K.M.B.

1. To disperse rouleaux and pseudoagglutination, which of the following can be performed? *

Add few drops of AHG

Add few drops of normal saline solution
Add few drops of proteolytic enzymes
Add few drops of LISS

2. What reagents are derived from plant extracts? *

Antiglobulin reagents
Anti-B ES4 clone reagent
Commercial Panel Cells
Lectins

3. H antigen has how many different forms? *

1
2
3
4

4. Which of the following antibodies can be neutralized by hydatid cyst fluid? *

Anti-I
Anti-Sda
Anti-P1
Anti-Ch

5. What is the expiration of cryoprecipitate once pooled? *

4 hours
24 hours
5 days
8 hours
6. Bacterial contamination of blood components can occur: *
At the time of phlebotomy
During thawing in water baths
During component preparation
All of the above

7. The genotype of cis AB is: *

AB
AxB
A3B
ABO

8. Immunization for rubella would result in a temporary deferral for: *

1 month
4 days
3 years
2 weeks

9. Prothrombin complex concentrates are used to treat which of the following? *

Christmas factor deficiency
Hemophilia A factor deficiency
Glass Factor deficiency
Stabilizing Factor deficiency

10. The most severe form of HDFN is associated with: *

Anti-A
Anti-B
Anti-D
Anti-K

11. This improves the survival of stored RBCs from the donor thus increased maximum shelf-life
of blood from 21 days to 35 days: *
Adenine
Citrate
Sodium phosphate
Dextrose
11. Determine the incompatibility: *

DONOR= Refer to the picture; PATIENT= Anti-A=0+ Anti-B=3+

Incompatible major xm
Incompatible minor xm
Compatible major and minor xm
Incompatible major and minor xm

13. For how long blood donor and recipient samples used in crossmatching must be stored
following transfusion? *
48 hours
72 hours
1 week
5 days

14. If a patient has had a transfusion or has been pregnant within the last 3 months or if the
history is unavailable, the sample must be obtained from the patient within how many days of
the scheduled transfusion? *
9 days
3 days
5 days
7 days

15. The main carriers of A, B, and H in body fluids and secretions: *

Type 1 precursor chain
Type 2 precursor chain
Type 3 precursor chain
Type 4 precursor chain
16. Inheritance of Sese and the Lewis gene produces the following phenotype: *
Le(a+b+)
Le(a+b-)
Le(a-b+)
Le(a-b-)

17. Lewis antigen in the saliva *

Glycoprotein
Glycolipids adsorbed in plasma
Both are correct
None of the above

18. The most common and fatal cause of error/transfusion reaction in blood banking: *
Clerical error
Serologic errors
Reagents not added
Over and Under centrifugation

19. The lack of Kx expression on RBCs and WBCs has been associated with: *
Myeloid leukemia; Alcoholic cirrhosis
McLeod phenotype; CGD
Alcoholic cirrhosis; McLeod phenotype
Chronic Granulomatous Disease; Myeloid Leukemia

20. According to AABB standards, platelets prepared from whole blood shall have at least: *
5.5 x 10^10 plts per unit in at least 75% of the units tested
6.5 x 10^10 plts per unit in at least 80% of the units tested
7.5 x 10^10 plts per unit in at least 100 % of the units tested
8.5 x 10^10 plts per unit in at least 90% of the units tested

21. Which of the following explains an ABO discrepancy caused by problems with the patient’s
red blood cells? *
An unexpected antibody
Rouleaux
Agammaglobulinemia
Tn activation
22. The test for weak D is performed by incubating patient’s red cell with: *
Several different dilutions of Anti-D serum
Anti-D serum followed by washing and antiglobulin serum
Anti- Du serum
Antiglobulin serum

23. A 25 year old male is hemorrhaging severely. He is AB, Rh-negative with preformed Anti-D.
6 units of blood are required STAT. Of the following types available in the blood bank, which
would be most preferable for crossmatch? *
AB, Rh-positive
A, Rh-negative
A, Rh-positive
O, Rh-negative

24. A 10% red cell suspension in saline is used in compatibility testing or crossmatching. Which
of the following would most likely occur? *
A false-positive result due to antigen excess
A false-positive result due to prozone phenomenon
A false-negative result due to prozone phenomenon
A false-negative result due to antigen excess

25. A patient’s serum reacted weakly positive (1+w) with 16 of 16 group O panel cells at the
AHG test phase. The autocontrol is negative. Tests with ficin-treated panel cells demonstrated
no reactivity at the AHG phase. Which antibody is most likely responsible for these results. *
Anti-Ch
Anti-k
Anti-e
Anti-Jsb

26. Serological results on an non transfused patient were= Antibody screen: negative at AHG;
DAT: 3+ with anti-C3d; Eluate: negative. These results are most likely due to: *
WAIHA
Cold agglutinin syndrome
PCH
Drug induced
27. Which of the following antigens gives enhanced reactions with its corresponding antibody
following treatment of red blood cells with proteolytic enzymes *
Fya
E
S
M

28. The process of separation of antibody from its antigen is known as: *
Diffusion
Adsorption
Neutralization
Elution

29. Which blood group is located in C4 complement and composed of 9 antigens? *

Cromer
Chido/Rogers
Knops
Gerbich

30. If the AHG phase of the crossmatch is omitted, which of the following antibodies would
probably not be detected? *
Anti-K
Anti-A
Anti-P1
Anti-N

31. Anti-Sda has been identified in patient ALF. What substance would neutralize this antibody
and allow detection of other alloantibodies? *
Saliva
Hydatid cyst fluid
Human breast milk
Urine

32. What component is most frequently involved with transfusion-associated sepsis? *

Plasma
Packed red blood cell
Platelets
Whole blood
33. Irradiation of blood is performed to prevent *
FNHTR
Delayed HTR
TA-GVHD
TA-CO

34. Kernicterus is caused by the effects of: *

Anemia
Unconjugated Bilirubin
Antibody specificity
Antibody titer

35. RhIg is indicated for: *

Mothers who have anti-D
Infants who are Rh-negative
Infants who have Anti-D
Mothers who are Rh-negative

36. RhIG is given without regard for fetal Rh type in all of the following conditions except: *
Ectopic Pregnancy Rupture
Amniocentesis
Induced Abortion
Full term delivery

37. Blood for intrauterine transfusion should be all of the following except: *
More than 7 days old
Screened for CMV
Gamma irradiated
Compatible with maternal serum

38. ABO HDFN is mild because: *

ABO antigens are poorly developed in the fetus
ABO antibodies prevent the disease
ABO antibodies readily cross the placenta
ABO incompatibility is rare
39. Biochemical changes occur during the shelf life of stored blood. Which of the following is a
result of this “storage lesion” *
Increase in pH
Increase in plasma K+
Increase in plasma Na+
Decrease in plasma Hgb

40. Cold AIHA is sometimes associated with infection by: *

Staphylococcus aureus
Mycoplasma pneumoniae
Escherichia coli
Group A Streptococcus

41. The most appropriate laboratory test for early detection of acute post transfusion hemolysis
is: *
A visual inspection for free hemoglobin
Plasma haptoglobin concentration
Examination of hematuria
Serum bilirubin concentration

42. Hemoglobinuria, hypotension and generalized bleeding are symptoms of which of the
following transfusion reactions *
Allergic
Circulatory overload
Hemolytic
Anaphylactic

43. A sample gives the following result: Forward: Anti-A= 3+ Anti-B=4+; Reverse: A1 cells=2+ B
cells=0. Which lectin should be used to resolve the discrepancy? *
Ulex europaeus
Arachis hypogaea
Dolichos biflorus
Vicia graminea
44. Rh antibodies best react at what temperature in degree Celsius? *
22
18
15
37

45. ISBT number of Landsteiner Wiener *

13
14
15
16

46. ISBT number of Diego *

9
10
11
12

47. ISBT number of Kell *

4
5
6
7

48. Membrane inhibitor of reactive lysis *

CD59
JMH
Knops
Cromer

49. Anion exchanger 1 Band 3 *

Diego
Colton
Lewis
Scianna

50. Glycophorins A B E *
ABO MNS Kidd Lutheran
51. 12 months deferral is considered for donors who are incarcerated in a correctional facility for
how many hours?
48
72
96
24

52. A 24 yr old male donated via 2 unit red cell collection. What is the time interval required for
him to donate again?
4 mos
4 wks
48 hrs
6 days

53. A 27 yr old woman with 1+ grading in her afb test and on medications lined up in a blood
donation drive Is she going to be deferred?
Yes, for 1 yr
Yes, permanently
No, because she is on medication
No, because the grading is 1+

54. A 45 yr old man donates blood during MBD. He weighs 154 lbs and has a hemoglobin of
150g/L. He is currently on blood thinner and cobalamin. Is he acceptable?
Yes
No, he is on coumadin
Yes, for red cells only
No, his hgb is high

55. A blood donor taking clopidogrel is precluded in donating which components of the blood
unit/product?
FFP
Plts
pRBC
Cryoprecipitate

56. Immunization for rubella would result in a temporary deferral for

28 days
8 weeks
6 months
No deferral

57. ISBT number of ABO

002
003
004
001

58. It involves removal of whole blood from a patient with infusions of synthetic volume
expanders before surgical blood loss
Intraoperative collection
Postoperative
Acute normovolemic hemodilution
Preoperative

59. Landsteiner law

The corresponding antibody is found in the individual’s serum
The opposite antibody is absent in the serum
Antigen on the RBC determines the blood group
NOTA

60. Mixed field agglutination encountered in ABO with no history of transfusion would most likely
be due to
Bombay
T activation
A3 red cells
Positive IAT

61. N-acetyl-D-galactosamine is the immunodominant sugar that reacts with

Arachis hypogaea
Salvia sclarea
Dolichos biflorus
Ulex europeaus

62. Once thawed, FFP must be transfused within

4
6
8
24

63. Platelet concentrate prepared by apheresis should contain how many plts?
5.5 x 10^10
5.5 x 10^11
3.0 x 10^11
8.5 x 10^3

64. Prothrombin complex concentrates are used to treat:

Factor IX def.
Factor VIII def.
Factor XII def.
Factor XIII def.

65. RBCs that have been leukoreduced must contain less than how many WBCs?
8.3 x 10^5
5 x 10^6
3 x 10^11
5.5 x 10^10

66. RDPs that have been leukoreduced must contain less than how many platelets?
8 x 10^6
5 x 10^6
3 x 10^11
8.3 x 10^5

67. Subgroup of A that is not agglutinated by Anti-A but demonstrated weak agglutination with
Anti-A,B
Ax
Ay
Ael
A3

68. Subgroup of A that is non agglutinated by Anti-A and Anti-A,B, adsorbs and elutes Anti-A,
no A substance in the saliva
Ax
Ay
Ael
A3

69. Subgroup of A that produce mixed field pattern of agglutination with Anti-A and Anti-A,B
reagents
Ax
Ay
Ael
A3

70. The primary objective of donor selection is/are:

Ensure the donation will not harm the donor
Ensure the donated blood will not harm the transfusion recipient
Both are true
Both are false
71. The required storage temperature for frozen RBCs using high glycerol
4C
-120C
-18C
-65C

72. 3 units of pRBCs were brought to the nurses’ station at (9:20 am. 2 units were transfused
immediately and 1 unit was transfused at 9:40 am. The remaining was returned to the blood
bank at 10AM. The units were not refrigerated after leaving the blood bank. What problem(s) is
(are) present?
The only problem is with the returned unit: the 30 min limit has expired and the unit cannot be
used
The unit should not have been transfused at 9:40 am because the time limit has expired; this
unit and the remaining unit should have been returned to the blood bank
The returned unit may be held for this patient for 48 hours but cannot be used for another px
No problems

73. Transfusion of an irradiated product is indicated in all of the following conditions except:
Exchange transfusion
Bone marrow transplant
Severe combined immunodeficiency syndrome
WAIHA

74. Type of discrepancy wherein the problem lies with the increased amount of proteins in
serum
I
II
III
IV

75. Type of discrepancy wherein the problem lies with missing or weak reacting antibodies
I
II
III
IV

76. Type of discrepancy wherein the problem lies with missing or weak reacting antigens
I
II
III
IV

77. Type of discrepancy wherein the problem lies with polyagglutination and miscellaneous
reactions
I
II
III
IV

78. Type of donation where recipient select donors for themselves

Autologous
Preoperative
Designated
Intraoperative

79. What antibodies are formed by a bombay individual

Anti-A and Anti-H
Anti-A and Anti-B
Anti-A,B
Anti-A, Anti-B and Anti-H

80. What is a special condition for the storage of plts

Room temp 20-24C
No other components may be stored with plts
Plts must be stored upright in separate containers
Plts require agitation at 20-24C

81. What is the age limit for preoperative autologous collection

60
18
50
No age limit

82. What is the component of choice for a patient with CGD

FFP
Granulocytes
Cryoprecipitate
RBCs

83. What is the immunodominant CHO in type B?

L-fucose
N-acetyl-D-galactosamine
D-galactose
N-acetyl-D-galactosamine and D-galactose

84. What is the main carrier of A, B and H in the fluids and secretions
Type 3 PS
Type 2 PS
Type 1 PS
Type 4 PS

85. What is the term used to denote genes that do not produce any detectable trait?
Recessive
Amorph
ominant
Both A and B

86. What percentage of red cells must be retained in leuko-reduced red cells?
85
70
95
80

87. What type of discrepancy is the most frequent?

I
II
III
IV

88. What should be done if all forward and reverse ABO results as well as the autocontrol are
positive
kRetype the sample using different lot number rgts
Use polyclonal typing rgts
Report the sample as group AB

89. Which ABO phenotype is always composed of a pair of dominant genes?

A
B
AB
O

90. Which blood group has the least H antigen?

A1B
A2
B
A1

91. Which component has the longest expiration date?

Cryoprecipitate
FFP
Frozen RBCs
Plt concentrates
92. Which of the ff cancers is indefinitely deferred?
Basal cell carcinoma
Carcinoma in situ of the cervix
Papillary thyroid carcinoma
NOTA

93. Which of the ff distinguishes A from A2

A2 will not react with Anti-A, A1 will react strongly (4=)
An A2 may form anti-A1, an A1 will not form anti-A1
A1 may form anti-A2, A2 will not form anti-A1
A2 will not react with anti-A from a non immunized donor, A1 will react with any anti-A

94. Which of the following donors is acceptable

Donor who was treated for gonorrhea 6 mos ago
Donor who had a needlestick injury 10 mos ago
Donor who is on 8 month long first generation oral retinoid medication
Donor who had a first trimester abortion 4 weeks ago

95. Which of the ff has the shortest deferral

Acnetrex Isotretinoin
Rubella
Varicella
Mumps

96. Which of the following increases during RBC storage

ATP
2,3-DPG
pH
Potassium

97. Which of the ff individuals is acceptable as a blood donor

A 28 yr old woman who receive hepa B vaccine 7 days ago
A 21 yr old woman who had her tongue pierced last week
A 35 yr old man who lived in malaria endemic place for 3 yrs and returned last month
A 26 yr old man who tested positive for hepa C last yr

98. Which of the ff is an acceptable time in which a whole blood unit is collected
14 mins
19 mins
25 mins
30 mins

99. WHich of the ff is second generation HBsAg detection?

RIA
ELISA
Complement fixation
reverse passive hemagglutination

100. Which of the ff is/are assoc. with D-acetylase?

E. coli O86
P. vulgaris OS19
Clostridium tertium
AOTA

101. WHich of the ff is/are inherited cause of polyagglutination

HEMPAS
V. cholerae
Tk-polyagglutination
NOTA

102. Which of the ff lists is the correct shelf-life for the component?
Deglycerolized RBCs 24 hrs
RBCs (CPD) 35 days
Plt concentrate 7 days
FFP 5 years

103. Which of the ff. would be a cause for deferral?

History of hepatitis after 11th birthday
Positive HTLV-I antibody
Positive hepatitis C virus
AOTA

104. Which of the ff are not included in routine blood donor unit screening
HbsAg
Malaria
Anti-CMV
ABO

105. Which physical examination result is cause for rejecting a whole-blood donor?
28 yrs old man with 135 g/L hgb
37 yrs old woman with 34% hct for autologous donation
24 yrs old swimmer with pulse rate of 48bpm
21 yrs old man with 37.7C temperature

106. Which typing results are most likely to occur when a patient has an acquired B antigen
Anti-A 4+, anti-B 3+, A1 cells neg, B cells neg
Anti-A 3+, anti-B neg, A1 cells neg, B cells neg
Anti-A 4+, anti-B 1+, A1 cells neg, B cells 4+
Anti-A 4+, anti-B 4+, A1 cells 2+, B cells neg

107. A patient’s red cells forward as Anti-A = 0 ; anti-B = 0 / serum agglutinates B cells (4+)
only. Your next step should be?
Extend reverse typing for 15 mins
Perform an antibody screen including a room temp incubation
Incubate washed red cells with anti-A1 and anti-A,B for 30 mins at room temperature
Test patient’s red cells with Dolichos biflorus

108. A unit of pRC is split using the open system. One half of the unit is used. What may be
done with the second half of the unit?
Must be issued within 48 hrs
Must be irradiated
Must be issued within 24 hrs
Must retain the original exp. date

109. A unit of whole blood is collected at 8 am and stored at 20-24C. What is the last hour
platelet concentrates may be made from this unit?
4pm
6pm
7pm
8pm

110. ABH antigens on RBCs are

Synthesized on the type 2 PS (beta 1 3 linkage)
Synthesized on type 1 PS (beta 1 4)
Synthesized on type 2 (beta 1 4)
Synthesized on type 1 (beta 1 3)

111. An ABO type on a patient gives:

Forward: Anti-A 4+, anti-B 4+, anti-A1 0
Reverse: Known A1 2+, known B 0
The reactions may be seen in a patient who is:
A1 with acquired B
A2B with anti-A1
AB with increased protein
AB with an autoantibody

112. An example of a technical error that can result in an ABO discrepancy is?
Acquired B
Missing isoagglutinins
Cells suspension too heavy
Acriflavine antibodies
113. Anti-H lectin
Arachis hypogaea
Salvia sclarea
D. biflorus
Ulex europaeus

114. Can an autologous donor donate blood on Sunday if he has a surgery on Thursday?
Yes, he can donate up to 72 hrs before surgery
No, he cannot donate within 7 days of surgery
Yes, he can donate half a unit
No, he cannot donate within 5 days of surgery

115. Cryoprecipitate that has been pooled must be transfused within?

24 hrs
4 hrs
6 hrs
8 hrs

116. Determine the patient’s blood type

Forward: Anti-A 0, anti-B 0, anti-A,B 0
Reverse KA 4+, KB 3+ KO 0
Autocontrol 0
A
B
AB
O

117. Determine the patient’s blood type

Forward: Anti-A 0, anti-B 0, anti-A,B 0
Reverse KA 4+, KB 4+ KO 4+
A2 with anti-A1
A1 with anti-H
Type O
Bombay individual

118. Determine the patient’s blood type

Forward: Anti-A 0, anti-B 4+
Reverse KA 4+, KB 0
A
B
AB
O
119. Determine the patient’s blood type
Forward: Anti-A 4+, anti-B 0
Reverse KA 0, KB 3+
A
B
AB
O

120. Determine the patient’s blood type

Forward: Anti-A 4+, anti-B 3+
Reverse KA 0, KB 0
A
B
AB
O

121. Each unit of cryoprecipitate prepared from WB should contain approx. How many units of
AHF activity?
40 IU
120 IU
80 IU
180 IU

122. Quality control of RBCs requires a maximum hct of

80%
75%
90%
85%

123. Gene product of the H gene

D-galactosyl transferase
N-acetylgalactosaminyl transferase
L-fucosyltransferase
NOTA

124. How does irradiation prevent TA-GVHD

Gamma rays and x-rays destroy lymphocytes ability to divide
X-rays cause lysis of lymphocytes
Gamma rays enhance lymphocyte reactivity
UV radiation induces apoptosis of lymphocytes

125. A mother who is not yet immunized by the D antigen from the baby is still a candidate for
RhIg administration
True
False

126. A positive DAT may cause positive reactions in IAT testing

True
False

127. A woman types as Rh positive. She has an anti-c titer of 32 at AHG. Her baby has a
negative DAT and is not affected by HDFN. What is the father’s most likely Rh phenotype?
rr
r”r
R1r
R2r

128. An individual’s red cells give the following reactions with Rh antisera. Anti-D 4+, Anti-C 3+,
Anti-E 0, anti-c 3+, Anti-e 3+, Rh control 0. The individual’s most probable genotype is:
DCE/DcE
DcE/dce
Dce/dce
DCe/dce

129. An Rh negative mother with positive IAT and with an Rh positive baby is still eligible for
RhIg administration
True
False

130. Antenatal RhIg must be given between 28-32 weeks AOG

True
False

131. Antibody produced by individuals with p null

Anti-P1
Anti-Pk
Anti-P
Anti-PP1Pk

132. Antibody produced by renal patients who are dialyzed using equipment sterilized with
formaldehyde
Anti-I
Anti-M
Anti-Nf
Anti-D

133. Anti-C +, Anti-D +, Anti-E +, Anti-c +, Anti-e +

R1R1
R1r
R0r”
R1R2

134. Antigen whose frequency in a random population is very low

High incidence Ag
Low incidence Ag
High incidence Ab
Low incidence Ab

135. Appearance of agglutination caused by lewis antibodies

Weak dirty looking
Shiny refractile
Mixed field
1wk+/weak reactions in high titer

136. As ionic strength increases, the antigen antibody association

Increases
Decreases
Unchanged
Both increase and decrease

137. BGS associated with most severe form of HDFN

ABO
Kell
Rh
LW

139. Bilirubin level at zone III means that here is __ lysis

Mild
Moderate
Severe
None

140. Blood group antigen which has a serine and glycine AA at the 1st and 5th position
ABO
M
P1
S

141. Blood group system associated with C4

Knops
Cromer
Ch/Rg
Colton

142. Clinically insignificant antibodies usually react best at

30C
RT
37C
Biphasic

143. Cold agglutinin syndrome is assoc. with an antibody specificity toward which of the ff
Fy3
P
I
Rh1

144. Hyperbilirubinemia and kernicterus are the major problems encountered in HDFN affected
fetus
True
False

145. If the mother is unavailable, the donor unit may be cross matched using what specimen?
Placental fluid
Baby’s eluted serum
Father’s serum
Can’t be crossmatched

146. In a case of CAIHA, the patient’s serum would most likely react 4+ at IS with:
Group A cells, B cells and O cells but not his own
Cord cells but not his own or other adult cells
All cells of group O and his own cells
Only penicillin treated panel cells, not his own

147. In an emergency situation, Rh-negative red cells are transfused into an Rh positive person
of the genotype Cde/Cde. The first antibody most likely to develop is;
c
d
e
f

148. Incubation time for saline systems

5 mins
10-15 mins
60-120 mins
30 mins
149. Indicators of Ag-Ab reactions
Hemolysis
Agglutination
Both
None

150. ISBT of Rh
002
003
004
005

151. Isotype of offending antibody in Rh HDFN

IgA
IgG
IgM
IgE

152. Most common Duffy phenotype among blacks

Fy(a-b-)
Fy(a-b+)
Fy(a+b-)
Fy(a+b+)

153. Method of preservation for the first maternal specimen used in antibody titration
Freezing
Lyophilization
Sedimentation
Heating

154. Most blood group systems are inherited as:

Sex-linked dominant
Sex-linked recessive
Autosomal recessive
Autosomal codominant

155. Most commonly used elution technique

Acid elution
Organic solvent
Heat
Freeze thaw

156. Number of antigen binding sites of a single IgG antibody

2
4
1
10

157. Patient serum plus rgt O cells = incubate . read for agglutination . wash . add AHG .
agglutination observed. What is the next step?
Add check cells
Identify the cause of the agglutination
Perform an elution technique
Perform DAT

158. PCH is associated with antibody specificity toward which of the ff?
Kell
Duffy
P
I

159. Poikilocyte seen in Rh null

Spherocyte
Stomatocyte
Acanthocyte
Elliptocyte

160. Rgt used to differentiate Rh from LW

Papain
ZZAP
DTT
Glycine EDTA

161. Requirements of a blood unit for exchange transfusion

HbS negative
CMV negative
Irradiated
Leukoreduced
75 to 80% hct
AOTA
NOTA

162. Resistance to malaria is best associated with which of the ff:

Rh
I/i
P
Duffy
163. Rh antibodies
IgG react optimally at colder temp
IgM react optimally at higher temp
IgG that causes intravascular hemolysis
IgG that can be detected at AHG

164. Rh antibody which mimics anti-C and anti-D

Anti-G
ANti-f
Anti-c
Anti-D

165. Rh negative mothers must be transfused with Rh positive blood to prevent HDFN
True
False

166. Rh systems nomenclature that is based from the theory that antigen of the systems were
produced by 3 closely linked set of alleles each gene was responsible for producing product or
antigen on the rbc surface
Weiner
Rosenfield
ISBT
Fisher Race

167. RhIg administration would not be indicated in an Rh-negative woman who has a/n
1st trimester abortion
Husband who is Rh positive
Anti-D titer of 1:4096
Positive DAT

169. Samples used for donor’s autocontrol. 1 DONOR RBC, 2 DONOR SERUM, 3 PX SERUM,
4 PX RBC
1,2,3
1,2
1,3
2,4
2,3,4,
3,4

170. Samples used for major crossmatch 1 DONOR RBC, 2 DONOR SERUM, 3 PX SERUM, 4
PX RBC
1,2,3
1,2
1,3
2,4
2,3,4

171. Samples used for minor crossmatch 1 DONOR RBC, 2 DONOR SERUM, 3 PX SERUM, 4
PX RBC
1,2,3
1,2
1,3
2,4
2,3,4
3,4

172. Samples used for recipient’s autocontrol 1 DONOR RBC, 2 DONOR SERUM, 3 PX
SERUM, 4 PX RBC
1,2,3
1,2
1,3
2,4
2,3,4
3,4

173. Shiny refractile agglutination is associated with what antigen

P
Le
Ch/Rg
Sda

174. Sialyl-Lex serves as an epitope for what tumor marker

CA 15-3
CA 19-9
CA 125
CEA

175. The antenatal RhIg is contraindicated in postpartum RhIg

True
False

176. The blood group antigen located on the channel forming integral protein of RBCs
Do
Co
Cromer
Rh

177. Aldomet triggers the production of what antibody?

Anti-K
Anti-Jk
Anti-Rh
Anti-LW

178. Liley method of predicting the severity of HDN is based on the amniotic fluid
Bilirubin conc by standard methods
Change in OD at 450 nm
Rh determination
L/S ratio

179. The main purpose of performing antibody titers on serum of prenatal immunized women is
to
Determine the identity of the Ab
Identify candidates for amniocentesis or percutaneous umbilical blood sampling
Decide if he baby needs an intrauterine transfusion
Determine is early induction of labor is indicated

180. Major XM will detect

Group A px is mistyped as O
Unexpected red cell Ab in donor
Rh negative donor mislabeled as Rh positive
Recipient antibody directed against antigen of donor

181. The mother must be exposed to the D antigen and produce antibodies that are capable of
crossing the placenta for HDFN to initiate
True
False

182. The rosette test will detect a FMH as small as

10mL
15mL
20mL
30mL

183. Under Centrifugation will lead to false __

Positive
Negative
Both
No effect

184. Usually the second and subsequent pregnancies are unaffected by Rh HDFN
True
False
185. What is the dosage of a full dose RhIg
300ug
450ug
50ug
75ug

186. What is the most common Le phenotype?

Le(a-b+)
Le(a+b+)
Le(a+b-)
Le(a-b-)

187. What type of weak D has Dce/dCe?

Weak D
Partial D
C trans
C cis

188. When the mother’s Ab screen is positive for Anti-D and the baby’s DAT is positive, she is
not a candidate for RhIg
True
False

189. When RBCs fail to react with anti-U, they usually fail to react with
Anti-M
Anti-Leb
Anti-S
Anti-P1

190. Which of the ff will react with anti-f?

rr
R1R1
R2R2
R1R2

191. Which are found on glycophorin A?

M, N
Le
S,s
P, p1 Pk

192. Zone of Liley graph which does not require immediate delivery
Zone I
Zone II
Zone III
Zone IV

193. What was discovered in 1984?

HIV
T cell receptor
Complement
Phagocytosis

194. Scientist who demonstrated that special blood cells ingest foreign bodies and pathogens
Metchnikoff
Reed
Richet
Bordet
Landsteiner

195. Disease caused by Variola minor

German measles
Measles
Alastrim
Chickenpox

196. Disease carried from new world to old world

Caused by Variola major
Caused by virus under Poxviridae
Treated by penicillin
Causes condyloma acuminatum

197. What is the other name of TNF-beta

Cathepsin
Cachetin
Lymphotoxin
Anaphylatoxin

198. Considered to be the best antigen presenters

Dendritic Cells
Neutrophils
Activated B cells
T helper cells

199. Which of the following WBCs is the homeostatic regulator of inflammation?

Eosinophils
Basophils
Neutrophils
Macrophages

200. Which of these are found on a mature B cell?

Ig and IgD
IgM and IgG
Alpha and beta chains
CD3

201. Defensins are _-rich cationic proteins which act against pathogen’s cell wall.
Cysteine
Proline
Valine
Glutamic acid

202. H. influenzae type b is an inactivated vaccine which is

Conjugate
Toxoid
Whole cell viral
Subunit

203. The fixed macrophages in the placenta

Littoral cells
Hoffbauer cells
osteoclast
Kupffer cells

204. How do CD4 T cells recognize antigens?

Through MHC Class II
Through MHC Class I
Through inheriting HLA-B27
Through MHC Class III

205. The end products are the secretion of Igs

Humoral mediated immunity by B cells
Cell mediated immunity by macrophages
Humoral mediated immunity by production of interferons and properdin
Cell mediated immunity by T cells

206. Which of the ff molecular markers serves as a ligand for IL-2?

CD2
CD71
CD16
CD25
207. All of the ff induce B cell blastogenesis except:
Pokeweed mitogen
Concanavalin A
LPS
Cowan strain of S. aureus

208. Possessing HLA-DR4 is assoc. with what disease?

RA
SLE
Grave’s disease
Ankylosing spondylitis

209. NK cells are

Identified by the presence of CD16 and CD66
3rd population of lymphocytes
Large nongranular cells
AOTA

210. A method in which lymphocytes from donor is treated with mitomycin C and is used to
determine the ability of histocompatible lymphocytes
Uses Roswell Park Memorial Institute Culture Media
Boyden Chamber Assay
Mixed Lymphocyte Reaction
Hybridoma technique

211. All immunogens are antigens. However, not all antigens are immunogens
TT
TF
FF
FT

212. It is a type of antigen that triggers the greatest immune response

Autoantigen
Xenogeneic antigen
Homologous antigen
Heterophile antigen

213. It is a category of graft rejection that occurs within minutes and is caused by preformed
cytotoxic antibodies
Accelerated
Hyperacute
Acute
Chronic
214. Which of the ff determines the gamma globulins class?
Isotype
Allotype
Idiotype
Phenotype

215. The largest and most efficient in C’ activation

IgE
IgG3
IgA
IgG4

216. It is the most predominant antibody in mucosal surfaces

IgA
IgM
IgE
IgD

217. What replaced Sendai virus that was utilized to fuse the HGPRT deficient myeloma cells
with the spleen B cells
Polyethylene glycol
Polypropylene glycol
Polystyrene glycol
Phenylalanine glycol

218. The most severe type of C’ deficiency is assoc. with glomerulonephritis

C3
C1
C2
C5-C9

219. Which of the ff is false

CD55 and CD59 deficiency leads to PCH
C1INH deficiency causes hereditary angioedema
Complements migrate in the beta-1 and beta-2 regions
C5a is the most potent anaphylatoxin and chemotaxin

220. Which of the ff is classified as type II hypersensitivity

Hay fever
RA and SLE
HTR
Contact dermatitis
221. A person with a deficiency of HCl and Vit. B12 might have?
Anti-glomerular basement membrane
Anti-parietal cell
Antimitochondrial antibody
Anti-smooth muscle antibody

222. Which of the ff is a specific marker for a disease characterized by butterfly rash in the
face?
Anti-Sm
Anti-CCP
Anti-dsDNA
Anti-Lane

223. RF’s most common isotype is

IgM
IgG
IgA
IgD

224. It is the most common congenital immunodeficiency

Selective IgA deficiency
X-linked bruton’s agammaglobulinemia
Wiskott aldrich syndrome
SCID

225. Which if these is a beta emitting radioisotope

Hydrogen
Iodine
Cobalt

226. It measures specific IgE present

RAST
RIST
IRMA
EIA

227. The most common enzyme used in EIA

ALP
G6PD
Horseradish peroxidase
Malate dehydrogenase

228. FITC labels emit

Red fluorescence
Green fluorescence
Yellow fluorescence
Rainbow fluorescence

229. Light scattered is equal to the concentration of the analyte

Turbidimetry
Mancini Radial Diffusion
Nephelometry
Ouchterlony

230. The PCR involves three processes in proper order

Denaturation-annealing-extension
Denaturation-extension-annealing
Extension-annealing-denaturation
Extension-denaturation-annealing

231. An individual mostly at risk of contracting HIV by

Mouth to mouth kissing
Sharing of food
A breastfed baby born to HIV positive mother
Shaking hands with an HIV positive person

232. Indicates high transmissibility and active replication of HBV

HbeAg
HbsAg
HBcAg
HBV DNA

233. Which of the following is a characteristic of reagin?

Treponemal antibody
Main reacting component of RPR
Antilipoidal antibody
May cause biologic false negative with RA, SLE and IM

234. Reference method for treponemal testing is

FTA-ABS
TPI
MHA-TP
TPP

235. The retained green color for anti-DNAse testing indicates

Anti-DNAse B is present in the patient’s red cells
Anti-DNAse B is present in the patient’s serum
Anti-DNAse B is absent in the cells
Anti-DNAse B is absent in the serum

236. In 2:1 serial dilution, tubes 1 until 9 yielded a positive reaction. Tubes 10 to 12 did not show
agglutination. What is the titer?
256
512
1024
2048

237. Tumor marker for ovarian cancer

CA-125
CA 15-3
AFP
Estrogen receptor

238. The solid phase for hemagglutination is

Bacterial cells
Red cells
Gelatin
Latex

239. If the labeled and unlabeled antibodies are both homologous to the antigen, there should
be no fluorescence. What immunoassay is being depicted?
Direct fluorescence assay
Indirect immunofluorescence
Inhibition immunofluorescence
Sandwich ELISA

240. The owl’s eye CPE to CMV is seen in

Shell vial culture
PCR
Tzanck cells
Serologic testing

241. ASO titer is less than/equal to 166 Todd units. Interpret.

Moderately elevated (adult)
Usual ASO in children
Normal
Moderately elevated (children)

242. A patient who requires a kidney transplant needs a living donor. The best possibility of
finding an MHC compatible donor is his
Mother
Father
Brother
Second cousin

243. Ficoll-Hypaque centrifugation uses what type of specimen?

EDTA plasma
Clotted serum
Heparinized blood
Citrated blood

245. IgA exists as __ in serum?

Dimer
Monomer
Pentamer
Polymer

246. In anamnestic response

The antibody titer is increased
IgM is the predominant antibody type
It has longer lag phase
AOTA

247. Jenner’s work with cowpox, which provides immunity against smallpox, demonstrates
which phenomenon?
Natural immunity
Attenuation of vaccines
Phagocytosis
Cross-immunity

248. The most commonly used adjuvant in vaccines

LPS
CFA
MF59
Alum

249. The most efficient in crossing the placenta

IgG1
IgG2
IgG3
IgG4

250. The process of inflammation is characterized by all of the ff except

Increased blood supply to the area
Migration of white blood cells
Decreased capillary permeability
Appearance of APR

251. The results in tissue matching/MLR are expressed as

Counts per minute
Percent relative response
Stimulation index
AOTA

252. The structure formed by the fusion of engulfed material and enzymatic granules within the
phagocytic cell is called is
Phagosome
Lysosome
Vacuole
Phagolysosome

253. There is no bursa of fabricius. Where is the site of B cell differentiation?

Fetal liver
Lungs
Kidney
Spleen

254. Animal of choice in hybridoma technique

Sheep
Rat
Mouse
Rabbit

255. When does genetic rearrangement for coding of light chains take place?
Before the pre-B cell
Before immature B cell
Not until the cell becomes mature
When the B cell becomes plasma cell

256. Where are all undifferentiated lymphocytes made?

Bone marrow
Thymus
Spleen
Lymph nodes

257. Which if the ff is true of NK cells?

They rely on memory for antigen recognition
They share antigens with B cells
They are found mainly in lymph nodes
They recognize a lack of MHC proteins
258. Which of the ff peripheral blood cells plays a key role in killing of parasites?
Neutrophils
Monocytes
Lymphocytes
Eosinophils

259. Which of the ff. plays an important role as an external defense mechanism?
Phagocytes
CRP
Lysozyme
Complement

260. Which of the ff. WBCs is capable of further differentiation in the tissues?
Neutrophils
Eosinophils
Basophils
Monocytes

261. Which of these are found on a mature B cell?

IgG and IgD
IgM and IgD
Alpha and beta chains
CD3

262. Match the ff examples of diseases with the hypersensitivity classification

Hay fever - Type I
AIHA - Type II
Arthus reaction - Type III
Koch’s phenomenon - Type IV

263. Match the ff. antibodies to their corresponding diseases

Type I DM - anti-Islet of Langerhans
Goodpasture’s - anti-glomerular basement membrane
Pemphigus vulgaris - anti-epidermal
Dermatomyositis - autoanti-Jo1
Primary biliary cirrhosis - anti-mitochondrial
Hashimoto’s thyroiditis - anti-thyroglobulin, anti-microsomal
Pernicious anemia - anti-IF, anti-parietal cell
Sjogren syndrome - anti-salivary gland nucleolar antigen
Chronic active hepatitis - anti-smooth muscle

264. ANA pattern seen in CREST

Peripheral
Centromere
Speckled
Nucleolar

265. Antibody found in drug-induced lupus

Anti-histone
Anti-Lane
Anti-DNP
Antibody to nucleolar antigens

266. Cells that have undergone apoptosis initiate this complement pathway
Classical
Alternative
Mannose-binding lectin

267. Complement involvement is evident in

Type I only
Type II only
Type III only
Type IV only
Type I and II
Type II and III
Type III and IV

268. Complement absence of IgA, IgG and IgM synthesis characterized by a severe defect in T
and B cell development and function:
SCID
Selective IgA def.
Common variable deficiency
Wiskott aldrich syndrome

269. Dendritic cells present self antigens in the thymic medulla and T cells who then react
against the autoantigens are destroyed:
Positive selection
Negative selection

270. Effector cells of immune complex mediated hypersensitivity

Basophils and mast cells
Macrophages and T cells
RBC , WBC and platelets
Tissue cells

271. Immune mechanism of immediate hypersensitivity

Cytolysis
Cytokine release
Immune complex deposition
Release of mediators

272. Indicator of active SLE

Anti-dsDNA
Anti-Sm
ANA
Anti-Ro

273. The most common complement deficiency is the deficiency of

C2
C3
C1
C5-C8

274. RF latex titer indicating a positive reaction

20-40
Equal to or greater than 80
Agglutination at 20
No agglutination at 20

275. Complement produced by intestinal epithelial cells and urogenital epithelium

- C1

276. Immediate hypersensitivity mediated by IgE antibodies

- Atopy

277. The C3 convertase in alternative pathway

- C3bBb

278. The complement fragment which is the most potent chemotaxin and anaphylatoxin
- C5a

279. Complement protein in the alternative pathway produced by the adipose tissue
- Factor D

280. A complete hemoglobin molecule consists of four heme and a heterogenous pair of globin
rings. When fully saturated, each gram of Hgb can hold 1.34 mg of O2 and 3.47 mL of Fe.
First statement is true; second statement is false.
First statement is false; second statement is true.
Both statements are true.
Both statements are false.
281. A patient has a hemoglobin level of 8.0 g/dL. Following the rule of three, within what range
would the hematocrit be expected?
24-27%
21-24%
24-30%
21-27%

282. What is the earliest recognizable precursor cell of platelets?

Mature megakaryocyte
Granular megakaryocyte
Megakaryoblast
Promegakaryocyte

283. Monocyte maturation series:

1. Monocyte
2. Monoblast
3. Promonocyte
4. Promonoblast
4, 1, 2
4, 2, 1, 3
1, 2, 3, 4
2, 3, 1

284. A useful chemical test for the diagnosis of hairy cell leukemia is the:
tartrate-resistant acid phosphate test.
Sudan black test.
periodic acid-Schiff test.
peroxidase test.

285. All of the following will cause a spurious increase in WBC count, EXCEPT:
Lyse-resistant red cells
Giant platelets
Red cells fragments
Red cell aggregation

286. All are TRUE about metamyelocyte, EXCEPT:

juvenile leukocyte.
contains primary granules.
N/C ratio: decreased.
none of the choices.

287. Auer bodies are:

a normal aggregation of lysosomes or primary (azurophilic) granules
predominantly found in acute myelogenous leukemia
peroxidase negative
alkaline phosphatase positive

288. Buffy coat may consist of:

1. mature white cells
2. immature white cells
3. platelets
4. nucleated RBC
1, 2, and 3.
1 and 3
2 and 4.
4 only.
all of the following.

289. Which of the following statements about myeloblast is TRUE?

contains primary granules
only non-granulated WBC precursor
N/C ratio: 2-3:1
Diameter = 10-15 um

290. If an average of 10 platelets are seen per oil immersion field, what is the estimated platelet
count?
300x109/L
50x109/L
100x109/L
200x109/L

291. If the angle is increased in the wedge smear method, what type of smear will be produced?
Long and thin
Short and thin
Short and thick
Long and thick

292. In an adult, what are the two best areas for obtaining active bone marrow by aspiration?
Posterior iliac crest, sternum
Vertebra, tibia
Anterior iliac crest, tibia
Sternum, vertebra

293. Which of the following is INCORRECT?

Gower 1: 2 zeta + 2 gamma
Gower 2: 2 alpha + 2 epsilon
HbF: 2 alpha + 2 gamma
None of the choices
All of the choices

294. What is the most reliable indicator of blood cell maturity?

loss of nuclei
increase in diameter
chromatin pattern
change in shape

295. It is a direct method of hemoglobin measurement in which a drop of blood is absorbed into
a chromograph and compared with the color chart.
Cyanmethemoglobin method
Alkali hematin method
Tallquist method
Acid hematin method

296. What converts ferrous into ferric form for apotransferrin binding?
TfR1
Hephaestin
DMT1
Hepcidin

297. Nucleated red blood cell that contains nonheme iron particles:
Heinz bodies
siderocyte
Pappenheimer bodies
ringed sideroblast

298. Of the following, the disease most closely associated with pale blue inclusions in
granulocytes and giant platelets is:
Chediak Higashi disease.
Pelger-Huet anomaly
Alder-Reilly anomaly
May-Hegglin anomaly

299. On a smear made directly from a finger stick, no platelets were found in the counting area.
The first thing to do is:
obtain another smear
request another finger stick
examine the slide for clumping
perform a total platelet count

300. Primary granules containing myeloperoxidase first appear in what myelocytic stage?
myelocyte
myeloblast
promyelocyte
metamyelocyte

301. Supravital staining is important for reticulocytes since the cells must be living in order to
stain the:
iron before it precipitates
remaining RNA in the cell
cell membrane before it dries out
denatured hemoglobin in the cell

302. Terminal deoxynucleotidyl transferase (TdT) is a marker found on:

hairy cells
myeloblasts
lymphoblasts
Monoblasts

The cytoplasmic abnormality of the white blood cell of Alder-Reilly anomaly is found in the:
mitochondria.
endoplasmic reticulum.
lysosomes.
ribosomes.

303. The following are compounds formed in the synthesis of heme:

 1. coproporphyrinogen
2. porphobilinogen
3. uroporphyrinogen
4. protoporphyrinogen.
Which of the following responses lists these compounds in the order in which they are formed?
2, 1, 3, 4
4, 3, 1, 2
2, 3, 1, 4
4, 2, 3, 1

304. The majority if the iron in an adult is found as a constituent of:

hemoglobin
myoglobin
hemosiderin
transferrin

305. The most appropriate screening test for hemoglobin S is:

Kleihauer-Betke
dithionite solubility
sucrose hemolysis
osmotic fragility

306. The myeloid progenitor cell can produce cells committed to

Granulocytic, erythrocytic, monocytic, or megakaryocytic lineages
Erythrocytic, granulocytic, lymphocytic, or megakaryocytic lineages
Erythrocytic, granulocytic, monocytic, or lymphocytic lineages
Granulocytic, monocytic, lymphocytic, or megakaryocytic lineages

307. The peripheral blood monocyte is an intermediate stage in the formation of the:
fibroblast.
hairy cell.
osteoclast.
plasmacyte.

308. The potassium ferricyanide in the reagent converts the hemoglobin iron from the ferrous
state to the ferric state to form methemoglobin. This will be measured spectrophotometrically at
540 nm.
Both statements are true.
Both statements are false.
First statement is true; second statement is false.
First statement is false; second statement is true.

309. The preferred anticoagulant for platelet count is citrate. In case of platelet satellitosis,
recollect using EDTA and multiply by 1.1.
Both statements are false.
The first statement is false. The second statement is true.
Both statements are true.
The first statement is true. The second statement is false.

310. The confirmatory test for hereditary spherocytosis is:

Kleihauer-Betke
osmotic fragility
sucrose hemolysis
heat instability test

311. The total iron- binding capacity (TIBC) is an indirect measure of:
ferritin.
iron in hemoglobin.
transferrin.
hemosiderin.

312. This parameter is increased in cases of IDA:

transferrin saturation
ferritin
total iron binding capacity
all are increased.

313. Use of excess EDTA will:

shrink the red cell, swells the platelets
shrink the platelets, swells the red cells
shrink both the platelets and red cells
swells both the platelets and red cells

314. What feature would not be expected in pseudo-Pelger-Huet cells?

decreased granulation
normal neutrophils
normal peroxidase activity
hyperclumped chromatin

315. What is the MCH if the Hct is 20%, the RBC is 2.4x106/uL and the Hgb is 5 g/dL?
23 fL
84fL
25 fL
21 fL

316. What is the sequence of maturity for the erythroid series?

rubriblast, prorubricyte, rubricyte, metarubricyte
rubriblast, rubricyte, prorubricyte, metarubricyte
prorubricyte, rubricyte, rubriblast, metarubricyte
rubriblast, metarubricyte, rubricyte, prorubricyte

317. Which cell stage is still capable of differentiation to another cell lineage?
CFU-Meg
CFU-S
CFU-E
CFU-GM

318. Which component of Drabkin’s reagent which converts ferrous iron into ferric iron?
Potassium cyanide
Dihydrogen potassium phosphate
Potassium ferricyanide
Nonionic detergent

319. Which is the correct order of filling evacuated tubes in multiple sampling according to
CLSI?
Yellow, red, light blue, purple, green, gray orange
Yellow, light blue, red, green, purple, gray, orange
Yellow, red, light blue, green, purple, gray, orange
Yellow, light blue, red, purple, green, gray, orange
320. Which metabolic pathway is responsible for adequate synthesis of 2,3-
Biphosphoglycerate?
Embden Meyerhof
Methemoglobin reductase
Hexose monophosphate
Luebering-Rapaport

321. Which of the following about iron regulation is TRUE?

a. Further absorption of iron is hampered by its levels.
b. With increased loss of blood, iron uptake is mobilized.
c. Hepcidin regulates exports of iron in a negative feedback mechanism.
d. A and B
e. B and C
f. A, B, C

322. Which of the following erythrocyte inclusions can be visualized with supravital stain but
cannot be detected on a Wright’s-stained blood smear?
Heinz bodies
Howell–Jolly bodies
Basophilic stippling
Siderotic granules

323. Which of the following is not a characteristic of Hgb H?

it is relatively unstable and thermolabile
its oxygen affinity is lower than that of Hgb A
it is a tetramer of beta chains
electrophoretically, it represents a “fast” hemoglobin

324. Which of the following patient/s has/have hematocrit levels that fall within reference
values?
A 25 y/o female with hematocrit level of 55%
A 1-y/o boy with hematocrit level of 0.45
A 35 y/o male with hematocrit level of 60%
A 5-day old baby boy with hematocrit level of 0.50
All of the individuals have hematocrit levels falling within the reference ranges.
None of the individuals has hematocrit levels falling within the reference ranges.
325. Which of the following technical factors will cause decreased ESR?
tilting of the tube
small fibrin clots in the sample
increased room temperature
gross hemolysis

326. Which type of hemoglobin is not eluted in both acid and alkaline solutions?
Hb A2
Hb F
Portland
Hb A1

327. “Bite cells” are usually seen in patients with:

Rh null trait.
G6PD deficiency.
chronic granulomatous disease.
PK deficiency.

328. Match the ff

1 Carrier particle with attached antibodies is employed to detect patient antigen
2 Cellular antigens are used to detect Abs in sample
3 Carrier article with attached antigen is used to detect patient antibody

Reverse passive agglutination - 1

Direct agglutination - 2
Passive agglutination - 3

329. Match the ff

1 Inhibition immunofluorescence
2 Indirect immunofluorescence
3 Direct fluorescence

Absence of fluorescence indicates a positive reaction - 1

Fluorescent assay which is most widely used to antibody detection - 2
Employed in immunohistochemistry and examination of tissue sections and bacterial samples -
3

330. Match the ff

1 Laurell technique
2 Immunoelectrophoresis
3 CZE
4 Isoelectric focusing

Electrophoretic separation technique wherein results are determined through the height of the
apex - 1
Electrophoretic technique wherein formation of arcs or elliptical bands are observed - 2
Most widely used type of capillary electrophoresis technique - 3
Capillary electrophoresis which separates target antigens based on pH gradient - 4

331. Antigen-antibody complexes are noncovalent bonds and are reversible through elution
T
F

332. Crystal scintillation counter may be used to measure the results of assays employing beta
emitters
T
F

333. Enzyme immunoassays require the use of a spectrophotometer to measure the amount of
light scattered
T
F

334. Heterogeneous assays require washing and are done using solid phase
T
F

335. In noncompetitive binding assays, the concentration of the analyte is indirectly proportional
to the reaction produced.
T
F

336. In complement fixation tests, lysis indicates a reactive or positive result

T
F

337. Primary immunologic reactions involves immune complexes which are only observable in
vivo
T
F

338. With agglutination upon addition of AHG to an initially negative result

False neg
False pos
True neg
True pos

339. Antigens that produce agglutination

- Agglutinogen

340. Delay in AHG testing may cause 3+ agglutination reading

T
F

341. If A antigen and AB antigen are placed into the surrounding wells of the semisolid medium
and anti-A into the central well, the resulting precipitin lines will be
Smooth arc
Crossed
Spur

342. It is a beta lactam antimicrobial drug that modifies the membrane of the red cells therefore
resulting to a positive AHG test
- Cephalosporin

343. Agglutination involves reaction between cellular antigens and antibodies which result in
lattice formation
T
F

344. In indirect immunoassays, the concentration of an analyte is directly proportional to the

reaction produced
T
F

345. Precipitation can be measured serologically using three methods using a fluid medium:
passive immunodiffusion and electrophoresis. Moreover, it is described as the involvement
using combination of a soluble antigen with soluble antibody to produce insoluble complexes
that cannot be detected by the naked eye
FF
TT
TF
FT

346. For the polymerase chain reaction to transition from denaturation to annealing, the
temperature must be cooled down by
43C
45C
55C
56C

347. A must marker for HIV together with p24

gp41
gp120
gp160
gp125

348. Appearance of condylomata lata

Detected in dark field microscopy
Not yet detected using dark field microscopy

349. Best confirmatory for HCV

RIBA
ELISA
NAT
CLEIA

350. Enhances reacting surface of cardiolipin

0.9% cholesterol
0.09% cholesterol
0.03% cholesterol
0.21% cholesterol

351. Forssman antibodies are __ in guinea pig kidney cells and __ with sheep rbcs using beef
rbcs
Adsorbed, do not agglutinate
Adsorbed, agglutinate
Not adsorbed, do not agglutinate
Not adsorbed, agglutinate

352. Interpret the T. pallidum immobilization test: less than 20% immobilized
Negative
Positive
Doubtful

353. Present marker that indicates lifelong immunity

IgM anti-HBc
IgG anti-HBc
Anti-HBe
Anti-HBs
354. The best confirmatory method for VZV is the fluorescent antibody to membrane antigen
test
T
F

355. The most reliable measure of recent S. pyogenes skin infection

ASO
Anti-DNAse
CRP
STZ testing

356. Which of the following hepatitis viruses is transmitted via fecal oral route?
A
A, B
A, E
C,E
B, E

357. Common manifestation of HSV

- Cold sores

358. Positive result for STZ

- Hemagglutination

359. Preserving reagent for RPR

- Thimerosal

360. Receptor for the most ubiquitous virus known to man in the Ig-producing cells
- CD21

361. A 3-week pregnant teenager developed a painless but firm nodule near the anus which
turned to be a wart-like lesion. What is the drug of choice?
Doxycycline
Tetracycline
Erythromycin
EPO

362. MalaQUICK standby test detects P. falciparum __-rich protein in blood samples
Histidine
Proline
Cysteine
Valine
363. The causative agent for RMSF positively reacts with ___
OX-2, OX-19
OX-2
OX-K, OX-19
OX-K

364. Under what powerfield must the VDRL slide be read microscopically?
NOTA
LPO
HPO
OIO

365. Which of the ff hepatitis viruses can be most likely to be transmitted through transfusion of
clotting factor concentrates?
E
A
B
D