-I, B-IV, C-II, D-III The correct statements are

(2) A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I (1) (a) and (c) only

(3) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II (2) (b) and (c) only

(4) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I (3) (a), (b) and (c)

47. Number of antibonding electrons in (4) (a) and (b) only

+
O
2
and bonding
electrons in B2 respectively are 51. If the observed dipole moment of A–B molecule is 0.8 D and
A–B bond length is 100 pm then percentage ionic character
(1) 5 and 6 in A–B molecule will be
(2) 7 and 4 (1) 25.75%
(3) 5 and 4 (2) 16.65%
(4) 6 and 4 (3) 42.25%
48. Given below are the two statements (4) 31.85%
Statement I : O3 molecule is a resonance hybrid of three
canonical structures. 52. Match molecules in list-I with their polarity and planarity in
list II
Statement II : Resonance stabilizes the molecule as the
energy of the resonance hybrid is less than the energy of List-I List-II
any single canonical structure.
In light of above statements, choose the correct answer. a. NH3 (i) Polar and planar

(1) Both statement I and statement II are correct b. CCl4 (ii) Non-polar and planar
(2) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect
c. SO2 (iii) Polar and non planar
(3) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect
d. BF3 (iv) Non polar and non planar
(4) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct
Correct match is
49. Given below are the two statements.
Statement I: The van der Waals radius represents the (1) a(iii), b(i), c(ii), d(iv)
overall size of the atom which includes its valence shell in a (2) a(ii), b(iii), c(iv), d(i)
bonded situation.
Statement II: The covalent radius is measured (3) a(iii), b(iv), c(i), d(ii)
approximately as the radius of an atom’s core which is in (4) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i)
contact with the core of an adjacent atom in a non-bonded
situation. 53. For the reaction, 4A(g) + B(s) → 4C(g), if ΔU° = –10 kJ and
In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer.
ΔS° = –40 J K–1, then value of ΔG° at 298 K will be
(1) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect
(1) 2.88 kJ
(2) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct
(2) 1.92 kJ
(3) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect
(3) 3.84 kJ
(4) Both statement I and statement II are correct
(4) 0.72 kJ

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Final Test Series(P1)-2024-25_Test-07B

54. Correct statement related to molecular orbital theory is 59. Given below are two statements
Statement I : Be2 does not exist.
π* antibonding molecular orbital does not has nodal
(1) Statement II : Number of electrons in bonding molecular
plane between the nuclei
orbital and antibonding molecular orbital are equal for C2.
A π-bonding molecular orbital has larger electron In light of above statements, choose the correct answer
(2)
density above and below the internuclear axis.
(1) Both statement I and statement II are correct
σ2pz-bonding molecular orbital has higher energy
(3) (2) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect
than σ*2pz antibonding molecular orbital
(3) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect
Number of molecular orbital formed are double than the
(4)
number of atomic orbital involved (4) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct
55. The hybridisation of Xe in XeF4, XeOF4 and XeF6 60. Given below are two statements
respectively are Statement I: The magnitude of hydrogen bonding depends
on the physical state of the compound.
(1) sp3, sp3d2, sp3d2 Statement II: Hydrogen bonding is maximum in the
gaseous state and minimum in the solid state.
(2) sp3d2, sp3d2, sp3d3 In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer

(3) dsp2, sp3d2, sp3d2 (1) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect
(2) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct
(4) sp3d, sp3d, sp3d3
(3) Both statement I and statement II are correct
56. Select the molecule in which pπ – dπ bond is present
(4) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect
(1) C2H4
61. The molecule in which the central atom has 3 bond pairs
(2) SO3 and 2 lone pairs of electrons is

(3) C2H2 (1) AlCl3

(4) CO2 (2) PCl3

57. Number of 90° bond angles in SF6 molecule is (3) ClF3

(1) 4 (4) NH3

(2) 8 62. A piece of copper metal weighing 7 g requires 5. 4 J of heat

to raise the temperature from 300 K to 302 K. What is the
(3) 10
value of heat capacity, specific heat capacity and molar heat
(4) 12 capacity of copper metal respectively? (Atomic mass of Cu
= 63.5 u)
58. Given below are two statements: One is labelled as
Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R) (1) 2.7 JK–1, 0.385 Jg–1K–1, 245 J mol–1K–1
Assertion (A): In PCl5, axial bonds are longer than
equatorial bonds. (2) 27 JK–1, 0.385 Jg–1K–1, 24.5 J mol–1K–1
Reason (R): In PCl5, axial bond pairs suffer more repulsive
(3) 0.27 JK–1, 0.385 Jg–1K–1, 2.45 J mol–1K–1
interaction from the equatorial bond pairs.
In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer. (4) 2.7 JK–1, 0.385 Jg–1K–1, 24.5 J mol–1K–1
Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct
(1)
explanation of (A)
Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct
(2)
explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false
(4) (A) is false but (R) is true

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Final Test Series(P1)-2024-25_Test-07B

63. Match List I with List II. 68. Consider the following statements:
List-I List-II Statement I : For free expansion of an ideal gas in vacuum
(Process) (Conditions) under adiabatic condition, q = 0 and ΔU ≠ 0
Statement II : For free expansion of an ideal gas in
Isothermal vacuum; w = 0
A. I. No heat exchange
process In the light of above statements choose the correct option
Carried out at constant
B. Isochoric process II. (1) Both statement I and statement II are correct
temperature
C. Isobaric process III. Carried out at constant volume (2) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect
D. Adiabatic process IV. Carried out at constant pressure (3) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(4) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect
(1) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
69. Given below are the two statements
(2) A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I Statement I: Ethyl alcohol is miscible in water.
Statement II: Ethyl alcohol forms intermolecular hydrogen
(3) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
bond with water.
(4) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I In light of above statements, choose the correct option.
64. For the reaction, A ⇌ B + C (1) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect
Equilibrium concentrations of A, B and C are 0.001 M, 0.15
(2) Both statement I and statement II are correct
M and 0.05 M respectively. The ΔG° for reaction at 25°C is
(log 7.5 = 0.875) (3) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect

(1) –11.23 kJ mol–1 (4) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct

70. A gas present in a cylinder, expands against a constant

(2) –34.61 kJ mol–1
external pressure of 1 atm from a volume of 2 litre to a
(3) –4.99 kJ mol–1 volume of 6 litre. In doing so, it absorbs 800 joule heat from
surrounding. The change in internal energy of process is
(4) –17.31 kJ mol–1 approximately
(1) +305 joule
65. Which of the following is an endothermic process?
(2) +796 joule
(1) C(s) + O2(g) → CO2(g)
(3) +395 joule
(2) HCl(aq) + NaOH(aq) → NaCl(aq) + H2O(l)
(4) –463 joule
(3) CH4(g) → C(g) + 4 H(g)
71. Decreasing order of bond angle of NH3, H2O and CH4 is
(4) C2H4(g) + H2(g) → C2H6(g)
(1) H2O > NH3 > CH4
66. For the reaction
5 (2) CH4 > NH3 > H2O
C2 H2 (g) + O2 (g) ⟶ 2CO2 (g) + H2 O(ℓ)
2

ΔH – ΔU is equal to (3) NH3 > CH4 > H2O

(1) +RT (4) CH4 > H2O > NH3
(2) −
RT

2
72. Which of the following is not a state function?

(3) +
3
RT
(1) Pressure
2

(2) Heat
(4) −
3
RT
2
(3) Temperature
67. In which of the following processes entropy increases? (4) Internal energy
(1) Freezing of water 73. ΔH for CaCO (s) → CaO(s) + CO (g) is 176 kJ mol–1 at
3 2
(2) Boiling of egg 1240 K. The ΔU for the above change is equal to
(3) Condensation of naphthalene (1) 150 kJ
(4) Condensation of steam (2) 165.7 kJ
(3) 186.3 kJ
(4) 180.0 kJ

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Final Test Series(P1)-2024-25_Test-07B

74. Consider the following process 79. Isostructural and isoelectronic pair of species among the
Process ΔH following is
(kJ/mol) (1) 2–
CO and NO
–
3 3

A → B x
(2) XeF2 and BeCl2
B+C → D –y
E + 2C → 2D z (3) CO2 and NO2

For; A + B → E, ΔH will be (4) BF3 and NH3

(1) x + 2y – z 80. Which among the following species does/do not obey Lewis
(2) x – 2y + z octet rule?
(a) BH3
(3) –x – y – z (b) ICl3
(4) x – 2y – z (c) NCl3
(d) SF4
75. Consider the following statements:
Statement I : Density is an intensive property (1) (c) only
Statement II : Pressure and volume both are extensive
properties (2) (a) and (b) only
In the light of above statements choose the correct option (3) (a), (b) and (d) only
(1) Both statement I and statement II are correct (4) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
(2) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect
81. Hybridisation of C1, C2 and C4 in given compound
(3) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct respectively are
(4) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect

76. Which of the following has zero value of standard molar

enthalpy of formation?
(1) S (monoclinic)
(2) C (diamond)
(1) sp, sp2, sp3
(3) H2(g)
(2) sp3, sp2, sp
(4) O3(g)
(3) sp2, sp, sp3
77. Paramagnetic species according to molecular orbital theory
is (4) sp3, sp, sp2
(1) O2 82. Bond dissociation enthalpy of H2, Cl2 and HCl are 436, 243
(2) and 430 kJ mol–1 respectively. Enthalpy of formation of HCl
2–
O
2

is
(3) C2
(1) 90.5 kJ mol–1
(4) N2
(2) 121.2 kJ mol–1
78. Correct order of C–O bond length in given species is

(1) 2– (3) –90.5 kJ mol–1

CO3 < CO2 < CO

(4) –121.2 kJ mol

(2) CO < CO3
2–
< CO2

83. Percentage ‘p’ character in sp3d hybrid orbital is

(3) CO2 < CO < CO3
2–

(1) 20%
(4) CO < CO2 < CO3
2–

(2) 60%
(3) 33%
(4) 40%

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Final Test Series(P1)-2024-25_Test-07B

84. If the enthalpy of combustion of CH (g) is –x kJ mol–l, then 87. Enthalpy of neutralization of NaOH and HCl is
4
the heat released upon combustion of 8 g of CH4(g) is –57.1 kJ eq–1. If 0.2 mol weak acid HA on reaction with 0.2
mol NaOH releases 6.2 kJ energy then enthalpy of
(1) x kJ ionization of acid HA is

(2)
x

2
kJ (1) 2.61 kJ/mol

(3) 2x kJ (2) 26.1 kJ/mol

x (3) 5.22 kJ/mol
(4) 4
kJ

(4) 52.2 kJ/mol

85. If the standard enthalpies of the formation of ethanol, water
and carbon dioxide are 88. If entropy change for the transition of liquid water to steam is
–277.69 kJ mol–1,–285.83 kJ mol–1 and – 393.51 kJ mol–1 100 JK–1 mol–1 at 27ºC, then the enthalpy change for the
respectively then the standard enthalpy of combustion of process would be (in kJ mol–1)
ethanol is approximately
(1) 27
(1) – 1567 kJ mol–1
(2) 30
(2) – 1367 kJ mol–1 (3) 300

(3) 1367 kJ mol–1 (4) 270

(4) 1567 kJ mol–1 89. 2 mol of an ideal gas expanded isothermally and reversibly
from 1 L to 10 L at 300 K. What is the enthalpy change?
86. 1 mole of an ideal gas undergoes reversible isothermal (1) – 11.47 kJ
expansion from 3 L to 30 L at 27°C. The entropy change in
the process is (2) 11.47 kJ

(1) 57.45 JK–1 (3) 0 kJ

(4) 4.98 kJ
(2) 9.575 JK–1
90. A reaction is spontaneous at all temperatures when
(3) 19.15 JK–1
(1) ΔrH < 0 and ΔrS < 0
(4) 38.3 JK–1
(2) ΔrH < 0 and ΔrS > 0

(3) ΔrH > 0 and ΔrS < 0

(4) ΔrH > 0 and ΔrS > 0

BOTANY

91. All of the given are common features between China rose 93. Initiation of lateral roots and vascular cambium during
and mustard, except secondary growth takes place in the cells of which of the
following tissues?
(1) Presence of bisexual flowers
(1) Hypodermis
(2) Type of placentation
(2) Endodermis
(3) Type of phyllotaxy
(3) Pericycle
(4) Position of floral parts w.r.t. ovary on thalamus
(4) Conjunctive tissue
92. A food storing tissue formed as a result of double
fertilization is found in mature seeds of
(1) Orchids
(2) Castor
(3) Pea
(4) Gram

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Final Test Series(P1)-2024-25_Test-07B

94. Observe the below given diagram and identify the correct 98. Match List I with List II
statements for the labels (A), (B), (C) and (D). List-I List-II

Elongated or tube like cells with

a. Vessels (i) thick lignified walls and tapering
ends

Phloem
b. (ii) Not found in flowering plants
parenchyma
Made up of elongated, tapering
c. Tracheids (iii) cylindrical cells and it is absent in
most of the monocotyledons
Members are interconnected
Albuminous
(a) B represents the meristem that occupies the distant most d. (iv) through perforations in their
cells
region of stem axis common walls
(b) C represents the leaf primordium enclosing the actively Choose the correct option.
dividing cells
(c) D represents the differentiating vascular tissue (1) a(ii), b(iii), c(iv), d(i)
(d) A represents the buds which are capable of forming a (2) a(iv), b(iii), c(i), d(ii)
branch or flower
The correct one(s) is/are (3) a(iii), b(ii), c(iv), d(i)
(1) (c) only (4) a(iv), b(i), c(ii), d(iii)

(2) (b) and (d) only 99. The living mechanical tissue in flowering plants
(3) (a) and (c) only (1) Has thin cellulosic cell wall
(4) All except (d) (2) Constitutes hypodermis in monocots
95. Select the correctly matched pair (3) Is absent in dicots
Has suppporting roots coming out of (4) Has much thickened cell walls at corners
(1) Rhizophora –
the lower nodes of stem
Leaflets are not attached at a common 100.In vexillary aestivation, the smallest anterior petals are
(2) Silk cotton – called
point
Variation in the length of filaments (1) Keel
(3) Mustard –
within a flower
(2) Standard
Ovules are borne on central axis and
(4) Argemone – (3) Wings
septa are absent
(4) Vexillum
(1) (1)
(2) (2) 101.Indigofera belongs to the plant family which have plants
with
(3) (3)
(1) Endospermic seeds
(4) (4)
(2) Legume type of fruit
96. Micropyle of dicot seed
(3) Actinomorphic flower
(1) Develops from integuments and forms the seed coat
(4) Cymose inflorescence
(2) Consists of embryonal axis and two cotyledons
102.Select the incorrectly matched pair
(3) Is formed as the result of double fertilization Companion Connected with sieve tube elements
(1) –
(4) Is found above the hilum as a small pore cells by pit fields
Their walls are quite thick and used
97. Guard cells are bordered by subsidiary cells. Subsidiary (2) Bast fibres –
commercially
cells are
(3) Vessels – Absent in gymnosperms
(1) Highly lignified epidermal cells Bulliform Regulate opening and closing of
(4) –
(2) Modified epidermal cells cells stomata

(3) Rich in chloroplast (1) (1)

(4) Highly suberised cells (2) (2)
(3) (3)
(4) (4)

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Final Test Series(P1)-2024-25_Test-07B

103.In tomato, gynoecium is 110.The ornamental plants of a family, which was earlier called
papilionoideae are
(1) Bicarpellary and superior
(1) Lupin, sunhemp
(2) Bicarpellary and inferior
(2) Petunia, Trifolium
(3) Monocarpellary and inferior
(3) Sweet pea, lupin
(4) Tricarpellary and superior
(4) Indigofera, Gloriosa
104."In dicot stems, the first formed primary xylem elements lie
toward the A in the stems. Such kind of primary xylem 111. Which of the following lack nucleus on maturity?
¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯
is called B . (1) Parenchyma cells
¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯¯
Select the option that correctly fills the blanks A and B (2) Collenchyma cells
(1) A – Centre, B – Endarch (3) Companion cells
(2) A – Periphery, B – Endarch (4) Bast fibres
(3) A – Centre, B – Exarch
112.Perianth is represented by membranous scales called
(4) A – Periphery, B – Exarch lodicules in

105.Select the incorrect one about cymose inflorescence. (1) Cotton

(1) It is observed in Solanum (2) Triticum aestivum

(2) The main axis terminates into a flower (3) Asparagus

(3) The flowers are borne in an acropetal order (4) Mustard

(4) The main axis shows limited growth 113.Match the following columns and choose the correct option
Column-I Column-II
106.Identify the correct features of mango fruit.
(a) It develops from monocarpellary superior ovary a. Ashwagandha (i) Brassicaceae
(b) It possesses inner stony hard endocarp b. Pea (ii) Liliaceae
(c) Its mesocarp is fibrous and non-edible c. Asparagus (iii) Fabaceae
(d) Its pericarp is dry and not well differentiated.
Select the correct option from below: d. Mustard (iv) Solanaceae

(1) (c) and (d) only (1) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i)

(2) (a) and (b) only (2) a(iv), b(ii), c(iii), d(i)

(3) (a), (b) and (d) only (3) a(iii), b(i), c(ii), d(iv)

(4) All (a), (b), (c) and (d) (4) a(ii), b(iv), c(i), d(iii)

107.Which of the following is not true regarding bulliform cells of 114.Read the given assertion (A) and reason (R) and choose
grass leaves? the correct option
Assertion (A) : The functions of sieve tubes are controlled
(1) These are large sized by the nucleus of specialised parenchymatous cells.
(2) These are said to be empty cells Reason (R) : A mature sieve element possesses a
peripheral cytoplasm, a large vacuole and a nucleus
(3) These are usually present on abaxial epidermis
Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct
(4) These are colourless (1)
explanation of (A)
108.Dicot stem differs from monocot stem as the former lacks Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct
(2)
explanation of (A)
(1) Phloem fibres
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false
(2) Stele
(4) Both (A) and (R) are false
(3) Sclerenchymatous hypodermis
115.Mark the common feature between parenchyma and
(4) Vascular bundles
sclerenchyma tissues.
109.Potato family includes all the given members, except (1) Both have dense protoplasm in their cells
(1) Tomato The composition of their cell walls due to thickenings is
(2)
(2) Aloe the same

(3) Chilli (3) Both are simple permanent tissues

(4) Petunia (4) Both can perform photosynthesis

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Final Test Series(P1)-2024-25_Test-07B

116.The epidermal hairs on stem are 121.Select the odd one out w.r.t. main functions of roots.
(1) Usually unicellular (1) Synthesis of plant growth regulators
(2) Not secretory in function (2) Performing photosynthesis
(3) Helpful in preventing water loss due to transpiration (3) Storage of reserve food material
(4) Always unbranched and soft (4) Providing proper anchorage to plant parts
117.In roots of dicot plants, 122.Select the correctly matched option.
Cells of epiblema protrude in the form of multicellular Plant Type of fruit Placentation
(1)
hairs
(a) Pisum sativum Capsule Axile
(2) Hypodermis is absent
(b) Solanum nigrum Berry Free central
(3) Cuticle prevents the loss of water
(c) Allium cepa Legume Marginal
The protoxylem lies towards the pith and metaxylem lies
(4)
towards periphery of the organ (d) Helianthus annuus Cypsela Basal

118.Lateral meristems differ from the intercalary meristem as the (1) (a)
latter
(2) (b)
Produce woody axis, i.e., responsible for the
(1) (3) (c)
development of secondary tissues
(2) Occupies the tips of young shoots and roots (4) (d)

Occur in grasses and regenerate parts removed by 123. Arrangement of veins and veinlets in leaf lamina is called
(3)
grazing herbivores
(1) Venation
Appear later in life of a plant and form interfascicular
(4) (2) Phyllotaxy
and intrafascicular cambium
(3) Aestivation
119.Read the given statements and choose the correct option.
Statement (A) : In stems of dicotyledonous plants, all the (4) Placentation
three subzones of cortex consist of collenchymatous cells
which provide strength to them. 124.Sclereids are found in all of the following, except
Statement (B) : The presence of casparian strips in the (1) Liquid endosperm of coconut
outermost layer of stele region is characteristic feature of
the angiospermic roots. (2) Fruit walls of nuts

(1) Only statement (A) is correct (3) Seed coat of legumes

(2) Only statement (B) is correct (4) Pulp of fruits like pear, guava and sapota

(3) Both statements (A) and (B) are incorrect 125.Select the incorrect statement
(4) Both statements (A) and (B) are correct Stigma is usually at the tip of style and is receptive
(1)
surface for pollen grains
120.Read the following features and choose the option having
all the true ones for dorsiventral leaves. In flowers of guava, the margin of thalamus grows
(a) Presence of thick walled bundle sheath cells. (2) upward enclosing the ovary completely and get fused
(b) Equal number of stomata are present on both the with it
surfaces of the epidermis.
A bud is present in the axil of leaflets of the compound
(c) Reticulate venation. (3)
leaf like neem
(d) Adaxially placed palisade parenchyma, which are
arranged vertically and parallel to each other. (4) In both rose and lotus the gynoecium is apocarpous
(e) Conjoint open vascular bundles
126.“Flower is the A unit of angiosperms. Floral whorls are
(1) (c) and (e) ¯
¯¯¯
¯
arranged on swollen end of stalk called B .”
(2) (a), (c) and (d) ¯¯¯¯
Choose the option which correctly fills the blanks A and B.
(3) (c) and (d) only (1) A-Vegetative, B-Pedicel
(4) (a), (b) and (e) (2) A-Reproductive, B-Thalamus
(3) A-Vegetative, B-Thalamus
(4) A-Reproductive, B-Pedicel

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Final Test Series(P1)-2024-25_Test-07B

127.Floral formula of Liliaceae family is 132.A large number of scattered vascular bundles, each
surrounded by sclerenchymatous bundle sheath can be
(1) observed in
(1) Monocot root
(2) (2) Dicot stem
(3) Monocot stem
(3) (4) Dicot root
133.Symbols used in floral formula for polysepalous and
(4) gamosepalous condition respectively are
(1) Kn and K(n)
128.Which of the following can also be called ‘starch sheath’?
(1) Pericycle of monocot stem (2) K(n) and Kn

(2) Epiblema of dicot root (3) Cn and C(n)

(3) Endodermis of dicot stem (4) C(n) and Cn
(4) Hypodermis of monocot stem 134.How many of the following are the common features
129.Examine the figure given below and identify the structures between the families to which tobacco and Colchicum
labelled as a, b, c and d with their correct features. respectively belong?
(a) Endospermous seeds
(b) Type of venation in leaves
(c) Radial symmetry of flowers
(d) Hypogynous flowers
(e) Axile placentation in gynoecium
(f) Epipetalous condition of stamens
Choose the correct option
(1) Five
(2) Two
(3) Four
(4) Three

135.Consider the following statements and choose the correct

Choose the correct option. option.
(1) a - Aleurone layer - thick and fleshy (a) Fruits are characteristic feature of all seed producing
plants.
(2) b - Coleorhiza - stores starch (b) Fruits are ripened ovary.
(3) c - Scutellum - single large cotyledon (c) Fruits have fruit wall called pericarp.
(1) Only (a) is incorrect
(4) d - Coleoptile - covers radicle
(2) Only (b) is correct
130.Polyadelphous condition of androecium is seen in
(3) Only (c) is incorrect
(1) Pea
(4) Only (a) and (c) are correct
(2) China rose
(3) Citrus
(4) Lupin

131.Which of the given tissue present in stems of cereals helps

in their erection when they fall?
(1) Lateral meristem
(2) Intercalary meristem
(3) Secondary meristem
(4) Apical meristem

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Final Test Series(P1)-2024-25_Test-07B

ZOOLOGY

136.The term health can be correctly described as/by 141.Read the following statements.
(a) Balanced diet, personal hygiene and regular exercise
(1) Only physical fitness
are very important to maintain good health .
(2) Merely absence of disease (b) Among infectious diseases, cancer is the major cause of
death.
A state of complete physical, mental and social well- (c) In case of many air-borne diseases, close contact with
(3)
being the infected persons or their belongings should be avoided.
Presence of black bile which demonstrates balanced (d) The use of vaccines and immunisation programmes
(4) have enabled us to completely eradicate malaria.
state of body and mind
Select the option which includes only correct statements.
137.Select the odd one w.r.t. treatment of cancer.
(1) (a) and (b)
(1) Radiation therapy
(2) (c) and (d)
(2) Immunotherapy
(3) (a) and (c)
(3) Chemotherapy
(4) (b) and (d)
(4) Radiography
142.Mucosa associated lymphoid tissue constitutes about
138.How many of the components mentioned in the box below ______ per cent of the lymphoid tissue in human body.
are included under the category of physiological barriers of Select the option to fill the blank correctly.
innate immunity?
(1) 70
Tears in eyes, Natural killer cells, Saliva, Macrophages,
Neutrophils (2) 35
Select the correct option. (3) 50
(1) Two (4) 40
(2) Three 143.Read the given statements A and B and choose the correct
(3) Four option w.r.t. allergy.
Statement (A) : Modern day life-style has resulted in
(4) Five increased immunity and low sensitivity to allergens.
Statement (B) : Children in metro cities of India suffer from
139.Assertion (A) : Amoebic dysentery spreads through faeco-
allergies and asthma due to lack of sensitivity to the
oral route.
environment.
Reason (R) : Houseflies are vectors for the causative
pathogens of amoebic dysentery and play a very important (1) Both the statements (A) and (B) are correct
role in completing its life cycle.
In the light of above statements, choose the correct option. (2) Only statement (A) is correct

(1) Both (A) and (R) are false (3) Only statement (B) is correct

Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) does not explain (A) (4) Both the statements (A) and (B) are incorrect
(2)
correctly 144.All of the following are common warning signs of drug and
(3) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) explains (A) correctly alcohol abuse among youth, except

(4) (A) is true but (R) is false (1) Aggressive and rebellious behaviour
(2) Deteriorating relationships with family and friends
140.Following are the measures useful for prevention and
control of drug and alcohol abuse in adolescents, except (3) Excellence in academic performance
(1) Seeking professional help (4) Loss of interest in hobbies
(2) Avoiding undue peer pressure
(3) Avoiding family and friends
(4) Education and couselling

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Final Test Series(P1)-2024-25_Test-07B

145.Assertion (A) : Adolescence, is a very vulnerable phase of 149.Nicotine is an alkaloid which

mental and psychological development of an individual. (a) Stimulates adrenal medulla to release cortisol.
Reason (R) : The period between 18-25 years of age may (b) Is obtained from Atropa.
be thought of as adolescence period. (c) Stimulates adrenal gland to release catecholamines.
In the light of above statements, choose the correct answer (d) Is present in tobacco and associated with increase in
from the options given below. heart rate
Choose the correct option.
Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct
(1)
explanation of the (A) (1) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct (2) (c) and (d)
(2)
explanation of the (A)
(3) (a) and (c)
(3) (A) is true statement but (R) is false
(4) (a), (b) and (d)
(4) Both (A) and (R) are false statements
150.A man developed a scaly lesion between his toes. This
146.Listed below are some symptoms lesion is accompanied with intense itching. After
(a) Internal bleeding investigation, it was confirmed by the doctor that he is
(b) Muscular pain suffering from
(c) Fever, anemia
(1) Flatworm infection
(d) Blockage of the intestinal passage
All of the above mentioned symptoms can be observed in a (2) Ringworm
person suffering from
(3) Roundworm infection
(1) Filariasis
(4) Filariasis
(2) Malaria
151.Choose the correct option to complete the analogy.
(3) Ascariasis Microsporum : Ringworm :: Haemophilus influenzae :
(4) Ringworm _______
(1) Common cold
147.Select the option which represents correct comparison
between pneumonia and common cold. (2) Typhoid
Pneumonia Common cold
(3) Elephantiasis
Caused by
(1) Caused by Haemophilus (4) Pneumonia
Streptococcus
Alveoli of lungs do not 152.Morphine is obtained from
(2) Alveoli of lungs get affected
get affected
(1) Papaver somniferum
Infection spreads Infection spreads through
(3) (2) Cannabis sativa
through sterile water inanimate objects
Lips and nails may turn Characterised by nasal (3) Atropa belladona
(4) gray to bluish in color in congestion and discharge, (4) Datura
severe cases sore throat and cough
153.AIDS was first reported in year ‘X’ and in the last 25 years or
(1) (1) so, it has spread all over the world killing more than ‘Y’
persons.
(2) (2)
Select the correct option for 'X' and 'Y' respectively.
(3) (3) 'X' 'Y'
(4) (4) (1) 1781 25 billion
148.Choose the option representing only correct statements (2) 1891 2.5 billion
w.r.t. secondary immune response. (3) 1981 2.5 crore
a. It is due to memory cells that were produced during
primary response. (4) 1871 0.25 crore
b. It is more rapid and lasts for longer period.
(1) (1)
c. This immune response occurs due to subsequent
exposure of the same antigen to the host. (2) (2)
d. It is carried out with the help of B and T lymphocytes.
(3) (3)
(1) Only a, c and d are correct
(4) (4)
(2) Only a, b and c are correct
(3) Only b, c and d are correct
(4) a, b, c and d are correct

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Final Test Series(P1)-2024-25_Test-07B

154.All of the following drugs are used to reduce the symptoms 159.Select the correct statement w.r.t. AIDS.
of allergy, except?
The enzyme reverse transcriptase is required for viral
(1)
(1) Serotonin DNA replication.
(2) Adrenaline (2) Helper T-cells act as HIV factory.
(3) Anti-histamine The period for appearance of AIDS symptoms from
(3) infection in HIV can vary from few days to 12 months
(4) Cortisol only.
155.Specific receptors for opioids are present in Opportunistic infections in AIDS patients are very severe
(1) CNS and GIT (4) due to decrease in number of helper T-lymphocytes
below a certain number.
(2) Brain only
160.Bone marrow and thymus provide micro-environments for
(3) CNS only development and maturation of
(4) GIT only (1) Monocytes
156.Flowering branch of a plant is shown below . The particular (2) T-lymphocytes
type of drug obtained from this plant is a
(3) Polymorphonuclear leukocytes
(4) Granulocytes
161.Causative agent of typhoid fever is transmitted through
(1) Direct contact with the infected individuals
(2) Contact with body fluids of infected individuals
(3) Faeco-oral route
(4) Vector

162.The exaggerated response of our immune system to certain

antigens present in the environment results in
(1) Sedative
(1) Withdrawal syndrome
(2) Depressant
(2) Allergic response
(3) Hallucinogen
(3) Auto-immune disease
(4) Painkiller
(4) Amnestic response only
157.Select the autoimmune disease among the following.
163.By introducing larvicidal fishes in ponds, regular cleaning of
(1) Ascariasis household coolers, spraying of insecticides in ditches,
drainage area and swamps, which of the following diseases
(2) Rheumatoid arthritis can be controlled?
(3) Filariasis (a) Dengue
(b) Malaria
(4) Amoebiasis (c) Ascariasis
(d) Filariasis
158.Select the incorrect statement. Select the correct option.
Lymphocytes interact with the antigens in secondary
(1) (1) (a), (b) and (c)
lymphoid organs.
(2) (b), (c) and (d)
Lymph vessels are obstructed in filariasis leading to a
(2)
swelling around the area of obstruction. (3) (a), (c) and (d)
Cellular barriers of innate immunity can engulf bacteria (4) (a), (b) and (d)
(3)
and cellular debris.
164.Smoking is most likely to result in all of the following,
A platyhelminthic endoparasite of small intestine Ascaris except
(4)
lumbricoides causes Ascariasis.
(1) Urinary bladder cancer
(2) Peptic ulcer
(3) Cancer of throat
(4) Pneumonia

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Final Test Series(P1)-2024-25_Test-07B

165.With repeated use of drugs, a person starts taking higher 171.Consider the following statements w.r.t. lymph nodes and
doses, of it because select the incorrect one.
There is a decrease in tolerance level of receptors for They are small solid structures located at different points
(1) (1)
drugs along the lymphatic system.
Number of receptors for drugs always increases with They serve to trap the micro-organisms, which happen
(2) (2)
usage to get into the lymph.
There is an increase in tolerance level of receptors for Antibodies trapped in the lymph nodes are responsible
(3) (3)
drugs for the activation of macrophages.
(4) It tremendously increases the effect of drugs (4) They are secondary lymphoid organs.
166.Choose the correct statement. 172.Observe the features listed below:
(a) A large bean-shaped organ
Proto oncogenes are identified in cancer cells, which (b) Mainly contains lymphocytes and phagocytes
(1)
lead to oncogenic transformation of cells.
(c) A large reservoir of erythrocytes
Viral DNA of HIV incorporates into genome of (d) Acts as filter of the blood
(2) macrophages which leads to production of new viral The above mentioned features hold true for
RNA
(1) A primary lymphoid organ
Enzyme linked immuno-sorbent assay is an antigen- (2) A particular secondary lymphoid organ
(3) antibody test, used only for the diagnosis of Acquired
Immuno Deficiency Syndrome. An organ which provides micro-environment for
(3)
development of T-lymphocytes
Techniques of molecular biology are still not advanced
(4) enough to detect genes in individuals with inherited (4) An organ which produces B-lymphocytes only
susceptibility to certain cancers.
173.In a single monomeric antibody molecule, one light chain
167.Which of the following interferes with the transport of the and one heavy chain are linked together with the help of
neuro-transmitter dopamine?
(1) Two disulphide bonds
(1) Morphine
(2) One disulphide bond
(2) Diacetylmorphine
(3) Four disulphide bonds
(3) Cocaine
(4) Five disulphide bonds
(4) Smack
174.Common cold spreads through all of the following ways
168.Probability of Graft-rejection is maximum in grafting among people, except
between organisms of two different species.
(1) Contaminated books, stationary, etc.
Which type of immune response is mainly responsible for
such graft rejection? (2) Contaminated computer keyboard and mouse
(1) Autoimmune response (3) Bite of Aedes mosquito
(2) Cellular barrier immune response (4) Droplets from sneeze of an infected person
(3) Cell-mediated immune response 175.Transmission of HIV infection generally occurs through
(4) Non-specific innate immune response /from
(a) Sexual contact with uninfected person
169.A drug which has a stimulating action on CNS can also lead (b) Transfusion of contaminated blood and blood products
to hallucinations after excessive consumption. This drug is (c) Use of sterilized needles
obtained from/by (d) Infected mother to her child through placenta
Select the option representing correct statements only.
(1) Acetylation of morphine
(1) (a) and (c)
(2) Erythroxylum coca
(2) (b) and (d)
(3) Papaver somniferum
(3) (a), (b) and (c)
(4) Methylation of smack
(4) (a), (c) and (d)
170.The most serious and possibly fatal malignant malaria
causing species of Plasmodium is
(1) vivax
(2) malariae
(3) falciparum
(4) ovale

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Final Test Series(P1)-2024-25_Test-07B

176.Following are the side-effects due to misuse of anabolic 178.Source of coke is found to be native to
steroids in humans.
(a) Mood swings (1) South America
(b) Increased aggressiveness (2) South Africa
(c) Breast enlargement
(d) Depression (3) North America
How many of the above side-effects is/are common for both (4) East Africa
males and females?
179.Benign tumors differ from malignant tumors as
(1) Four
(1) Former show contact inhibition
(2) One
(2) Only latter shows unregulated cellular growth
(3) Two
(3) Latter show metastasis
(4) Three
(4) Only former starves neighbouring normal cells
177.The pathogens of ringworms
180.Match the following and select the correct option.
(1) Do not grow in moist condition
Column I Column II
(2) Do not thrive in skin folds such as in the groin a. Physical barrier (i) Interferon
Are generally acquired by using clean towel of healthy b. Physiological barrier (ii) Mucus lining of GIT
(3)
individual c. Cellular barrier (iii) Acid in stomach
(4) Belong to the fungal genera such as Trichophyton d. Cytokine barrier (iv) NK cells

(1) a(ii), b(i), c(iv), d(iii)

(2) a(ii), b(iii), c(iv), d(i)
(3) a(iii), b(ii), c(i), d(iv)
(4) a(i), b(iv), c(iii), d(ii)

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