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Review Questions in BB

The document contains a series of questions and answers related to blood group systems, transfusion practices, and immunology. It covers topics such as the washing of red blood cells, the effects of PEG on agglutination, and the storage requirements for blood components. Additionally, it addresses various blood group antigens, compatibility testing, and the minimum requirements for platelet components.

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0% found this document useful (0 votes)
64 views4 pages

Review Questions in BB

The document contains a series of questions and answers related to blood group systems, transfusion practices, and immunology. It covers topics such as the washing of red blood cells, the effects of PEG on agglutination, and the storage requirements for blood components. Additionally, it addresses various blood group antigens, compatibility testing, and the minimum requirements for platelet components.

Uploaded by

Betchy Gaming
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
Download as PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd
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1. RBCs must be washed in saline at 6. Which blood group system is 11.

What is the minimum number of


least 3 times before the addition of associated with resistance to P. vivax platelets required in an apheresis
AHG reagent to: malaria? component (90% of the sampled
a. increase the antibody binding to antigen a. Kidd units)?
b. neutralize any excess AHG reagent b. P a. 3.5 x 10^11
c. wash away any hemolyzed cells c. Duffy b. 3.0 x 10^11
d. remove traces of free serum globulins d. Kell c. 2.0 x 10^11
d. 4.0 x 10^11
2. PEG increases the strength of 7. urgent situations when a crossmatch
agglutination reactions by: cannot be completed and the 12. Which of the following would be
a. increasing water removal from the recipient’s blood type is unknown, associated with no Kell system
surface of the RBC which of the following components antigenic expression?
b. precipitating excess ions from the may be given? a. Mg
reaction a. Group A red blood cells b. Kpa
c. increasing the concentration of antigen b. Group O plasma c. Ss
on the RBC surface c. Group AB red blood cells d. McLeod phenotype
d. increasing the ionic strength of the d. Group AB plasma
reaction 13. Which of the following ABO blood
8. RzR1 is equivalent to: groups contains the least amount of H
3. The immunodominant sugar a. DCE/DCe substances?
responsible for blood group A b. dCE/cde a. A1B
specificity is: c. DcE/cDe b. A2
a. Uridine diphosphate-N-acetyl-D- d. DCe/cde c. O
galactose d. B
b. N-acetyl-D-galactosamine 9. According to AABB standards, Fresh
c. D-galactose Frozen Plasma must be infused within 14. A and B blood group antigens are
d. L-fucose what period of time following derived when glycosyltransferases
thawing? add specific sugars to precursor H.
4. IgM antibody has 10 antigen-binding a. 72 hours What is the terminal sugar for B
sites but its valency is: b. 24 hours antigen?
a. Pentameric c. 36 hours a. N-acetylgalactosamine
b. two-fold pentameric d. 48 hours b. N-acetlyglucosamine
c. trimeric c. D-galactose
d. hexameric 10. Which of the following mechanisms d. Fucose
does NOT result in weak D?
5. Which of the following antigens is the a. Transmissible gene encoding weak 15. The optimum storage temperature for
most immunogenic after A, B and D expression of D antigen platelets is:
antigens? b. D gene producing D antigen with missing a. -20ºC
a. K epitopes (Partial D) b. 22ºC
b. E c. Position effect caused by cE gene in c. 4ºC
c. C transposition to the D gene d. –12ºC
d. Fya d. Position effect caused by Ce gene in
transposition to the D gene
16. Cryoprecipitated AHF, if maintained in d. centrifugal force allows separation based 26. What is the lowest allowable pH for a
the frozen state of -18 C or below, on different viscosity of blood platelet component at outdate?
has a shelf life of: components a. 6.9
a. 12 months b. 6.2
b. 42 days 21. R2R0 is Equivalent with: c. 6.8
c. 36 months a. dCE/cde d. 5.9
d. 6 months b. DCe/cde
c. DcE/cDe 27. Polyspecific AHG reagent contains:
17. Monoclonal anti-C3d is: d. DCE/DCe a. anti-IgG and anti-C3d
a. derived from one clone of plasma cells b. anti-IgG
b. derived from immunization of rabbits 22. Which of the following is the c. anti-C3d
c. derived from multiple clones of plasma component of choice when a d. anti-IgG and anti-IgM
cells physician is concerned about
d. reactive with C3b and C3d restoring or maintaining oxygen- 28. The antiglobulin test does not require
carrying capacity? washing or the addition of IgG-coated
18. Previous records of patients’ ABO and a. Cryoprecipitate cells in which of the following
Rh types must be immediately b. Red blood cells antibody detection methods?
available for comparison with current c. Albumin a. polyethylene glycol (PEG) technique
test results d. Whole blood b. solid phase red cell adherence assays
a. indefinitely c. gel test
b. for 6 months 23. All but one of these factors will d. affinity column technology
c. for 10 years influence platelet metabolism and
d. for 12 months viability in a closed container system: 29. What is the principle of the Kleihauer
a. temperature of storage Betke stain?
19. What ABH substance(s) would be b. fibrinogen concentration a. fetal hemoglobin is more resistant to
found in the saliva of a group B c. total platelet count erythrosine and hematoxylin staining
secretor? d. duration of storage than adult hemoglobin
a. H and A b. adult hemoglobin is more soluble in acid
b. H, A and B 24. The presence of anti-A1 is usually buffer than fetal hemoglobin
c. H detected by the c. adult hemoglobin is more resistant to
d. H and B a. antibody screening procedure (indirect alkaline buffer than fetal hemoglobin
Coombs’ test) d. fetal hemoglobin is more resistant to
20. Which of the following describes the b. red-cell typing antisera alkaline buffer than adult hemoglobin
principle by which separation of c. use of A2 cells
plasma, platelets, and granulocytes by d. reverse ABO grouping procedure 30. Following compatibility testing, for
apheresis is accomplished? how long must the patient’s blood
a. continuous flow rate allows separation of 25. Once thawed, Fresh Frozen Plasma sample and the donor’s red cells be
components must be transfused within: retained?
b. centrifugal force allows separation based a. 24 hours a. 9 days after crossmatching
on different density of blood components b. 8 hours b. 7 days after transfusion
c. intermittent flow rate allows separation of c. 4 hours c. 7 days after crossmatching
components d. 12 hours d. 10 days after transfusion
31. Which autoantibody specificity is 36. The ionic strength of a reaction 41. How are weaker-than-expected
found in patients with paroxysmal medium is dependent on: reactions with anti-D typing reagents
cold hemoglobinuria? a. the number of IgM antibodies categorized?
a. i b. the amount of antibody in the reaction a. DU
b. P1 c. the level of ions in the reaction medium b. DAT positive
c. P d. the number of RBCs in the reaction c. Rh null
d. I d. Partial D
37. Whole blood/RBCs can be stored in
32. Which reagent red blood cells are CPDA-1 at 1 to 6°C for how many 42. The immediate spin (IS) major
used for antibody screening during days? crossmatch will most likely detect
pretransfusion testing? a. 21 which of the following
a. group O b. 7 incompatibilities?
b. group A c. 42 a. Group B donor, group O patient
c. group AB d. 35 b. D+ donor, D- patient
d. group B c. Group O donor, group A patient
38. Choose the preferred criteria for d. K+ donor, patient with anti-K
33. The major immunoglobulin class(es) donor unites when issuing
of anti-B in a group A individual is uncrossmatched blood for a patient 43. For which of the following patients
(are): for whom no pretransfusion testing would autologous donation NOT be
a. IgM and IgG can be completed. advisable?
b. IgG a. ABO-specific a. patients with an antibody against a high
c. IgM b. Group O, Rh-negative incidence antigen
d. IgM and IgA c. ABO- and Rh-compatible b. patients with multiple antibodies
d. ABO- and Rh-specific c. open heart surgery patients
34. Frozen/thawed RBCs processed in an d. patients with uncompensated anemia
open system can be stored for how 39. Which of the following antibodies
many days/hours? present in a multi-transfused obstetric 44. For how many days can red blood
a. 6 hours patient would be most likely to cause cells be stored when the AS-1 additive
b. 3 days HDN in her infant? system is used?
c. 15 days a. anti-c a. 42
d. 24 hours b. anti-Lea b. 35
c. anti-K c. 21
35. Cells carrying a weak-D antigen d. anti-P1 d. 28
require the use of what test to
demonstrate its presence? 40. What is the expiration date for fresh 45. Whole blood and RBC units are stored
a. indirect antiglobulin test frozen plasma (FFP) that is stored at - at what temperature?
b. direct antiglobulin test 65°C or colder? a. 24-27°C
c. microplate test a. 7 years b. 37°C
d. warm autoabsorption test b. 5 years c. 1-6°C
c. 3 years d. 20-24°C
d. 12 months
46. Platelet units may be pooled together
for ease of transfusion only if they are
a. ABO group compatible with each other
b. ABO group specific for the recipient
c. ABO group compatible with the recipient
d. all of the same ABO group

47. What are the current storage time and


storage temperature for platelet
concentrates and apheresis platelet
components?
a. 5 days at 24 to 27°C
b. 5 days at 1 to 6°C
c. 7 days at 22 to 24°C
d. 5 days at 20 to 24°C

48. What is the minimum number of


platelets required in a platelet
concentrate prepared from whole
blood by centrifugation (90% of
sampled units)?
a. 5.5 x 10^10
b. 3.0 x 10^11
c. 5.5 x 10^11
d. 3.0 x 10^10

49. Optimum storage temperature for Red


Blood Cells is:
a. -20ºC
b. -80ºC
c. 4ºC
d. -12ºC

50. What do Rh null cells lack?


a. Normal oxygen carrying capacity
b. Rh antigens
c. MNSs antigens
d. Lewis antigens

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