UNIT 9: SOFTWARE ENGINEERING products and related modifications satisfy the client.

S/W Engineering Paradigm — life cycle models d) It means that the product designed /created should
(water fall, incremental, spiral, WINWIN spiral, be easily available.
evolutionary, prototyping, object oriented) - Project
Management Concepts - Software Project Planning Answer:b
Risk analysis and management-project scheduling Explanation: None.
and tracking software quality assurance-Software 4. Identify an ethical dilemma from the situations
configuration management, Requirement analysis - mentioned below:
software prototyping — prototyping in the software a) Your employer releases a safety-critical system
process — rapid prototyping techniques, Design without finishing the testing of the system.
process and concepts - Realtimesystems- b) Refusing to undertake a project.
Realtimesoftwaredesign-Softwaretesting—Typesof c) Agreement in principle with the policies of senior
software testing — strategic approach and issues — management.
Software Metrics.
Answer:a
Software Engineering Ethics - 1 - Explanation: None.
“Software Engineering Ethics – 1”. 5. Identify the correct statement: “Software
1. Choose the correct option in terms of Issues engineers shall
related to professional responsibility a) act in a manner that is in the best interests of his
a) Confidentiality expertise and favour.”
b) Intellectual property rights b) act consistently with the public interest.”
c) Both a & b c) ensure that their products only meet the SRS.”
d) Managing Client Relationships d) none

Answer:c Answer:b
Explanation: Engineers should normally respect the Explanation: Software engineers shall act in a
confidentiality of their employers or clients manner that is in the best interests of their client and
irrespective of whether or not a formal employer consistent with the public interest and
confidentiality agreement has been signed. shall ensure that their products and related
They should be aware of local laws governing the modifications meet the highest professional
use of intellectual property such as patents, standards possible.Thus options a & c are ruled out.
copyright, etc. 6. Select the incorrect statement: “Software
2. “Software engineers should not use their technical engineers should
skills to misuse other people’s computers.”Here the a) not knowingly accept work that is outside your
term misuse refers to: competence.”
a) Unauthorized access to computer material b) not use your technical skills to misuse other
b) Unauthorized modification of computer material people’s computers.”
c) Dissemination of viruses or other malware c) be dependent on their colleagues.”
d) All of the mentioned d) maintain integrity and independence in their
professional judgment.”
Answer:d
Explanation: None. Answer:c
3. Explain what is meant by PRODUCT with Explanation:None.
reference to one of the eight principles as per the 7. Efficiency in a software product does not include
ACM/IEEE Code of Ethics ? ________
a) The product should be easy to use. a) responsiveness
b) Software engineers shall ensure that their b) licensing
products and related modifications meet the highest c) memory utilization
professional standards possible. d) processing time
c) Software engineers shall ensure that their
Answer:b Answer:d
Explanation: Licensing of a software product comes Explanation: rest all are clauses for software ethics,
under corporate part of the software company. environment does not focus on specific clause nor its
8. As per an IBM report, “31%of the project get of importace related to question.
cancelled before they are completed, 53% overrun 2. What is a Software ?
their cost estimates by an average of 189% and for a) Software is set of programs.
every 100 projects, there are 94 restarts”.What is the b) Software is documentation and configuration of
reason for these statistics ? data.
a) Lack of adequate training in software engineering c) Both a and b
b) Lack of software ethics and understanding d) None of the mentioned
c) Management issues in the company
Answer:c
Answer:a Explanation: Software is not just set of program but
Explanation: Option b & c are a part of Software it is also associated documentation and configuration
Engineering as a subject,hence option a covers them of data to make program run.
both. 3. Which of these does not account for software
9. The reason for software bugs and failures is due failure ?
to a) Increasing Demand
a) Software companies b) Low expectation
b) Software Developers c) Increasing Supply
c) Both a and b d) Less reliable and expensive.

Answer:c Answer:c
Explanation: Software companies are responsible for Explanation: Increasing supply will lead to more
making policies and providing working atmosphere production and not failure.
for the software development, so in turn these 4. What are attributes of good software ?
companies become a part of software development a) Software maintainability.
process.Bugs from developers side is no new thing. b) Software functionality.
Thus option c answers the question. c) Software development.
10. Company has latest computers and state-of the- d) a and b.
art software tools, so we shouldn’t worry about the e) a,b and c.
quality of the product.
a) True Answer:d
b) False Explanation: Good software should deliver the
required functinality, maintainability. Software
Answer:b development is not an attribute but a fundamental.
Explanation: The infrastructure is only one of the 5. Which of these software engineering activities are
several factors that determine the quality of the not a part of software processes ?
product. a) Software dependence.
- Software Engineering Ethics - 2 - b) Software development.
“Software Engineering Ethics – 2”. c) Software validation.
1. Which of these are not among the eight principles d) Software specification.
followed by Software Engineering Code of Ethics
and Professional Practice ? Answer:a
a) PUBLIC Explanation: Software dependence is an attribute
b) PROFESSION and not an engineering activity for process.
c) PRODUCT 6. Which of these is incorrect ?
d) ENVIRONMENT a) Software engineering belongs to Computer
science.
b) Software engineering is a part of more general
form of System Engineering. c) Web brings concept of software as service.
c) Computer science belongs to Software d) Web based system should be developed and
engineering. delivered incrementally.
d) Software engineering is concerned with the
practicalities of developing and delivering useful Answer:b
software. Explanation: Web based systems has led to
important advances in programming languages.
Answer:c - Software Life Cycle Models -
Explanation: Software engineering is a vast sub “Software Life Cycle Models”.
domain which comes under computer science which 1. Build & Fix Model is suitable for programming
is main domain. exercises of ___________ LOC (Line of Code).
7. Which of these is true ? a) 100-200
a) Generic products and customized products are b) 200-400
types of software products. c) 400-1000
b) Generic products are produces by organization d) above 1000
and sold to open market.
c) Customized products are comissioned by Answer:a
particular customer. Explanation: Build & Fix Model is suitable for small
d) All of the above. projects & programming exercises of 100 or 200
lines.
Answer:d 2. RAD stands for
Explanation: All of them are true. a) Relative Application Development
8. Which of these does not affect different types of b) Rapid Application Development
software as a whole? c) Rapid Application Document
a) Heterogeneity
b) Flexibility Answer:b
c) Business and social change Explanation: None.
d) Security 3. Which one of the following models is not suitable
for accommodating any change?
Answer:b a) Build & Fix Model
Explanation:Option b & c are a part of Software b) Prototyping Model
Engineering as a subject,hence option a covers them c) RAD Model
both. d) Waterfall Model
9. The fundamental notions of software engineering
does not account for ? Answer:d
a) Software processes Explanation: Real projects rarely follow the
b) Software Security sequential flow that the Waterfall Model proposes.
c) Software reuse 4. Which is not one of the types of prototype of
d) Software Validation Prototyping Model?
a) Horizontal Prototype
Answer:d b) Vertical Prototype
Explanation:Software validation is an activity for c) Diagonal Prototype
software process and not the fundamental for d) Domain Prototype
engineering.
10. Which of these is not true ? Answer:c
a) Web has led to availability of software services Explanation: Their is no such thing as Diagonal
and possibility of developing highly distributed Prototype whereas other options have their
service based systems. respective definitions.
b) Web based systems have led to degradance of 5. Which one of the following is not a phase of
programming languages. Prototyping Model?
a) Quick Design 10. Which model can be selected if user is involved
b) Coding in all the phases of SDLC?
c) Prototype Refinement a) Waterfall Model
d) Engineer Product b) Prototyping Model
c) RAD Model
Answer:b d) both b & c
Explanation: A prototyping model generates only a
working model of a system. Answer:c
6. Which of the following statements regarding Explanation: None.
Build & Fix Model is wrong? .
a) No room for structured design
b) Code soon becomes unfix-able & unchangeable - Evolutionary Software Process Models -
c) Maintenance is practically not possible “Evolutionary Software Process Models”
d) It scales up well to large projects 1. Which one of the following is not an Evolutionary
Process Model?
Answer:d a) WINWIN Spiral Model
Explanation: Build & Fix Model is suitable for 100- b) Incremental Model
200 LOC c) Concurrent Development Model
7. RAD Model has d) Spiral Model
a) 2 phases e) All are Evolutionary Software Models
b) 3 phase
c) 5 phases Answer:e
d) 6 phases Explanation: None.
2. The Incremental Model is a result of combination
Answer:c of elements of which two models?
Explanation: RAD Model consists of five phases a) Build & FIX Model & Waterfall Model
namely:Business modeling,Data modeling,Process b) Linear Model & RAD Model
modeling,Application generation and Testing & c) Linear Model & Prototyping Model
Turnover. d) Waterfall Model & RAD Model
8. What is the major drawback of using RAD
Model? Answer:c
a) Highly specialized & skilled developers/designers Explanation: Each linear sequence produces a
are required. deliverable “increment” of the software and
b) Increases re-usability of components. particularly when we have to quickly deliver a
c) Encourages customer/client feedback. limited functionality system.
d) Both a & c. 3. What is the major advantage of using Incremental
Model?
Answer:d a) Customer can respond to each increment
Explanation: The client may create an unrealistic b) Easier to test and debug
product vision leading a team to over or under- c) It is used when there is a need to get a product to
develop functionality.Also, the specialized & skilled the market early
developers are not easily available. d) Both b & c
9. SDLC stands for
a) Software Development Life Cycle Answer:d
b) System Development Life cycle Explanation: Incremental Model is generally easier
c) Software Design Life Cycle to test and debug than other methods of software
d) System Design Life Cycle development because relatively smaller changes are
made during each iteration and is popular
Answer:a particularly when we have to quickly deliver a
Explanation: None. limited functionality system.However, option “a”
can be seen in other models as well like RAD b) False
model,hence option “d” answers the question.
4. The spiral model was originally proposed by Answer:b
a) IBM Explanation: None.
b) Barry Boehm 9. How is Incremental Model different from Spiral
c) Pressman Model?
d) Royce a) Progress can be measured for Incremental Model.
b) Changing requirements can be accommodated in
Answer:b Incremental Model.
Explanation: None. c) Users can see the system early in Incremental
5. The spiral model has two dimensions namely Model.
_____________ and ____________.
a) diagonal, angular Answer:a
b) radial, perpendicular Explanation: None.
c) radial, angular 10. If you were to create client/server applications,
d) diagonal, perpendicular which model would you go for?
a) WINWIN Spiral Model
Answer:c b) Spiral Model
Explanation: The radial dimension of the model c) Concurrent Model
represents the cumulative costs and the angular d) Incremental Model
dimension represents the progress made in
completing each cycle. Each loop of the spiral from Answer:c
X-axis clockwise through 360o represents one phase. Explanation: When applied to client/server
6. How is WINWIN Spiral Model different from applications, the concurrent process model defines
Spiral Model? activities in two dimensions: a system dimension
a) It defines tasks required to define resources, and a component dimension.Thus Concurrency is
timelines, and other project related information. achieved by system and component activities
b) It defines a set of negotiation activities at the occurring simultaneously and can be modeled using
beginning of each pass around the spiral. the state-oriented approach.
c) It defines tasks required to assess both technical .
and management risks.
d) It defines tasks required to construct, test, install, - Selection of a Life Cycle Model -
and provide user support. “Selection of a Life Cycle Model”.
1. Selection of a model is based on
Answer:b a) Requirements
Explanation: Except option “b” all other b) Development team
tasks/activities are present in Spiral Model as well. c) Users
7. Identify the disadvantage of Spiral Model. d) Project type and associated risk
a) Doesn’t work well for smaller projects e) All of the mentioned
b) High amount of risk analysis
c) Strong approval and documentation control Answer:e
d) Additional Functionality can be added at a later Explanation: Each model has to have some
date requirements, a team of developers, users and the
risk involved in developing a project.
Answer:a 2. Which two models doesn’t allow defining
Explanation: All other options are the advantages of requirements early in the cycle?
Spiral Model. a) Waterfall & RAD
8. Spiral Model has user involvement in all its b) Prototyping & Spiral
phases. c) Prototyping & RAD
a) True
d) Waterfall & Spiral presence/involvement every time a new prototype is
build or designed.
Answer:b 6. A company is developing an advance version of
Explanation: Prototyping Model starts with a their current software available in the market, what
requirements analysis phase including techniques model approach would they prefer ?
like FAST, QFD, Brainstorming.In case of Spiral a) RAD
model the first phase involves activities related to b) Iterative Enhancement
customer communication like determining c) Both a & b
objectives. d) Spiral
3. Which of the following life cycle model can be
chosen if the development team has less experience Answer:c
on similar projects? Explanation: None.
a) Spiral 7. One can choose Waterfall Model if the project
b) Waterfall development schedule is tight.
c) RAD a) True
d) Iterative Enhancement Model b) False

Answer:a Answer:b
Explanation: Relying on risk assessment/analysis Explanation: Real projects rarely follow the
provides more flexibility than required for many sequential flow and iterations in this model are
applications which overcomes the criteria of less handled indirectly. Thus changes can cause
experienced developers. confusion as the project proceeds thereby delaying
4. If you were a lead developer of a software the delivery date.
company and you are asked to submit a 8. Choose the correct option from given below:
project/product within a stipulated time-frame with a) Prototyping Model facilitates re-usability of
no cost barriers, which model would you select? components
a) Waterfall b) RAD Model Model facilitates re-usability of
b) Spiral components
c) RAD c) Both RAD & Prototyping Model facilitates re-
d) Incremental usability of components
d) none
Answer:c
Explanation: RAD model is inapplicable to develop Answer:c
cheaper products/software/projects as the cost of Explanation: None.
modeling, hiring highly skilled developers/designers 9. Spiral Model has high reliability requirements.
and automated code generation is very high.But here a) True
the cost is not an issue, so one can select this model b) False
as it reduces development time.
5. Which two of the following models will not be Answer:a
able to give the desired outcome if user’s Explanation: None.
participation is not involved? 10. RAD Model has high reliability requirements.
a) Waterfall & Spiral a) True
b) RAD & Spiral b) False
c) RAD & Waterfall
d) RAD & Prototyping Answer:b
Explanation: None.
Answer:d .
Explanation: Active Participation of user is involved
in all the four phases of RAD model and in case of - Fourth Generation Techniques -
the Prototyping model we need user’s “Fourth Generation Techniques”.
1. Identify a fourth generation language(4GL) from an automatically generated source code based on
the given below. these specifications.
a) FORTRAN 5. Which of the following is not a type of a 4GL?
b) COBOL One originating _______________.
c) Unix shell a) on Lisp machine
d) C++ b) on report generators
c) from database query languages
Answer:c d) from GUI creators
Explanation: Rest all are third generation
languages(3GL). Answer:a
2. Arrange the following activities for making a Explanation: Fifth-generation programming
software product using 4GT. language are built on LISP.
i. Design strategy 6. In 4GT, we can specify the user requirements in
ii. Transformation into product graphic notation or small abbreviated language
iii. Implementation form.
iv. Requirement gathering a) True
a) 1, 4, 3, 2 b) False
b) 4, 3, 1, 2
c) 4, 1, 3, 2 Answer:a
d) 1, 3, 4, 2 Explanation: None.
7. Productivity of software engineers is reduced in
Answer:c using a 4GT.
Explanation: The sequence of activities mentioned a) True
in option c represents the Fourth Generation b) False
Techniques(4GT)Model.
3. 4GL is an example of ______________ Answer:b
processing. Explanation: 4GLs are more programmer-friendly
a) White Box and enhance programming efficiency with usage of
b) Black Box English-like words and phrases, thereby increasing
c) Functional the productivity of professionals able to engage in
d) Both a & b software development.
e) Both b & c 8. Which of the following 4GLs invented at IBM
and subsequently adopted by ANSI and ISO as the
Answer:e standard language for managing structured data?
Explanation: Functional processing/testing is also a) SQL
referred to as black box testing in which contents of b) PROLOG
the black box are not known.Almost anything might c) C
be referred to as a black box:an algorithm or the d) JAVA
human mind.Functionality of the black box is
understood in terms of its inputs and outputs. Answer:a
4. The 4GT Model is a package of Explanation: C & JAVA are third generation
__________________. languages(3GLs) wheras PROLOG is a 5GL.
a) CASE Tools 9. What is a major advantage of using a 4GT Model
b) Software tools for producing small scale products,
c) Software Programs applications or programs ?
a) Improved productivity of software engineers.
Answer:b b) Reduction in software development time.
Explanation: 4GT encompasses a broad array of c) 4GT helped by CASE tools and code generators
software tools enabling the software engineer to offers a credible solution to many software
specify the characteristics at a high level leading to
problems. maintenance costs may be several times
development costs.
Answer:b 4. Which one of the following is not an application
Explanation: Since automated coding is done using of embedded software product?
CASE tools & code generators proponents claim a a) key pad control of a security system
dramatic reduction in software development time. b) pattern recognition game playing
10. Which of the following model has a major c) digital function of dashboard display in a car
disadvantage in terms of the coding phase of a
software life cycle model ? Answer:b
a) Spiral Model Explanation: Pattern recognition uses Artificial
b) Waterfall Model Intelligence (AI) software.
c) Rad Model 5. Purpose of process is to deliver software
d) 4GT Model a) in time
b) with acceptable quality
Answer:d c) that is cost efficient
Explanation: Since coding phase is eliminated in d) both a & b
4GT Model,more expertise is required for
analysis,design and testing activities. Answer:d
. Explanation: Cost of a software is a management
issue & is not related to process activities.
- Software Process and Product - 1 - 6. The work associated with software engineering
“Software Process and Product – 1”. can be categorized into three generic
1. Which one of the following is not a software phases,regardless of application area, project size, or
process quality? complexity namely the__________ phase which
a) Productivity focuses on what, the_________ phase which focuses
b) Portability on how and the_________ phase which focuses on
c) Timeliness change.
d) Visibility i. support
ii. development
Answer:b iii. definition
Explanation: Portability is a software product quality a) 1, 2, 3
which means software can run on different harware b) 2, 1, 3
platforms or software environments. c) 3, 2, 1
2. _____________&_____________ are two kinds d) 3, 1, 2
of software products.
a) CAD, CAM Answer:c
b) Firmware, Embedded Explanation: None.
c) Generic, Customised 7. Which of the following activities of a Generic
Process framework provides a feedback report?
Answer:c a) Communication
Explanation: rest all are sub categories/applications b) Planning
of option c. c) Modeling & Construction
3. Software costs more to maintain than it does to d) Deployment
develop.
a) True Answer:d
b) False Explanation: In Deployment the product is delivered
to the customer who evaluates the product and
Answer:a provides feedback based on the evaluation.
Explanation: For systems with a long life, 8. Process adopted for one project is same as the
process adopted from another project.
a) True d) reliability
b) False
Answer:c
Answer:b Explanation: rest all are external qualities which are
Explanation: the overall flow of activities, visible to the user.
actions,tasks,the level of autonomy given to the 3. RUP stands for____________ created by a
software team and the inter dependencies among division of ____________.
two process can never be the same. a) Rational Unified Program, IBM
9. Which one of the following is not an Umbrella b) Rational Unified Process, Infosys
Activity that complements the five process c) Rational Unified Process, Microsoft
framework activities and help team manage and d) Rational Unified Process, IBM
control progress, quality, change, and risk.
a) Re-usability management Answer:d
b) Risk management Explanation: None.
c) Measurement 4. The RUP is normally described from three
d) User Reviews perspectives-dynamic, static & practice.What does
e) Software quality assurance static perspective do ?
a) It shows the process activities that are enacted.
Answer:d b) It suggests good practices to be used during the
Explanation: None. process.
10. Four types of change are encountered during the c) It shows the phases of the model over time.
support phase.Which one of the following is not one
that falls into such category? Answer:a
a) Translation Explanation: None.
b) Correction 5. The only deliverable work product for a
c) Adaptation successful project is the working program.
d) Prevention a) True
b) False
Answer:a
Explanation: Translation is done in the development Answer:b
phase. Explanation: A working program is only one part of
. a software configuration that includes many
elements. Documentation provides a foundation for
- Software Process and Product - 2 - successful engineering and, more important,
“Software Process and Product – 2”. guidance for software support.
1. If a software production gets behind schedule, one 6. Which phase of the RUP is used to establish a
can add more programmers and catch up. business case for the system ?
a) True a) Transition
b) False b) Elaboration
c) Construction
Answer:b d) Inception
Explanation: As new people are added, people who
were working must spend time educating the Answer:d
newcomers, thereby reducing the amount of time Explanation: None.
spent on productive development effort. 7. Which one of the following is not a fundamental
2. Choose an internal software quality from given activity for software processes in software
below: engineering ?
a) scalability a) Software Verification
b) usability b) Software Validation
c) reusability c) Software design and implementation
d) Software evolution - Agile Software Development -
e) Software specification “Agile Software Development”.
1. Select the option that suits the Manifesto for Agile
Answer:a Software Development
Explanation: Software Verification is accounted for a) Individuals and interactions
in implementation & testing activity. b) Working software
8. A general statement of objectives is the major c) Customer collaboration
cause of failed software efforts. d) Responding to change
a) True e) All of the mentioned
b) False
Answer:e
Answer:a Explanation: None.
Explanation: A formal and detailed description of 2. Agile Software Development is based on
the information domain, function, behavior, a) Incremental Development
performance, interfaces, design constraints and b) Iterative Development
validation criteria is essential which can be c) Linear Development
determined only after thorough communication d) Waterfall Model
between customer and developer. e) Both a and b
9. The longer a fault exists in software
a) the more tedious its removal becomes Answer:e
b) the more costly it is to detect and correct Explanation: The software is developed in
c) the less likely it is to be properly corrected increments with the customer specifying the
d) All of the mentioned requirements to be included in each increment and
the highest priority is to satisfy the customer through
Answer:d early and continuous delivery of valuable software.
Explanation: None. 3. Which on of the following is not an agile method?
10. Component-based Software Engineering allows a) XP
faster delivery. b) 4GT
a) True c) AUP
b) False
Answer:b
Answer:a Explanation: The 4GT approach does not
Explanation: Due to using previously tested incorporate iteration and the continuous
components they produce more reliable system at a feedback,which is the fundamental aspect of an agile
faster rate. method.
11. Arrange the following steps to form a 4. Agility is defined as the ability of a project team
basic/general Engineering Process Model. to respond rapidly to a change.
i. Test a) True
ii. Design b) False
iii. Install
iv. Specification Answer:b
v. Manufacture Explanation: The aim of agile methods is to reduce
vi. Maintain overheads in the software process and to be able to
a) 2, 4, 5, 1, 6, 3 respond quickly to changing requirements without
b) 4, 2, 5, 1, 3, 6 excessive rework.
c) 2, 4, 5, 1, 3, 6 5. How is plan driven development different from
d) 4, 2, 5, 1, 6, 3 agile development ?
a) Outputs are decided through a process of
Answer:b negotiation during the software development
Explanation: None. process.
b) Specification, design, implementation and testing b) False
are interleaved
c) Iteration occurs within activities Answer:a
Explanation: None.
Answer:c - Extreme Programming -
Explanation: A plan-driven approach to software “Extreme Programming”.
engineering is based around separate development 1. Incremental development in Extreme
stages with the outputs to be produced at each of Programming (XP) is supported through a system
these stages planned in advance. release once every month.
6. How many phases are there in Scrum ? a) True
a) Two b) False
b) Three
c) Four Answer:b
d) Scrum is an agile method which means it does not Explanation: Incremental development is supported
have phases. through small, frequent system releases.
2. In XP, as soon as the work on a task is complete,
Answer:b it is integrated into the whole system.
Explanation: There are three phases in Scrum.The a) True
initial phase is an outline planning phase followed b) False
by a series of sprint cycles and project closure phase.
7. Agile methods seem to work best when team Answer:a
members have a relatively high skill level. Explanation: XP follows a continuous integration
a) True approach.After any such integration, all the unit tests
b) False in the system must pass.
3. In XP Increments are delivered to customers
Answer:a every _______ weeks.
Explanation: None. a) One
8. Which of the following does not apply to agility b) Two
to a software process? c) Three
a) Uses incremental product delivery strategy d) Four
b) Only essential work products are produced
c) Eliminate the use of project planning and testing Answer:b
Explanation: Extreme Programming (XP) takes an
Answer:c ‘extreme’ approach to iterative development.New
Explanation: Testing is a major part of each software versions may be built several times per day, hence
development process which cant be avoided. delivering the increment for approval every 2nd
9. Which three framework activities are present in week after testing the new version.
Adaptive Software Development(ASD) ? 4. User requirements are expressed as __________
a) analysis, design, coding in Extreme Programming.
b) requirements gathering, adaptive cycle planning, a) implementation tasks
iterative development b) functionalities
c) speculation, collaboration, learning c) scenarios

Answer:c Answer:c
Explanation: None. Explanation: User requirements are expressed as
10. In agile development it is more important to scenarios or user stories.These are written on cards
build software that meets the customers’ needs today and the development team break them down into
than worry about features that might be needed in implementation tasks. These tasks are the basis of
the future. schedule and cost estimates.
a) True
5. Is a customer involved test development and a) True
validation in XP ? b) False
a) Yes
b) No Answer:b
c) It may vary from Customer to Customer Explanation: XP follows the principle of pair
programming which means developers work in
Answer:c pairs, checking each other’s work and providing the
Explanation: The role of the customer in the testing support to always do a good job.
process is to help develop acceptance tests for the 10. Which four framework activities are found in the
stories that are to be implemented in the next release Extreme Programming(XP) ?
of the system.However, people adopting the a) analysis, design, coding, testing
customer role have limited time available and so b) planning, analysis, design, coding
cannot work full-time with the development team. c) planning, design, coding, testing
They may feel that providing the requirements was d) planning, analysis, coding, testing
enough of a contribution and so may be reluctant to
get involved in the testing process. Answer:c
6. Programmers prefer programming to testing and Explanation: XP involves the mentioned four
sometimes they take short cuts when writing tests. activities, and in the same in order.
For example, they may write incomplete tests that .
do not check for all possible exceptions that may – Requirement Engineering
occur. “Requirement Engineering”.
a) True 1. What are the types of requirements ?
b) False a) Availability
b) Reliability
Answer:a c) Usability
Explanation: In XP Some tests can be very difficult d) Flexibility
to write incrementally.For example, in a complex e) All of the mentioned
user interface, it is often difficult to write unit tests
for the code that implements the ‘display logic’ and Answer:e
workflow between screens. Explanation: All the mentioned traits are beneficial
7. Tests are automated in Extreme Programming. for an effective product to be developed.
a) True 2. Select the developer specific requirement ?
b) False a) Potability
b) Maintainability
Answer:a c) Availability
Explanation: Automated test harnesses are used to d) Both a and b
run all component tests each time that a new release
is built. Answer:d
8. In XP an automated unit test framework is used to Explanation: Availability is user specific
write tests for a new piece of functionality before requirement.
that functionality itself is implemented. 3. Which one of the following is not a step of
a) True requirement engineering?
b) False a) elicitation
b) design
Answer:a c) analysis
Explanation: XP follows Test-first development d) documentation
approach.
9. Developers work individually on a release and Answer:b
they compare their results with other developers Explanation: Requirement Elicitation, Requirement
before forwarding that release to customers. Analysis, Requirement Documentation and
Requirement Review are the four crucial process affected as a result of project execution or project
steps of requirement engineering.Design is in itself a completion.
different phase of Software Engineering. 9. Conflicting requirements are common in
4. FAST stands for Requirement Engineering, with each client
a) Functional Application Specification Technique proposing his or her version is the right one.
b) Fast Application Specification Technique a) True
c) Facilitated Application Specification Technique b) False
d) None of the mentioned
Answer:a
Answer:c Explanation: This situation is seen in every field of
Explanation: None. work as each professional has his/her way of looking
5. QFD stands for onto things & would argue to get his/her point
a) quality function design approved.
b) quality function development 10. Which is one of the most important stakeholder
c) quality function deployment from the following ?
d) none of the mentioned a) Entry level personnel
b) Middle level stakeholder
Answer:c c) Managers
Explanation: None. d) Users of the software
6. A Use-case actor is always a person having a role
that different people may play. Answer:d
a) True Explanation: Users are always the most important
b) False stakeholders.After all, without users or customers,
what’s the point of being in business?.
Answer:b
Explanation: Use-case Actor is anything that needs - Functional and Non-Functional Requirements -
to interact with the system, be it a person or another “Functional and Non-Functional Requirements”.
(external) system. 1. Which one of the following is a functional
7. The user system requirements are the parts of requirement ?
which document ? a) Maintainability
a) SDD b) Portability
b) SRS c) Robustness
c) DDD d) Testability
e) None of the mentioned
Answer:b
Explanation: Software requirements specification Answer:e
(SRS), is a complete description of the behaviour of Explanation: All are non-functional requirements
a system to be developed and may include a set of representing quality of the system. Functional
use cases that describe interactions the users will requirements describe what the software has to do.
have with the software. 2. Which one of the following is a requirement that
8. A stakeholder is anyone who will purchase the fits in a developer’s module ?
completed software system under development. a) Availability
a) True b) Testability
b) False c) Usability
d) Flexibility
Answer:b
Explanation: Stakeholders are anyone who has an Answer:b
interest in the project. Project stakeholders are Explanation: A developer needs to test his product
individuals and organizations that are actively before launching it into the market.
involved in the project, or whose interests may be
3. “Consider a system where, a heat sensor detects Answer:c
an intrusion and alerts the security company.” What Explanation: Quantitative Approaches in NFRs are
kind of a requirement the system is providing ? used to find measurable scales for the quality
a) Functional attributes like efficiency, flexibility, integrity,
b) Non-Functional usability etc.
c) Known Requirement 7. How many classification schemes have been
developed for NFRs ?
Answer:a a) Two
Explanation: Functional requirements describe what b) Three
the software has to do. c) Four
4. Which of the following statements explains d) Five
portabililty in non-functional requirements?
a) It is a degree to which software running on one Answer:d
platform can easily be converted to run on another Explanation: Software Quality Tree [Boehm 1976],
platform. Roman [IEEE Computer 1985], Process-Product-
b) It can be enhanced by using languages, OS’ and External considerations [Sommerville 1992], Mc
tools that are universally available and standardized. Call’s NFR list and Dimensions of Quality–
c) The ability of the system to behave consistently in Components of FURPS+ are the five classification
a user-acceptable manner when operating within the schemes for NFRs.
environment for which the system was intended. .
d) Both a and b 8. According to components of FURPS+, which of
e) It refers to the level at which a software system the following does not belong to S ?
uses scarce computational resources, such as CPU a) Testability
cycles, memory, disk space, buffers and b) Speed Efficiency
communication channels. c) Serviceability
d) Installability
Answer:d
Explanation: Option c is termed as reliability and Answer:b
option e refers to efficiency. Explanation: Speed Efficiency belong to
5. Functional requirements capture the intended Performance (P) in FURPS+ .
behavior of the system. 9. Does software wear & tear by decomposition ?
a) True a) Yes
b) False b) No

Answer:a Answer:b
Explanation: The behavior of functional Explanation: Unlike hardware, software is reliable.
requirements may be expressed as services, tasks or 10. What are the four dimensions of Dependability ?
functions the system is required to perform. a) Usability, Reliability, Security, Flexibility
6. Choose the incorrect statement with respect to b) Availability, Reliability, Maintainability, Security
Non-Functional Requirement(NFR). c) Availability, Reliability, Security, Safety
a) Product-oriented Approach – Focus on system (or d) Security, Safety, Testability, Usability
software) quality
b) Process-oriented Approach – Focus on how NFRs Answer:c
can be used in the design process Explanation: All the traits of option c sync with
c) Quantitative Approach – Find measurable scales dependability.
for the functionality attributes 11. Choose the correct statement on how NFRs
d) Qualitative Approach – Study various integrates with Rational Unified Process ?
relationships between quality goals a) System responds within 4 seconds on average to
local user requests and changes in the environment.
b) System responds within 4 seconds on average to
remote user requests and changes in the requirements and finally to consolidate or bind
environment. together the information collected.
4. What are the types of requirement in Quality
Answer:b Function Deployment(QFD) ?
Explanation: System response to a local user is 2 a) Known, Unknown, Undreamed
seconds on average. b) User, Developer
. c) Functional, Non-Functional
d) Normal, Expected, Exciting
- Requirement Elicitation -
“Requirement Elicitation”. Answer:d
1. What is the first step of requirement elicitation ? Explanation: According to QFD, Normal, Expected
a) Identifying Stakeholder and Exciting requirements maximizes customer
b) Listing out Requirements satisfaction from the Software Engineering Process.
c) Requirements Gathering 5. What kind of approach was introduced for
elicitation and modelling to give a functional view
Answer:a of the system ?
Explanation: Stakeholders are the one who will a) Object Oriented Design (by Booch)
invest in and use the product, so its essential to chalk b) Use Cases (by Jacobson)
out stake holders first. c) Fusion (by Coleman)
2. Starting from least to most important, choose the d) Object Modeling Technique (by Rambaugh)
order of stakeholder.
i. Managers Answer:b
ii. Entry level Personnel Explanation: Use Case captures who does what with
iii. Users the system, for what purpose, without dealing with
iv. Middle level stakeholder system internals.
a) i, ii, iv, iii 6. What are the kinds of actors used in OOSE ?
b) i, ii, iii, iv a) Primary
c) ii, iv, i, iii b) Secondary
c) Ternary
Answer:c d) Both a and b
Explanation: Users are your customers, they will be
using your product, thus making them most Answer:d
important of all. Explanation: A primary actor is one having a goal
3. Arrange the tasks involved in requirements requiring the assistance of the system whereas, a
elicitation in an appropriate manner. secondary actor is one from which system needs
i. Consolidation assistance.There is no such thing as ternary actor in
ii. Prioritization Software Engineering.
iii. Requirements Gathering 7. Why is Requirements Elicitation a difficult task ?
iv. Evaluation a) Problem of scope
a) iii, i, ii, iv b) Problem of understanding
b) iii, iv, ii, i c) Problem of volatility
c) iii, ii, iv, i d) All of the mentioned
d) ii, iii, iv, i
Answer:d
Answer:b Explanation: Users specify unnecessary technical
Explanation: Requirements gathering captures detail that may confuse, rather than clarify overall
viewpoint from different users followed by system objectives.Also, the customers/users are not
evaluation of those view points.Now comes the task completely sure of what is needed, have a poor
of checking the relative importance of the understanding of the capabilities and limitations of
their computing environment and they do not Expression(CORE) says that any system can be
understand that the requirements change over time. viewed from a number of view points and that a
8. What requirement gathering method developed at complete picture of system requirements can only
IBM in 1970s is used for managing requirement emerge by putting together the various viewpoints.
elicitation ? 2. ___________ and ____________ are the two
a) JAD view points discussed in Controlled Requirements
b) Traceablity Expression (CORE).
c) FAST a) Functional, Non-Functional
d) Both a and b b) User, Developer
c) Known, Unknown
Answer:d
Explanation: Joint application design (JAD) is a Answer:a
process used to collect business requirements while Explanation: The CORE sessions includes the
developing new information systems for a discussion of functional and non-functional
company.Requirements traceability is concerned requirements.
with documenting the life of a requirement and 3. What is the major drawback of CORE ?
providing bi-directional traceability between various a) Requirements are comprehensive
associated requirements. b) NFRs are not given enough importance
9. Requirements elicitation is a cyclic process c) Role of analyst is passive
a) True
b) False Answer:c
Explanation: In CORE the requirement specification
Answer:a are put together by all users, customers and analysts,
Explanation: Requirements traceability provides bi- so a passive analyst will not get the requirements
directional traceability between various associated properly.
requirements. 4. Choose a framework that corresponds to Issue
10. How many Scenarios are there in elicitation Based Information System (IBIS).
activities ? a) Idea -> Question -> Argument
a) One b) Question -> Idea -> Argument
b) Two c) Issue -> Position -> Justification
c) Three d) Both b and c
d) Four e) Both a and c

Answer:d Answer:d
Explanation: As-is Scenario, Visionary Scenario, Explanation: IBIS is a simple and non-intrusive
Evaluation Scenario and Training Scenario are the method that provides a framework for resolving
four scenarios in requirement elicitation activities. issues and gathering requirements.
. 5. How is CORE different from IBIS ?
a) Iterative in nature
- Requirement Elicitation Techniques -1 - b) Redundancies are removed
“Requirement Elicitation Techniques-1”. c) It is simple and an easier method to use
1. Which of the following elicitation techniques is a d) Consistency problems are addressed in CORE
view-point based method ?
a) FODA Answer:d
b) QFD Explanation: Preliminary data collection is done in
c) CORE CORE to get some broad level data on each view
d) IBIS point to structure the view point and to check
consistency from within and outside the viewpoints.
Answer:c 6. Which of the following Requirement Elicitation
Explanation: Controlled Requirements Techniques removes the poor understanding of
application domain and lack of common Answer:d
terminology between the users and the analysts ? Explanation: Unified Modeling Language (UML)
a) FODA diagrams are constructed during the design phase of
b) CORE the SDLC.
c) IBIS .
d) Prototyping
- Requirement Elicitation Techniques - 2 -
Answer:a “Requirement Elicitation Techniques-2”.
Explanation: Feature Oriented Domain Analysis 1. How is brainstorming different from JAD ?
(FODA) is defined as the process of identifying, Brainstorming sessions
collecting, organizing and representing relevant a) last for about 2-3 hours
information in a domain . b) last for about 2-3 days
7. How many steps are involved in Feature Oriented c) cover the technology used for the development
Domain Analysis (FODA) ?
a) Two Answer:a
b) Three Explanation: Brainstorming is a group or individual
c) Four creativity technique by which efforts are made to
d) Five find a conclusion for a specific problem by gathering
a list of ideas spontaneously contributed by its
Answer:b member(s).The idea is to quickly reach to an
Explanation: Context Analysis, Domain Modeling approved solution ASAP.
and Architecture Modeling are the three steps 2. How is throwaway prototype different from
involved in Feature Oriented Domain Analysis evolutionary prototype ?
(FODA). a) It involves successive steps.
8. IBIS is a more structured approach than CORE. b) It involves just one task.
a) True c) The prototype is built with the idea that it will
b) False eventually be converted into final system.
d) It has a shorter development time.
Answer:a
Explanation: IBIS is a more structured approach as it Answer:b
captures information which is consistent and Explanation: Except option b all other options
important.On the other hand CORE gives represent the characteristics of an evolutionary
importance to every view point even if it is obsolete. prototype.
9. Which one of the following is not an actor in JAD 3. Keeping the requirements of QFD in mind which
sessions ? of the following is not an example of an Expected
a) User Requirement ?
b) Tester a) Ease of software installation
c) Scribe b) Overalll operational correctness and reliability
d) Sponsor c) Specific system functions
d) Quality graphical display
Answer:b
Explanation: A Tester’s role is seen in after coding Answer:c
phase rather than in elicitation phase. Explanation: Expected requirements are so
10. What of the following is not an output of a JAD fundamental that a customer does not explicitly state
session ? them.System functions comes under the category of
a) Context Diagrams Normal requirements in QFD which is compulsory
b) DFDs to be defined,hence is not an expected requirement.
c) ER model 4. QFD works best if it has management
d) UML diagrams commitment.
a) True
b) False Answer:b
Explanation: SSM is still in its infancy.It is evolving
Answer:a and its industrial usage is low.
Explanation: QFD involves heavy investment in 8. How many phases are there in Brainstorming ?
initial stages, thus bounding the management to a) Two
provide appropriate funding for the development b) Three
process . c) Four
5. Which of the following Requirement Elicitation
Techniques is applicable to messy, changing and ill- Answer:b
defined problem situations ? Explanation: Preparation, Execution and Follow up
a) Quality Function Deployment (QFD) are the three phases to be achieved for a successful
b) Prototyping brainstorming session.
c) Soft Systems Methodology (SSM) 9. Who controls the FAST (Facilitated Application
d) Controlled Requirements Expression (CORE) Specification Techniques) meeting ?
a) System Analyst
Answer:c b) Scribe
Explanation: Soft systems methodology (SSM) is a c) Facilitator
systemic approach for tackling real-world d) Manager
problematic situations.It is a common
misunderstanding that SSM is a methodology for Answer:c
dealing solely with ‘soft problems’ (problems which Explanation: A Facilitator (a customer/developer/an
involve psychological, social, and cultural outsider) controls the FAST meeting.His role is to
elements). SSM does not differentiate between ‘soft’ ensure that the meeting is productive.
and ‘hard’ problems, it merely provides a different 10. Arrange the steps in order to represent the
way of dealing with situations perceived as conducting of Wideband Delphi Technique.
problematic. i. Conduct a group discussion
6. To ensure that a given root definition is rigorous ii. Conduct another group discussion
and comprehensive, The Lancaster team proposed iii. Present experts with a problem
several criteria that are summarized in the iv. Collect expert opinion anonymously
mnemonic CATWOE in Soft Systems Methodology v. Iterate until consensus is reached
(SSM).Which of the following alphabet is vi. Feedback a summary of result to each expert
representing an entirely different meaning to SSM ? a) i, iii, ii, iv, v, vi
a) C – Customer b) iii, i, ii, iv, v, vi
b) A – Actor c) i, ii, iii, iv, vi, v
c) T – Tranformation d) iii, i, iv, vi, ii, v
d) W – World view
e) O – Owner Answer:d
f) E – ER Model Explanation: The sequence represents the working
steps of a Wideband Delphi technique .
Answer:f .
Explanation: ‘E’ in CATWOE stands for
Environmental constraints. - Requirement Analysis -
7. Choose the disadvantage of using SSM as an ” Requirement Analysis”.
elicitation technique. 1. Which of the following is not a diagram studied in
a) It incorporates human element into design. Requirement Analysis ?
b) SSM is in its infant stage. a) Use Cases
c) SSM is suitable for new systems. b) Entity Relationship Diagram
d) Standard methodologies like Role Exploration, c) State Transition Diagram
Issue Resolution and Reorganization support SSM. d) Activity Diagram
Answer:d b) Stakeholder, Developer
Explanation: Activity Diagram comes under the c) Functional, Non-Functional
design phase of SDLC.
2. How many feasibility studies is conducted in Answer:b
Requirement Analysis ? Explanation: Option a and c are the types of
a) Two requirements and not the issues of requirement
b) Three analysis..
c) Four 7. The requirements that result from requirements
analysis are typically expressed from one of three
Answer:b perspectives or views.WhaT is that perspective or
Explanation: Economic feasibility (cost/benefit view ?
analysis), Technical feasibility a) Developer
(hardware/software/people, etc.) and Legal b) User
feasibility studies are done in Requirement Analysis. c) Non-Functional
3. How many phases are there in Requirement d) Physical
Analysis ?
a) Three Answer:d
b) Four Explanation: The perspectives or views have been
c) Five described as the Operational, Functional, and
d) Six Physical views.All three are necessary and must be
coordinated to fully understand the customers’ needs
Answer:c and objectives.
Explanation: Problem Recognition, Evaluation and 8. Requirements Analysis is an Iterative Process.
Synthesis (focus is on what not how), Modeling, a) True
Specification and Review are the five phases. b) False
4. Traceability is not considered in Requirement
Analysis. Answer:a
a) True Explanation: Requirements analysis is conducted
b) False iteratively with functional analysis to optimize
performance requirements for identified functions,
Answer:b and to verify that synthesized solutions can satisfy
Explanation: Requirements traceability is concerned customer requirements.
with documenting the life of a requirement and 9. Coad and Yourdon suggested _______ selection
providing bi-directional traceability between various characteristics that should be used as an analyst
associated requirements, hence requirements must considers each potential object for inclusion in the
be traceable. requirement analysis model.
5. Requirements analysis is critical to the success of a) Three
a development project. b) Four
a) True c) Five
b) False d) Six
c) Depends upon the size of project
Answer:d
Answer:a Explanation: Retained information, Needed services,
Explanation: Requirements must be actionable, Multiple attributes, Common attributes, Common
measurable, testable, related to identified business operations and Essential requirements are the six
needs or opportunities, and defined to a level of criterion mentioned by Coad and Yourdon.
detail sufficient for system design. 10. Requirements should specify ‘what’ but not
6. _________ and _________ are the two issues of ‘how’.
Requirement Analysis. a) True
a) Performance, Design
b) False 4. Which of the following statements about SRS
is/are true ?
Answer:a i. SRS is written by customer
Explanation: ‘What’ refers to a system’s purpose, ii. SRS is written by a developer
while ‘How’ refers to a system’s structure and iii. SRS serves as a contract between customer and
behavior. developer
. a) Only i is true
b) Both ii and iii are true
- Requirement Documentation - c) All are true
“Requirement Documentation”.
1. Which of the following property does not Answer: c
correspond to a good Software Requirements Explanation: The SRS acts as a communication
Specification (SRS) ? media between the Customer, Analyst, system
a) Verifiable developers, maintainers etc. Thus it is a contract
b) Ambiguous between Purchaser and Supplier. It is essentially
c) Complete written by a developer on the basis of customer’
d) Traceable need but in some cases it may be written by a
customer as well.
Answer: b 5. The SRS document is also known as
Explanation: The SRS should be unambiguous in _____________ specification.
nature which means each sentence in SRS should a) black-box
have a unique interpretation. b) white-box
2. Which of the following property of SRS is c) grey-box
depicted by the statement : “Conformity to a
standard is maintained” ? Answer: a
a) Correct Explanation: The system is considered as a black
b) Complete box whose internal details are not known that is,
c) Consistent only its visible external (input/output) behavior is
d) Modifiable documented.
6. Which of the following is included in SRS ?
Answer: b a) Cost
Explanation: The SRS is complete full labeling and b) Design Constraints
referencing of all figures, tables etc. and definition c) Staffing
of all terms and units of measure is defined. d) Delivery Schedule
3. The SRS is said to be consistent if and only if
a) its structure and style are such that any changes to Answer: b
the requirements can be made easily while retaining Explanation: Design constraints include standards to
the style and structure. be incorporated in the software, implementation
b) every requirement stated therein is one that the language, resource limits, operating environment
software shall meet etc.
c) every requirement stated therein is verifiable 7. Which of the following is not included in SRS ?
d) no subset of individual requirements described in a) Performance
it conflict with each other b) Functionality
c) Design solutions
Answer: d d) External Interfaces
Explanation: Real world object may conflict with
each other for example one requirement says that all Answer: c
lights should be red while the other states that all Explanation: The SRS document concentrates
lights should green. on:”what needs to be done” and carefully avoids the
solution (“how to do”) aspects.
8. Arrange the given sequence to form a SRS Answer: b
Prototype outline as per IEEE SRS Standard. Explanation: An SRS is verifiable, if and only if,
i. General description every requirement stated therein is verifiable. The
ii. Introduction statement can only be answered on completion of
iii. Index the software and customer evaluation but still human
iv. Appendices interface will vary from person to person.
v. Specific Requirements 12. Narrative essay is one of the best types of
a) iii, i, ii,v, iv specification document ?
b) iii, ii, i, v, iv a) True
c) ii, i, v, iv, iii b) False

Answer: c Answer:b
Explanation: The given sequence correctly resemble Explanation: Narrative essay is one of the worst
a standard SRS prototype as per IEEE. types of specification document as it is difficult to
9. Consider the following Statement: “The output of change, difficult to be precise, has scope for
a program shall be given within 10secs of event X contradictions, etc.
10% of the time.”What characteristic of SRS is .
being depicted here ?
a) Consistent - Requirement Management -
b) Verifiable “Requirement Management”.
c) Non-verifiable 1. Which two requirements are given priority during
d) Correct Requirement Management of a product ?
a) User and Developer
Answer: b b) Functional and Non-functional
Explanation: An SRS is verifiable, if and only if, c) Enduring and Volatile
every requirement stated therein is verifiable.Here
the given condition can be verified during testing Answer: c
phase. Explanation: Enduring requirements are core
10. Consider the following Statement: “The data set requirements & are related to main activity of the
will contain an end of file character.”What organization while volatile requirements are likely to
characteristic of SRS is being depicted here ? change during software development life cycle or
a) Consistent after delivery of the product.
b) Non-verifiable 2. Considering the example of issue/return of a
c) Correct book, cataloging etc. in a library management.What
d) Ambiguous type of management requirement is being depicted
here?
Answer: b a) Enduring
Explanation: An SRS is unambiguous if and only if, b) Volatile
every requirement stated therein has only one unique
interpretation. The given statement does not answer Answer: a
the question: “which data set will have an end of file Explanation: For library management system
character ?”. issue/return of a book, cataloging etc. are core
11. Consider the following Statement: “The product activities and are stable for any system.
should have a good human interface.”What 3. Why is Requirements Management Important ? It
characteristic of SRS is being depicted here ? is due to the changes
a) Consistent a) to the environment
b) Non-Verifiable b) in technology
c) Correct c) in customer’s expectations
d) Ambiguous d) in all of the mentioned.
Answer: d d) RDD 100
Explanation: Systems continue to be built as the
advancement of new products being launched in the Answer: c
market and so does the market changes, the Explanation: Rational Suite is an environment tool
technology and in turn customer’s expectation. for requirement management.
4. Requirements Management is a prerequisite for 8. Which of the following is a requirement
Quality-Oriented Development. management activity ?
a) True a) Investigation
b) False b) Design
c) Construction and Test
Answer: a d) All of the mentioned
Explanation: Quality makes no sense without
reference to requirements, which means quality- Answer: d
oriented development is requirements-driven Explanation: All the options are the activities of
development, thus requirements management is a requirement management.
prerequisite for quality-oriented development. 9. What functionality of Requirement Management
5. Requirements traceability is one of the most Tool (RMT) is depicted by the statement: “the tool
important part requirement management. It may also should be able to automatically detect relations
be referred to as the heart of requirement between artifacts. For example information retrieval
management. techniques, monitoring of change history, naming
a) True schemas or model transformations.”
b) False a) Automatic Link Detection
b) Documentation Support
Answer: a c) Graphical Representation
Explanation: Requirements traceability refers to the d) Automatic Link Creation and Change
ability to describe and follow the life of a
requirement in both forwards and backwards Answer: a
direction. Requirements can be traced from its Explanation: DOORS is one such tool that supports
origins, through its development and specification, Automatic Link Detection.
to its subsequent deployment and use, and through 10. According to a statistical report: “over 30% of
periods of ongoing refinement and iteration in any of all software projects are cancelled before completion
these phases. and over 70% of the remainder fail to deliver
6. Requirements Management has a high initial start- expected features”. What must be the reason for
up cost but does not need ongoing funding such a situation ?
throughout a project. a) Poor change management
a) True b) Poor requirements management
b) False c) Poor quality control
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: Requirements Management needs Answer: b
continued funding throughout a project.Project Explanation: Fundamental to the problem mentioned
funding is often limited at the onset of a project, in the statistical report is poor requirements
restricted to those aspects of the project which are management. Option a and c are its sub parts.
tangible and visible, and subsequently allocated in a .
phase-by-phase manner.
7. Which of the following is not a Requirement - System Modelling - 1 -
Management workbench tool ? by mod2
a) RTM “System Modelling – 1”.
b) DOORS 1. The Unified Modeling Language (UML) has
c) Rational Suite become an effective standard for software
modelling.How many different notaions does it have
?
a) Three
b) Four
c) Six
d) Nine

Answer:d
Explanation: The different notations of UML
includes the nine UML diagrams namely class,
object, sequence, collaboration, activity, state-chart,
component, deployment and use case diagrams.
2. Which model in system modelling depicts the
dynamic behaviour of the system ?
a) Context Model
b) Behavioral Model
c) Data Model
d) Object Model

Answer:b
Explanation: Behavioral models are used to describe
the dynamic behavior of an executing system. This
can be modeled from the perspective of the data
processed by the system or by the events that
stimulate responses from a system.
3. Which model in system modelling depicts the
static nature of the system ?
a) Behavioral Model a) Structural model
b) Context Model b) Context model
c) Data Model c) Behavioral model
d) Structural Model d) Interaction model

Answer:d Answer:b
Explanation: Structural models show the Explanation: Context models are used to illustrate
organization and architecture of a system. These are the operational context of a system.They show what
used to define the static structure of classes in a lies outside the system boundaries.
system and their associations. 6. Activity diagrams are used to model the
4. Which perspective in system modelling shows the processing of data.
system or data architecture. a) True
a) Structural perspective b) False
b) Behavioral perspective
c) External perspective Answer:a
Explanation: The statement mentioned is true and
Answer:a each activity represents one process step.
Explanation: Structural perspective is used to define 7. Model-driven engineering is just a theoretical
the static structure of classes in a system and their concept. It cannot be converted into a
associations. working/executable code.
5. Which system model is being depicted by the a) True
ATM operations shown below: b) False
Answer:b the organization of a system in terms of the
Explanation: Model-driven engineering is an components that make up that system and their
approach to software development in which a relationships.
system is represented as a set of models that can be 4. ______________ & ______________ diagrams
automatically transformed to executable code. of UML represent Interaction modeling.
8. The UML supports event-based modeling using a) Use Case, Sequence
____________ diagrams. b) Class, Object
a) Deployment c) Activity, State Chart
b) Collaboration
c) State chart Answer:a
Explanation: Use case modeling is mostly used to
Answer: model interactions between a system and external
Explanation: State diagrams show system states and actors.Sequence diagrams are used to model
events that cause transitions from one state to interactions between system components, although
another. external agents may also be included.
5. Which level of Entity Relationship Diagram
- System Modelling - 2 - (ERD) models all entities and relationships ?
by mod2 a) Level 1
“System Modelling – 2”. b) Level 2
1. Which of the following diagram is not supported c) Level 3
by UML considering Data-driven modeling ?
a) Activity Answer:b
b) Data Flow Diagram (DFD) Explanation: Level 1 ERD models all data objects
c) State Chart (entities) and their “connections” to one another
d) Component while Level 3 ERD models all entities, relationships,
and the attributes that provide further depth. Thus
Answer:b option b is correct.
Explanation: DFDs focus on system functions and 6. ___________ classes are used to create the
do not recognize system objects. interface that the user sees and interacts with as the
2. _________________ allows us to infer that software is used.
different members of classes have some common a) Controller
characteristics. b) Entity
a) Realization c) Boundary
b) Aggregation d) Business
c) Generalization
d) dependency Answer:c
Explanation: The answer is self-explanatory.
Answer:c 7. Which of the following statement is incorrect
Explanation: Generalization is an everyday regarding the Class-responsibility-collaborator
technique that we use to manage complexity.This (CRC) modeling ?
means that common information will be maintained a) All use-case scenarios (and corresponding use-
in one place only. case diagrams) are organized into categories in CRC
3. One creates Behavioral models of a system when modelling
you are discussing and designing the system b) The review leader reads the use-case deliberately.
architecture. c) Only developers in the review (of the CRC
a) True model) are given a subset of the CRC model index
b) False cards

Answer:b Answer:c
Explanation: Structural models of software display Explanation: All participants in the review (of the
CRC model) are given a subset of the CRC model simultaneously and can be modeled using the state-
index cards. oriented approach.
8. A data object can encapsulates processes and 4. Identify the correct statement with respect to
operation as well. Evolutionary development:
a) True a) Evolutionary development usually has two
b) False flavors; exploratory development, and throw-away
prototyping.
Answer:b b) Very large projects are usually done using
Explanation: A data object encapsulates data only. evolutionary development based approach.
There is no reference within a data object to c) It facilitates easy project management, through
operations that act on the data. the high volume of documentation it generates.
d) Sometimes the construction of a throw-away
- Software Evolution - prototype is not followed by a re- implementation of
“Software Evolution”. the software system using a more structured
1. The two dimensions of spiral model are approach.
a) diagonal, angular
b) radial, perpendicular Answer:a
c) radial, angular Explanation: Evolutionary development usually has
d) diagonal, perpendicular two flavors; exploratory development, and
throw-away prototyping.
Answer:c 5.Spiral model was developed by
Explanation: The radial dimension depicts the a) Victor Bisili
cumulative costs and the angular dimension depicts b) Berry Boehm
the progress made in completing each cycle. Each c) Bev Littlewood
loop of the spiral model represents a phase. d) Roger Pressman
2. The Incremental Model is combination of
elements of Answer:b
a) Build & FIX Model & Waterfall Model Explanation: Berry Boehm in 1986 in his Article “A
b) Linear Model & RAD Model spiral model of software development and
c) Linear Model & Prototyping Model enhancement”.
d) Waterfall Model & RAD Model 6. Software evolution does not comprises:
a) Development activities
Answer:c b) Negotiating with client
Explanation: Each linear sequence produces a c) Maintenance activities
deliverable “increment” of the software system, d) Re-engineering activities
particularly needed in case of quick delivery of a
limited functionality system.. Answer:b
3. Model preferred to create client/server Explanation: Software evolution refers to the study
applications is and management of the process of making changes
a) WINWIN Spiral Model to software over time. Thus it comprises rest three
b) Spiral Model options.
c) Concurrent Model 7. Processes for evolving a software product depend
d) Incremental Model on:
a) Type of software to be maintained.
Answer:c b) Development processes used.
Explanation: In case of client/server applications, c) Skills and experience of the people involved.
the concurrent process model specifies activities in d) All the mentioned
two dimensions: a system dimension and a
component dimension. Hence Concurrency is
achieved by these two activities occurring
Answer:d c) hardware
Explanation: Processes used for software evolution d) all of the mentioned
depend on all these factors.
8. Which technique is applied to ensure the Answer:d
continued evolution of legacy systems ? Explanation: A sociotechnical system is a system
a) Forward engineering that includes people, software, and hardware to
b) Reverse Engineering show that you need to take a systems perspective on
c) Reengineering. security and dependability.
d) b and c 2. Which layer is missing in the sociotechnical
system stack as shown below:
Answer:d
Explanation: Processes used for software evolution
depend rely on these two techniques.
9. Program modularization and Source code
translation are the activities of_____________.
a) Forward engineering
b) Reverse Engineering
c) Reengineering.
d) b and c

Answer:c
Explanation: Reengineering is the examination and
alteration of a subject system to reconstitute it in a
new form and the subsequent implementation of the
new form.
10. Reverse engineering is the last activity in a
reengineering project.
a) organizational layer
a) True
b) application layer
b) False
c) physical layer
d) transport layer
Answer:b
Explanation: Reverse engineering is often the initial
Answer:b
activity in a reengineering project.
Explanation: The application layer This layer
11. The cost of re-engineering is often significantly
delivers the application-specific functionality
less than the costs of developing new software.
that is required.
a) True
3. Consider an example of a system which has a
b) False
police command and control system that may
include a geographical information system to
Answer:a
provide details of the location of incidents. What
Explanation: There is a high risk in new software
kind of system the example represents?
development. There may be development problems,
a) Complex System
staffing problems and specification problems,
b) Technical computer-based system
thereby increasing the cost.
c) Sociotechnical System
d) Both a and c
- Sociotechnical Systems -
by mod2
Answer:d
“Sociotechnical Systems”.
Explanation: Complex systems are usually
1. A sociotechnical system is a system that includes
hierarchical and so include other systems.
a) people
4. Which property of a sociotechnical system varies
b) software
depending on how the component assemblies are
arranged and connected? partly because changes to the hardware, software,
a) security and data in these systems are so frequent
b) usability 9. What are the two ways to view the human error of
c) volume a sociotechnical system?
d) reliability a) hardware and software approach
b) management and users approach
Answer:c c) person and systems approach
Explanation: The volume of a system (the total
space occupied) varies depending on how the Answer:c
component assemblies are arranged and connected. Explanation: The answer is self explanatory.
5. Which property of a sociotechnical system 10. Human and organizational factors such as
depends on the technical system components, its organizational structure and politics have a
operators, and its operating environment? significant effect on the operation of sociotechnical
a) security systems.
b) usability a) True
c) volume b) False
d) reliability
Answer:a
Answer:b Explanation: As people are a part of the system,
Explanation: Usability reflects how easy it is to use hence they affect the sociotechnical system.
the system.
6. In a sociotechnical system, you need to consider - Dependability and Security -
reliability from perspectives namely: by mod2
a) only software reliability “Dependability and Security”.
b) only hardware reliability 1. A characteristic of a software system that can lead
c) hardware and software reliability to a system error is known as?
d) hardware, software and operator reliability a) Human error or mistake
b) System fault
Answer:d c) System error
Explanation: In a sociotechnical system, you need to d) System failure
consider reliability from all three perspectives.
7. There are ________ overlapping stages in the Answer:b
lifetime of large and complex sociotechnical Explanation: The answer is self explanatory.
systems. 2. An erroneous system state that can lead to system
a) two behavior that is unexpected by system users is
b) three known as?
c) four a) Human error or mistake
d) five b) System fault
c) System error
Answer:b d) System failure
Explanation: The stages are Procurement,
Development and Operation. Answer:c
8. Sociotechnical systems are deterministic. Explanation: The answer is self explanatory.
a) True 3. An event that occurs at some point in time when
b) False the system does not deliver a service as expected by
its users is called _____________.
Answer:b a) Human error or mistake
Explanation: Sociotechnical systems are non- b) System fault
deterministic partly because they include people and c) System error
d) System failure Answer:a
Explanation: The risk is assessed by considering the
Answer:d hazard probability, the hazard severity, and the
Explanation: The answer is self explanatory. probability that the hazard will lead to an accident.
4. A chemical plant system may detect excessive 8. A weakness in a computer-based system that may
pressure and open a relief valve to reduce these be exploited to cause loss or harm is known as?
pressures before an explosion occurs. What kind of a) Vulnerability
dependability and security issue the example states? b) Attack
a) Hazard avoidance c) Threat
b) Damage limitation d) Exposure
c) Hazard detection
d) Hazard detection and removal Answer:a
Explanation: The answer is self explanatory.
Answer:d 9. A password checking system that disallows user
Explanation: The system is designed so that hazards passwords that are proper names or words that are
are detected and removed before they result in an normally included in a dictionary is an example of
accident. ___________ with respect to security systems.
5. An aircraft engine normally includes automatic a) risk
fire extinguishers.What kind of dependability and b) control
security issue the example states? c) attack
a) Hazard avoidance b) asset
b) Damage limitation
c) Hazard detection Answer:b
d) Hazard detection and removal Explanation: A control protective measure that
reduces a system’s vulnerability.
Answer:b 10. The safety of a system is a system attribute that
Explanation: The system may include protection reflects the system’s ability to operate, normally or
features that minimize the damage that may result abnormally, without injury to people or damage to
from an accident. the environment.
6. An assessment of the worst possible damage that a) True
could result from a particular hazard is known as b) False
a) Risk
b) Hazard probability Answer:a
c) Hazard severity Explanation: The answer is self explanatory.
d) Mishap .

Answer:c - Dependability and Security Specification -

Explanation: Hazard severity can range from by mod2
catastrophic, where many people are killed, to “Dependability and Security Specification”.
minor, where only minor damage results. When an 1. How many stages are there in Risk-driven
individual death is a possibility, a reasonable requirements specification?
assessment of hazard severity is ‘very high’. a) three
7. which of the following terms is a measure of the b) four
probability that the system will cause an accident? c) five
a) Risk d) six
b) Hazard probability
c) Accident Answer:b
d) Damage Explanation: These include Risk identification, Risk
analysis, Risk reduction and Risk decomposition
2. Consider a case where the system is unavailable Answer:d
and cannot deliver its services to users. What type of Explanation: All the options are correct except
failure is being described here? option d.
a) Loss of service 7. To specify security requirements, one should
b) Incorrect service delivery identify the risks that are to be dealt with.
c) System/data corruption a) True
b) False
Answer:a
Explanation: One may separate this into loss of Answer:b
critical services and loss of non-critical services, Explanation: To specify security requirements, one
where the consequences of a failure in non-critical should identify the assets that are to be dealt with.
services are less than the consequences of critical 8. The aim of preliminary risk analysis and
service failure. assessment process is to derive security
3. Consider a case where the failure of the system requirements for the system as a whole.
causes damage to the system itself or it data. What a) True
type of failure is being described here? b) False
a) Loss of service
b) Incorrect service delivery Answer:a
c) System/data corruption Explanation: In preliminary risk analysis stage,
decisions on the detailed system requirements, the
Answer:c system design, or the implementation technology
Explanation: The answer is self explanatory. have not been made.
4. POFOD stands for 9. At which stage of risk analysis specification, the
a) Possibility of failure of data additional security requirements take account of the
b) Probability of failure of data technologies used in building the system and system
c) Possibility of failure on demand design and implementation decisions?
d) Probability of failure on demand a) Preliminary risk analysis
b) Life-cycle risk analysis
Answer:d c) Operational risk analysis
Explanation: The answer is self explanatory.
5. Which reliability metric sets out the probable Answer:b
number of system failures that are likely to be Explanation: This risk assessment takes place during
observed relative to a certain time period? the system development life cycle after design
a) POFOD choices have been made..
b) ROCOF 10. Which reliability requirements are concerned
c) AVAIL with maintaining copies of the system?
d) None of the mentioned a) Checking requirements
b) Recovery requirements
Answer:b c) Redundancy requirements
Explanation: Rate of occurrence of failures d) Ambiguous requirements
(ROCOF) sets out the probable number of system
failures that are likely to be observed relative to the Answer:b
number of system executions. Explanation: These requirements are geared to
6. Which of the following is not a functional helping the system recover after a failure has
reliability requirement for a system? occurred.
a) Checking requirements .
b) Recovery requirements
c) Redundancy requirements - Dependability Engineering -
d) Ambiguous requirements “Dependability Engineering”.
1. Which of the following examples does not c) System to shut down a reactor if
involve dependability engineering ? temperature/pressure are too high
a) Medical Systems
b) Power Systems Answer:b
c) Library Management Explanation: A Protection system is a specialized
d) Telecommunications system that is associated with some other control
system, which can take emergency action if a failure
Answer:c occurs.
Explanation: Software customers expect all software 6. The use of a well-defined, repeatable process is
to be dependable. However, for non-critical essential if faults in a system are to be minimized.
applications such as certain management systems, a) True
they may be willing to accept some system failures. b) False
2. What is the term for development process
organised such that faults in the system are detected Answer:a
and repaired before delivery to the customer ? Explanation: The answer is self explanatory.
a) Fault Avoidance 7. Which of the following is a Strategy to achieve
b) Fault detection Software diversity ?
c) Fault tolerance a) Different programming languages
d) None of the mentioned b) Different design methods and tools
c) Explicit specification of different algorithms
Answer:a d) All of the mentioned
Explanation: In Fault Avoidance, the system is
developed in such a way that human error is avoided Answer:d
and thus system faults are minimised. Explanation: Diversity means to provide the same
3. What is the term for a system that is designed functionality in different ways so that critical
such that the faults in the delivered software do not components of a dependable system will not fail in
result in system failure ? the same way.
a) Fault Avoidance 8. Exception handling is a mechanism to provide
b) Fault detection some fault avoidance.
c) Fault tolerance a) True
b) False
Answer:c
Explanation: The answer is self explanatory. Answer:b
4. Which process characteristic with respect to Explanation: Exception handling is a mechanism to
Dependability Engineering is mentioned by the provide some fault tolerance.
statement: “The process should be understandable 9. Which of the following is a bad practice of
by people apart from process participants” ? Dependable programming ?
a) Diverse a) Limit the visibility of information in a program
b) Documentable b) Check array bounds
c) Auditable c) Check all inputs for validity
d) None of the mentioned
Answer:c
Explanation: It means that process standards are Answer:d
being followed and make suggestions for process Explanation: All the options are good practices to
improvement. achieve Dependability Engineering.
5. Which of the following is not a Protection 10. What is a Range check?
system ? a) Check that the input does not exceed some
a) System to stop a train if it passes a red light maximum size e.g. 40 characters for a name
b) System to indicate not returning of the library b) Check that the input falls within a known range
book c) Use information about the input to check if it is
reasonable rather than an extreme value faults in the delivered software do not result in
system failure.
Answer:b 5. Controls that are intended to ensure that attacks
Explanation: The answer is self explanatory. are unsuccessful is analogous to ____________ in
. dependability engineering.
a) Fault avoidance
- Security Engineering - b) Fault tolerance
“Security Engineering”. c) Fault detection
1. Which of the following is a layer of protection for d) Fault Recovery
Security ?
a) Platform-level protection Answer:a
b) Application-level protection Explanation: In Fault avoidance the system is
c) Record-level protection developed in such a way that human error is avoided
d) All of the mentioned and thus system faults are minimised.
6. What is Life cycle risk assessment ?
Answer:d a) Risk assessment after the system has been
Explanation: The answer is self explanatory. deployed
2. Security engineering is only concerned with b) Risk assessment while the system is being
maintenance of systems such that they can resist developed
malicious attacks. c) Both a and b
a) True
b) False Answer:c
Explanation: The answer is self explanatory.
Answer:b 7. A system resource that has a value and has to be
Explanation: Security engineering is concerned with protected is known as
maintenance as well as development of such a) Asset
systems. b) Control
3. What are security controls ? c) Vulnerability
a) Controls that are intended to ensure that attacks d) None of the mentioned
are unsuccessful.
b) Controls that are intended to detect and repel Answer:a
attacks. Explanation: The answer is self explanatory.
c) Controls that are intended to support recovery 8. An impersonation of an authorised user is an
from problems. example of a security threat.
d) All of the mentioned a) True
b) False
Answer:d
Explanation: All the options define a security Answer:b
control property. Explanation: It is a security attack.
4. Controls that are intended to repel attacks is 9. The records of each patient that is receiving or has
analogous to ____________ in dependability received treatment resembles which security concept
engineering. ?
a) Fault avoidance a) Asset
b) Fault tolerance b) Threat
c) Fault detection c) Vulnerability
d) None of the mentioned d) Control

Answer:b Answer:a
Explanation: Here the system is designed so that Explanation: Asset is a system resource that has a
value and has to be protected.
10. Circumstances that have potential to cause loss through the model
or harm is known as
a) Attack Answer:b
b) Threat Explanation: Model checking is very expensive.It is
c) Vulnerability only practical to use it in the verification of small to
d) Control medium sized critical systems.
5. Choose the fault class in which the following
Answer:b automated static analysis check would
Explanation: The answer is self explanatory. fall:”Variables declared but never used”.
. a) Control Faults
b) Data Faults
- Dependability and Security Assurance - c) Input/Output Faults
“Dependability and Security Assurance”. d) Interface faults
1. Static Analysis involves executing a program.
a) True Answer:b
b) False Explanation: The answer is self explanatory.
6. Choose the fault class in which the following
Answer:b automated static analysis check would fall:
Explanation: Static analysis techniques are system “Unreachable code”.
verification techniques that don’t involve executing a) Control Faults
a program. b) Data Faults
2. Which of the following is a technique covered in c) Input/Output Faults
Static Analysis ? d) Interface faults
a) Formal verification
b) Model checking Answer:a
c) Automated program analysis Explanation: The answer is self explanatory.
d) All of the mentioned 7. Choose the fault class in which the following
automated static analysis check would fall:”Non-
Answer:d usage of the results of functions”.
Explanation: The answer is self explanatory. a) Storage management faults
3. Select the disadvantage of using Formal methods b) Data Faults
a) Concurrent systems can be analysed to discover c) Input/Output Faults
race conditions that might lead to deadlock. d) Interface faults
b) Producing a mathematical specification requires a
detailed analysis of the requirements Answer:d
c) They require the use of specialised notations that Explanation: The answer is self explanatory.
cannot be understood by domain experts 8. Static analysis is now routinely used in the
development of many safety and security critical
Answer:c systems.
Explanation: Formal methods are the ultimate static a) True
verification technique that may be used at different b) False
stages in the development process.
4. Which of the following is incorrect with respect to Answer:a
Model Checking? Explanation: The static analyzer can discover areas
a) Model checking is particularly valuable for of vulnerability such as buffer overflows or
verifying concurrent systems unchecked inputs
b) Model checking is computationally very 9. Which level of Static Analysis allows specific
inexpensive rules that apply to a program to be checked ?
c) The model checker explores all possible paths a) Characteristic error checking
b) User-defined error checking
c) Assertion checking 4. In the Analysis phase, the development of the
____________ occurs, which is a clear statement of
Answer:b the goals and objectives of the project.
Explanation: Users of a programming language a) documentation
define error patterns, thus extending the types of b) flowchart
error that can be detected. c) program specification
10. Choose the fault class in which the following d) design
automated static analysis check would fall:”Pointer
Arithmetic”. Answer:c
a) Storage management faults Explanation: Program specification is the definition
b) Data Faults of what a computer program is expected to do.
c) Input/Output Faults 5. Actual programming of software code is done
d) Interface faults during the ____________ step in the SDLC.
a) Maintenance and Evaluation
Answer:a b) Design
Explanation: The answer is self explanatory. c) Analysis
. d) Development and Documentation

- Software Design - Answer:d

by mod2 Explanation: The developer has to find in the
“Software Design”. technical documentation enough information to start
1. Which is the first step in the software coding.
development life cycle ? 6. Who designs and implement database structures.
a) Analysis a) Programmers
b) Design b) Project managers
c) Problem/Opportunity Identification c) Technical writers
d) Development and Documentation d) Database administrators

Answer:c Answer:d
Explanation: The answer is self explanatory. Explanation: The role of database administrators
2. Which tool is use for structured designing ? includes the development and design of database
a) Program flowchart strategies, system monitoring and improving
b) Structure chart database performance and capacity, and planning for
c) Data-flow diagram future expansion requirements.
d) Module 7. ____________ is the process of translating a task
into a series of commands that a computer will use
Answer:b to perform that task.
Explanation: A Structure Chart (SC) in software a) Project design
engineering and organizational theory, is a chart b) Installation
which shows the breakdown of a system to its c) Systems analysis
lowest manageable levels. d) Programming
3. A step by step instruction used to solve a problem
is known as Answer:d
a) Sequential structure Explanation: The answer is self explanatory.
b) A List 8. Debugging is:
c) A plan a) creating program code.
d) An Algorithm b) finding and correcting errors in the program code.
c) identifying the task to be computerized.
Answer:d d) creating the algorithm.
Explanation: The answer is self explanatory.
Answer: world.
Explanation: Debugging is a methodical process of
finding and reducing the number of bugs, or defects, Answer:d
in a computer program or a piece of electronic Explanation: Coupling between
hardware, thus making it behave as expected. modules/components is their degree of mutual
9. In Desigin phase, which is the primary area of interdependence.
concern ? .
a) Architecture
b) Data - Modularity in Software Design -
c) Interface “Modularity in Software Design”.
d) All of the mentioned 1. Java packages and Fortran subroutine are
examples of__________
Answer:d a) Functions
Explanation: Part of the design phase is to create b) Modules
structural and behavioral models of the system c) Classes
which is covered by architecture, data and the d) Sub procedures
interface of the product.
10. The importance of software design can be Answer:b
summarized in a single word which is: Explanation: A modular system consist of well
a) Efficiency defined manageable units with well defined
b) Accuracy interfaces among the units.
c) Quality 2. Which of the property of software modularity is
d) Complexity incorrect with respect to benefits software
modularity?
Answer:c a) Modules are robust.
Explanation: Software functional quality reflects b) Module can use other modules
how well it complies with or conforms to a given c) Modules Can be separately compiled and stored
design, based on functional requirements or in a library.
specifications. d) Modules are mostly dependent.
11. Cohesion is a qualitative indication of the degree
to which a module Answer:d
a) can be written more compactly. Explanation: Modularity cannot bring benefits
b) focuses on just one thing. unless the modules are autonomous or independent.
c) is able to complete its function in a timely 3. _______________ is a measure of the degree of
manner. interdependence between modules.
d) is connected to other modules and the outside a) Cohesion
world. b) Coupling
c) None of the mentioned
Answer:b
Explanation: Cohesion of a single Answer:b
module/component is the degree to which its Explanation: Coupling or dependency is the degree
responsibilities form a meaningful unit. to which each program module relies on each one of
12. Coupling is a qualitative indication of the degree the other modules.
to which a module 4. Which of the following is the best type of module
a) can be written more compactly. coupling?
b) focuses on just one thing. a) Control Coupling
c) is able to complete its function in a timely b) Stamp Coupling
manner. c) Data Coupling
d) is connected to other modules and the outside d) Content Coupling
Answer:c 9. In what type of coupling, the complete data
Explanation: The dependency between module A structure is passed from one module to another?
and B is said to be data coupled if their dependency a) Control Coupling
is based on the fact they communicate by only b) Stamp Coupling
passing of data. c) External Coupling
5. Which of the following is the worst type of d) Content Coupling
module coupling?
a) Control Coupling Answer:b
b) Stamp Coupling Explanation: The answer is self explanatory.
c) External Coupling 10. If all tasks must be executed in the same time-
d) Content Coupling span, what type of cohesion is being exhibited?
a) Functional Cohesion
Answer:c b) Temporal Cohesion
Explanation: Content coupling occurs when module c) Functional Cohesion
A changes data of module B or when control is d) Sequential Cohesion
passed from one module to the middle of another.
6. Which of the following is the worst type of Answer:b
module cohesion? Explanation: A Module exhibits temporal cohesion
a) Logical Cohesion when it contains tasks that are related by the fact that
b) Temporal Cohesion all tasks must be executed in the same time-span.
c) Functional Cohesion .
d) Coincidental Cohesion
- Function Oriented Software Design -
Answer:d “Function Oriented Software Design”.
Explanation: Coincidental cohesion exists in 1. Choose the option that does not define Function
modules that contain instructions that have little or Oriented Software Design.
no relationship to one another. a) It consists of module definitions
7. Which of the following is the best type of module b) Modules represent data abstraction
cohesion? c) Modules support functional abstraction
a) Functional Cohesion
b) Temporal Cohesion Answer:b
c) Functional Cohesion Explanation: Option b defines an Object Oriented
d) Sequential Cohesion Design.
2. Which of the following is a complementary
Answer:a approach to function-oriented approach ?
Explanation: Functional Cohesion is a type of a) Object oriented analysis
cohesion in which the tasks performed by a software b) Object oriented design
module all contribute to the performance of a single c) Structured approach
function. d) Both a and b
8. A software engineer must design the modules
with the goal of high cohesion and low coupling. Answer:d
a) True Explanation: The answer is self explanatory.
b) False 3. Function-oriented design techniques starts with
functional requirements specified in
Answer:a a) SDD
Explanation: If the software is not properly b) SRS
modularized, a host of seemingly trivial c) None of the mentioned
enhancement or changes will result into death of the
project. Answer:b
Explanation: The answer is self explanatory.
4. Structured Analysis is based on the principles of activities.
a) Top-down decomposition approach a) True
b) Divide and conquer principle b) False
c) Graphical representation of results using DFDs
d) All of the mentioned Answer:b
Explanation: It is an object oriented design
Answer:d whichfocus on entities.
Explanation: The answer is self explanatory. 10. In DFDs, user interactions with the system is
5. Which of the following is/are true with respect to denoted by
functions ? a) Circle
a) A function such as “search-book” is represented b) Arrow
using a circle. c) Rectangle
b) Functions represent some activity d) Triangle
c) Function symbol is known as a process symbol or
a bubble in DFD Answer:a
d) All of the mentioned Explanation: The answer is self explanatory.
.
Answer:d
Explanation: All the options are correct with respect - Function Oriented Design using Structured
to Function Oriented Software Design. Analysis Structured Design -
6. Which of the following is not a use of a CASE “Function Oriented Design using Structured
tool ? Analysis Structured Design”.
a) Support structured analysis and design (SA/SD) 1. SA/SD features are obtained from which of the
b) Maintains the data dictionary methodologies?
c) Checks whether DFDs are balanced or not a) Constantine and Yourdon’s methodology
d) It complies with the available system. b) DeMarco and Yourdon’s methodology
c) Gane and Sarson’s methodology
Answer:d d) All of the mentioned
Explanation: It takes long time to establish the
system in order to comply with the available system. Answer:d
7. What DFD notation is represented by the Explanation: The answer is self explanatory.
Rectangle? 2. Which of the following is not an activity of
a) Transform Structured Analysis (SA) ?
b) Data Store a) Functional decomposition
c) Function b) Transformation of a textual problem description
d) None of the mentioned into a graphic model
c) All the functions represented in the DFD are
Answer:b mapped to a module structure
Explanation: The answer is self explanatory.
8. Structural decomposition is concerned with Answer:c
function calls. Explanation: The module structure is the software
a) True architecture.
b) False 3. To arrive at a form which is suitable for
implementation in some programming language is
Answer:a the purpose of
Explanation: Structural decomposition is concerned a) Structured Analysis (SA)
with developing a model of the design which shows b) Structured Design (SD)
the dynamic structure. c) Detailed Design (DD)
9. A function-oriented design focuses on the entities d) None of the mentioned
in the system rather than the data processing
Answer:b (SA/SD).
Explanation: The answer is self explanatory. b) Maintaining the data dictionary,
4. The results of structured analysis can be easily c) Checking whether DFDs are balanced or not
understood by ordinary customers. d) Al of the mentioned
a) True
b) False Answer:a
Explanation: The answer is self explanatory.
Answer:a 10. Data Store Symbol in DFD represents a
Explanation: The results of structured analysis a) Physical file
directly represents customer’s perception of the b) Data Structure
problem and uses customer’s terminology for c) Logical file
naming different functions and data. d) All of the mentioned
5. Structured Analysis is based on the principle of
Bottom-Up Approach. Answer:d
a) True Explanation: A logical file can be a data structure or
b) False a physical file on disk.
.
Answer:b
Explanation: Structured Analysis follows uses - Object Oriented Software Design - 1 -
decomposition approach. “Object Oriented Software Design – 1”.
6. The context diagram is also known as 1. Choose the incorrect statement in terms of
a) Level-0 DFD Objects.
b) Level-1 DFD a) Objects are abstractions of real-world.
c) Level-2 DFD b) Objects can’t manage themselves.
c) Objects encapsulate state and representation
Answer:a information.
Explanation: Context diagram captures the various
entities external to the system interacting with it and Answer:b
data flow occurring between the system and the Explanation: Objects are independent.
external entities. 2. What encapsulates both data and data
7. A directed arc or line in DFD represents manipulation functions ?
a) Data Store a) Object
b) Data Process b) Class
c) Data Flow c) Super Class
d) Sub Class
Answer:c
Explanation: It resembles data flow in the direction Answer:a
of the arrow. Explanation: The answer is self explanatory.
8. A DFD is always accompanied by a data 3. Which of the following is a mechanism that
dictionary. allows several objects in an class hierarchy to have
a) True different methods with the same name?
b) False a) Aggregation
b) Polymorphism
Answer:a c) Inheritance
Explanation: A data dictionary lists all data items
appearing in a DFD including definition and data Answer:b
names. Explanation: In polymorphism instances of each
9. Which of the following is a function of CASE subclass will be free to respond to messages by
Tool? calling their own version of the method.
a) Supporting Structured analysis and design
4. Inherited object classes are self-contained. a) Active Object
a) True b) Passive Object
b) False c) Multiple instance
d) None of the mentioned
Answer:b
Explanation: Inherited object classes are not self- Answer:b
contained. They cannot be understood without Explanation: A passive object holds data, but does
reference to their super-classes. not initiate control.
5. Which of the following points related to Object- 10. Objects are executed
oriented development (OOD) is true? a) sequentially
a) OOA is concerned with developing an object b) in Parallel
model of the application domain c) Both a and b
b) OOD is concerned with developing an object-
oriented system model to implement requirements. Answer:c
c) Both a and b Explanation: Objects may be distributed and may
d) None of the mentioned execute
sequentially or in parallel.
Answer:c .
Explanation: The answer is in support with the
OOD. - Object Oriented Software Design - 2 -
6. How is generalization implemented in Object “Object Oriented Software Design – 2”.
Oriented programming languages? 1. How many layers are present in the OO design
a) Inheritance pyramid?
b) Polymorphism a) three
c) Encapsulation b) four
d) Abstract Classes c) five

Answer:a Answer:b
Explanation: The answer is self explanatory. Explanation: The four layers are: Subsystem layer,
7. Which of the following is a disadvantage of class and object layer, message layer and
OOD ? responsibilities layer
a) Easier maintenance. 2. Which of the following early OOD methods
b) Objects may be incorporates both a “micro development process”
understood as stand-alone entities. and a “macro development process.” ?
c) Objects are potentially reusable components. a) Booch method
d) None of the mentioned b) Rumbaugh method
c) Wirfs-Brock method
Answer:d d) Coad and Yourdon method
Explanation: All the options define the
characteristics of OOD. Answer:a
8. Which of the following describes”Is-a- Explanation: The macro development process
Relationship” ? includes the architectural planning and micro
a) Aggregation developments process defines rules that govern the
b) Inheritance use of operations and attributes and the domain-
c) Dependency specific
policies for memory management, error handling,
Answer:b and other infrastructure
Explanation: The answer is self explanatory. functions.
9. Object that collects data on request rather than 3. Grady Booch, James Rumbaugh, and Ivar
autonomously is known as Jacobson combined the best features of their
individual object-oriented analysis into a new 8. Throughout the OOD process, a software engineer
method for object oriented design known as should look for every opportunity for creating new
a) HTML design process.
b) XML a) True
c) UML b) False
d) SGML
Answer:b
Answer:c Explanation: A software engineer should look for
Explanation: The Unified Modeling Language every opportunity to reuse existing design patterns
(UML) has become whenever they meet the needs of the design rather
widely used throughout the industry as the standard than creating new ones.
approach to OOD. .
4. A design description of an object is known as a
class - Types of Software Metrics -
a) instance by mod2
b) object “Types of Software Metrics “.
c) case 1. Which of the following is the task of project
d) both a and b indicators:
a) help in assessment of status of ongoing project.
Answer:d b) track potential risk
Explanation: The answer is self explanatory. c) both a and b
5. Which of the following is conceptually similar to d) none of the mentioned
objects?
a) PACKAGE Answer:c
b) PROC Explanation: The answer is self explanatory.
c) PRIVATE 2. Which of the following does not affect the
software quality and organizational performance?
Answer:a a) Market
Explanation: A package is a namespace that b) Product
organizes a set of related classes and interfaces. c) Technology
6. A design description in OOD includes d) People
a) Protocol Description
b) Implementation Description Answer:a
c) Type Description Explanation: Market is a collection of competitors,
d) both a and b stakeholders, users each having different views on
the product. So it does not affect the software
Answer:d quality.
Explanation: The answer is self explanatory. 3. The intent of project metrics is:
7. Which of the following is not an operation as per a) minimization of development schedule
OOD algorithms and data structures? b) for strategic purposes
a) operations that manipulate data in some way c) assessing project quality on ongoing basis
b) operations that perform a computation d) both a and c
c) operations that check for syntax errors
d) operations that monitor an object for the Answer:d
occurrence of a controlling event. Explanation: A project metric is a quantitative
measure of the degree to which a system, component
Answer: or process possesses an attribute.
Explanation: Option c is incorrect as it is concerned 4. Which of the following is not a direct measure of
with the programming language used, so it will be SE process?
handled by the compiler. a) Efficiency
b) Cost d) All of the mentioned
c) Effort Applied
d) All of the mentioned Answer:c
Explanation: Others options are formulaes.
Answer:a 10. Defects removal efficiency (DRE)depends on:
Explanation: Efficiency is an indirect measure. a) E – errors found before software delivery
5. Which of the following is an indirect measure of b) D – defects found after delivery to user
product? c) both E and D
a) Quality d) Varies with project
b) Complexity
c) Reliability Answer:c
d) All of the Mentioned Explanation: DRE = E / (E + d).
.
Answer:d
Explanation: All the mentioned options are indirect - Web Engineering Project Metrics -
measures of a product. “Web Engineering Project Metrics”.
6. In size oriented metrics, metrics are developed 1. The user has no control over the contents of a
based on the ____________________. static web page.
a) number of Functions a) True
b) number of user inputs b) False
c) number of lines of code
d) amount of memory usage Answer:a
Explanation: Static web pages are just for
Answer:c information purposes.
Explanation: The answer is self explanatory. 2. Which metric gives the idea about the contents on
7. Which of the following is not an information a web page ?
domain required for determining function point in a) Word Token
FPA ? b) Word Count
a) Number of user Input c) Word Size
b) Number of user Inquiries d) Word Length
c) Number of external Interfaces
d) Number of errors Answer:b
Explanation: The word count metric gives the total
Answer:d number of words on a web page.
Explanation: FPA includes five domains namely 3. How is the complexity of a web page related to
input, output, inquiries, interface and logical files. link count ?
8. Usability can be measured in terms of: a) Directly
a) Intellectual skill to learn the system b) Indirectly
b) Time required to become moderately efficient in c) No relation
system usage
c) Net increase in productivity Answer:a
d) All of the mentioned Explanation: If link count is more, complexity will
be more.
Answer:d 4. It is expected to have less number of connections
Explanation: The answer is self explanatory. for a good web application.
9. A graphical technique for finding if changes and a) True
variation in metrics data are meaningful is known as b) False
a) DRE (Defect Removal Efficiency)
b) Function points analysis Answer:a
c) Control Chart Explanation: More the link count, more the
complexity and the web page dependence factor will b) Number of Dynamic Content Objects
increase. c) Number of Inherited Objects
5. Number of dynamic web pages provides an idea d) Word Count
about________ for a web page that is to be built.
a) size Answer:c
b) complexity Explanation: There is no such metric as an inherited
c) effort object’s count.
d) All of the mentioned .

Answer:d - Metrics Analysis -

Explanation: The answer is self explanatory. “Metrics Analysis”.
6. Which of the following web engineering metric 1. Which of the following is not a metric for design
measures the extent of relatedness between two or model?
more web pages ? a) Interface design metrics
a) Number of Static Content Objects b) Component-level metrics
b) Number of Dynamic Content Objects c) Architectural metrics
c) Web Page Similarity d) Complexity metrics
d) Number of Internal Page Links
Answer:d
Answer:c Explanation: Complexity metrics measure the
Explanation: The answer is self explanatory. logical complexity of source code.
7. Which of the following is not a classification of 2. Statement and branch coverage metrics are part of
the web engineering metric, Web Page Similarity ? a) Analysis Model
a) Content based b) Testing
b) Link based c) Design Model
c) Usage based d) Source Code
d) Traffic based
Answer:b
Answer:d Explanation: These metrics lead to the design of test
Explanation: Similarity between two web pages is cases that provide program coverage.
not judged upon its traffic activity. 3. Function Points in software engineering was first
8. The static content objects are dependent on the proposed by
actions of the user. a) Booch
a) True b) Boehm
b) False c) Albrecht
d) Jacobson
Answer:b
Explanation: Dynamic Objects are user dependent Answer:c
9. Link based measures rely on ___________ Explanation: First proposed by Albrecht in 1979,
structure of a web graph to obtain related pages. hundreds of books and papers have been written on
a) Embedded functions points since then.
b) Hyperlink 4. How many Information Domain Values are used
c) Dynamic for Function Point Computation?
a) three
Answer:b b) four
Explanation: Only option b answers the blank, rest c) five
are not in accordance to the question. d) six
10. Which of the following is not a web engineering
project metric ? Answer:c
a) Number of Static Content Objects Explanation: The five values are: External Inputs,
External Outputs, External Inquiries, Internal 10. SMI = [Mt – (Fa + Fc + Fd)]/Mt. Here Mt is the
Logical Files and External Interface Files. number of modules
5. Function Point Computation is given by the a) in the current release
formula b) in the current release that have been changed
a) FP = [count total * 0.65] + 0.01 * sum(Fi) c) from the preceding release that were deleted in
b) FP = count total * [0.65 + 0.01 * sum(Fi)] c) FP = the current release
count total * [0.65 + 0.01] * sum(Fi)
d) FP = [count total * 0.65 + 0.01] * sum(Fi) Answer:a
Explanation: The answer is self explanatory.
Answer:b 11. The amount of time that the software is available
Explanation: Option b is the correct formula for for use is known as
Function Point Computation. a) Reliability
6. Architectural Design Metrics are ___________ in b) Usability
nature. c) Efficiency
a) Black Box d) Functionality
b) White Box
c) Gray Box Answer:a
d) Green Box Explanation: The answer is self explanatory.
12. Usability in metric analysis is defined as the
Answer:a degree to which the software
Explanation: They are “black box” in that they do a) stated needs.
not require any knowledge of the inner workings of b) is easy to use.
a particular software component. c) makes optimal use of system resources.
7. Structural complexity of a module i is given as
S(i) = f*f (i). What does f symbolizes here? Answer:b
a) “fan check-out” of module i Explanation: The answer is self explanatory.
b) “fan check-in” of module i .
c) “fan in” of module i
d) “fan out” of module i - Metrics for Quality Control -
“Metrics for Quality Control”.
Answer:d 1. Size and Complexity are a part of
Explanation: Fan out is number of modules directly a) Product Metrics
invoked by module i. b) Process Metrics
8. SMI stands for c) Project Metrics
a) Software Mature Indicator
b) Software Maturity Index Answer:a
c) Software Mature Index Explanation: Product Metrics describe the
d) Software Maturity Indicator characteristics of product.
2. Cost and schedule are a part of
Answer:b a) Product Metrics
Explanation: The answer is self explanatory. b) Process Metrics
9. As the SMI approaches 1.0, the software product c) Project Metrics
starts becoming unstable
a) True Answer:c
b) False Explanation: Project Metrics describe the project
characteristics and execution.
Answer:b 3. Number of errors found per person hours
Explanation: As the SMI approaches 1.0, the expended is an example of a
software product begins to stabilize. a) measurement
b) measure
c) metric Answer:b
Explanation: Measurement is the act of obtaining a
Answer:c measure.
Explanation: Metric is a quantitative measure of the 9. MTTC falls the the category of
degree to which a system, component, or process a) Correctness:
possesses a given attribute. b) integrity
4. Which of the following is not categorized under c) maintainability
Product Operation of McCall’s Software Quality
Factors? Answer:c
a) Flexibility Explanation: Mean time to change (MTTC) is the
b) Reliability time it takes to analyze the change request, design an
c) Usability appropriate modification, implement the change, test
d) Integrity it, and distribute the change to all users.
10. Identify the correct option with reference to
Answer:a Software Quality Metrics.
Explanation: Flexibility is a part of Product revision a) Integrity = [Sigma(1 – threat)] * (1 – security)
as per McCall’s Software Quality Factors. b) Integrity = [1 – Sigma(threat)] * (1 – security)
5. The arc-to-node ratio is given as r = a/n. What c) Integrity = [1 – threat * Sigma(1 – security)] d)
does ‘a’ represent in the ratio? Integrity = Sigma[1 – threat * (1 – security)]
a) maximum number of nodes at any level Answer:d
b) longest path from the root to a leaf Explanation: The answer is self explanatory.
c) number of modules .
d) lines of control
Project Management -
Answer:d “Project Management”.
Explanation: ‘a’ represents the arcs or the lines of 1. Which of the following is not project management
control. goal?
6. Which of the following is not categorized under a) Keeping overall costs within budget.
Component-Level Design Metrics? b) Delivering the software to the customer at the
a) Complexity Metrics agreed time.
b) Cohesion Metrics c) Maintaining a happy and well-functioning
c) Morphology Metrics development team.
d) Coupling Metrics d) Avoiding costumer complaints.

Answer:c Answer:d
Explanation: Morphology metrics are a part of High Explanation:Projects need to be managed because
level design metrics. professional software engineering is always subject
7. Percentage of modules that were inspected is a to organizational budget and schedule constraints.
part of 2. Project managers have to assess the risks that may
a) Product Metrics affect a project.
b) Process Metrics a) True
c) Project Metrics b) False

Answer:b Answer:b
Explanation: The answer is self explanatory. Explanation:Risk management involves anticipating
8. Metric is the act of obtaining a measure. risks that might affect the project schedule or the
a) True quality of the software being developed, and then
b) False taking action to avoid these risks.
3. Which of the following is not considered as a risk
in project management?
a) Specification delays d) project manager
b) Product competition
c) Testing Answer:b
d) Staff turnover Explanation: The quality plan should set out the
desired software qualities and describe how these
Answer:c are to be assessed.
Explanation:Testing is a part of project, thus it can’t 8. Which of the following is incorrect activity for the
be categorized as risk. configuration management of a software system?
4. The process each manager follows during the life a) Internship management
of a project is known as b) Change management
a) Project Management c) Version management
b) Manager life cycle d) System management
c) Project Management Life Cycle
d) All of the mentioned Answer:a
Explanation:Configuration management policies and
Answer:c processes define how to record and process
Explanation:A proven methodical life cycle is proposed system changes, how to decide what
necessary to repeatedly implement and manage system components to change, how to manage
projects successfully. different versions of the system and its components,
5. A 66.6% risk is considered as and how to distribute changes to customers.
a) very low 9. Identify the sub-process of process improvement
b) low a) Process introduction
c) moderate b) Process analysis
d) high c) De-processification
e) very high d) Process distribution

Answer:d Answer:b
Explanation:The probability of the risk might be Explanation:The current process is assessed, and
assessed as very low (<10%), low (10–25%), process weaknesses and bottlenecks are identified.
moderate (25–50%), high (50–75%), or very high 10. An independent relationship must exist between
(>75%). the attribute that can be measured and the external
6. Which of the following is/are main parameters quality attribute.
that you should use when computing the costs of a a) True
software development project? b) False
a) travel and training costs
b) hardware and software costs Answer:b
c) effort costs (the costs of paying software Explanation:The value of the quality attribute must
engineers and managers) be related, in some way, to the value of the attribute
d) All of the mentioned than can be measured.

Answer:d .
Explanation:Estimation involves working out how
much effort is required to complete each activity Project Planning -
and, from this, calculating the total cost of activities. “Project Planning”.
7. Quality planning is the process of developing a 1. Which of the following is an important factor that
quality plan for can affect the accuracy and efficacy of estimates?
a) team a) Project size
b) project b) Planning process
c) customers c) Project complexity
d) Degree of structural uncertainty 5. The project planner examines the statement of
scope and extracts all important software functions
Answer:a which is known as
Explanation:As size increases, the inter-dependency a) Association
among various elements of the software grows b) Decomposition
rapidly. c) Planning process
2. What describes the data and control to be d) All of the mentioned
processed?
a) Planning process Answer:b
b) Software scope Explanation:The answer is self explanatory
c) External hardware 6. The environment that supports the software
d) Project complexity project is called
a) CLSS
Answer:b b) SEE
Explanation:Functions described in the statement of c) FAST
scope are evaluated and in some cases refined to d) CBSE
provide more detail prior to the beginning of
estimation. Answer:b
3. A number of independent investigators have Explanation:Software engineering environment
developed a team-oriented approach to requirements (SEE), incorporates hardware and software.
gathering that can be applied to establish the scope 7. Which of the following is not an option to achieve
of a project called reliable cost and effort estimate?
a) JAD a) Base estimates on similar projects that have
b) CLASS already been completed
c) FAST b) Use one or more empirical models for software
d) None of the mentioned cost and effort estimation
c) Use relatively simple decomposition techniques to
Answer:c generate project cost and effort estimates.
Explanation:Facilitated application specification d) The ability to translate the size estimate into
techniques human effort, calendar time, and dollars.
(FAST), this approach encourages the creation of a
joint team of customers Answer:d
and developers who work together to identify the
problem, propose elements 8. What can be used to complement decomposition
of the solution, negotiate different approaches, and techniques and offer a potentially valuable
specify a preliminary set of estimation approach in their own right?
requirements. a) Automated estimation tools
4. CLSS stands for b) Empirical estimation models
a) conveyor line sorting system c) Decomposition techniques
b) conveyor line sorting software d) Both Automated estimation tools and Empirical
c) conveyor line sorting speed estimation models
d) conveyor line sorting specification
Answer:b
Answer:a Explanation:An estimation model for computer
Explanation:The conveyor line sorting system software uses empirically derived formulas to
(CLSS) sorts boxes moving along a conveyor line. predict effort as a function of LOC or FP.
Each box is identified by a bar code that contains a 9. Which of the following is not achieved by an
part number and is sorted into one of six bins at the automated estimation tools?
end of the line. a) Predicting staffing levels
b) Predicting software cost
c) Predicting software schedules given time. Function points and object points
d) Predicting clients demands are the best-known metrics of this type.
4. A _________ is developed using historical cost
Answer:d information that relates some software metric to the
Explanation:Demands can vary from client to client. project cost.
10. Software project estimation can never be an a) Algorithmic cost modelling
exact science, but a combination of good historical b) Expert judgement
data and systematic techniques can improve c) Estimation by analogy
estimation accuracy. d) Parkinson’s Law
a) True
b) False Answer:a
Explanation:The model uses a basic regression
Answer:a formula with parameters that are derived from
historical project data and current as well as future
project characteristics.
. 5. It is often difficult to estimate size at an early
stage in a project when only a specification is
Size and Cost Estimation of Software - available
“Size and Cost Estimation of Software”. a) True
1. Which of the following are parameters involved b) False
in computing the total cost of a software
development project? Answer:a
a) Hardware and software costs Explanation:Function-point and object-point
b) Effort costs estimates are easier to produce than estimates of
c) Travel and training costs code size but are often still inaccurate.
d) All of the mentioned 6. Which technique is applicable when other projects
in the same analogy application domain have been
Answer:d completed?
Explanation:All these are accounted for in a) Algorithmic cost modelling
estimating a software’s development cost. b) Expert judgement
2. Which of the following costs is not part of the c) Estimation by analogy
total effort cost? d) Parkinson’s Law
a) Costs of networking and communications
b) Costs of providing heating and lighting office Answer:c
space Explanation:The cost of a new project is estimated
c) Costs of lunch time food by analogy with these completed projects.
d) Costs of support staff 7. Which model assumes that systems are created
from reusable components, scripting or database
Answer:c programming?
Explanation:This is a incurred by the employees. a) An application-composition model
3. What is related to the overall functionality of the b) A post-architecture model
delivered software? c) A reuse model
a) Function-related metrics d) An early design model
b) Product-related metrics
c) Size-related metrics Answer:a
d) None of the mentioned Explanation:It is designed to make estimates of
prototype development.
Answer:a 8. Which of the following states that work expands
Explanation:Productivity is expressed in terms of the to fill the time available.
amount of useful functionality produced in some a) CASE tools
b) Pricing to win 1. Which of the following uses empirically derived
c) Parkinson’s Law formulas to predict effort as a function of LOC or
d) Expert judgement FP?
a) FP-Based Estimation
Answer:c b) Process-Based Estimation
Explanation:The cost is determined by available c) COCOMO
resources rather than by objective assessment. If the d) Both FP-Based Estimation and COCOMO
software has to be delivered in 12 months and 5
people are available, the effort required is estimated Answer:d
to be 60 person-months. Explanation:Function points and COCOMO are
9. Which model is used during early stages of the used to evaluate effort.
system design after the requirements have been 2. The empirical data that support most estimation
established? models are derived from a vast sample of projects.
a) An application-composition model a) True
b) A post-architecture model b) False
c) A reuse model
d) An early design model Answer:b
Explanation:The emperical data is derived from a
Answer:d limited sample of projects. For this reason, no
Explanation:Estimates are based on function points, estimation model is appropriate for all classes of
which are then converted to number of lines of software and in all development environments.
source code. The formula follows the standard form 3. COCOMO stands for
discussed above with a simplified set of seven a) Constructive cost model
multipliers. b) Comprehensive cost model
10. Which model is used to compute the effort c) Constructive cost estimation model
required to integrate reusable components or d) Complete cost estimation model
program code that is automatically generated by
design or program translation tools? Answer:a
a) An application-composition model
b) A post-architecture model 4. Which version of COCOMO states that once
c) A reuse model requirements have been stabilized, the basic
d) An early design model software architecture has been established?
a) Early design stage model
Answer:c b) Post-architecture-stage model
c) Application composition model
11. The COCOMO model takes into account
different approaches to software development, reuse, Answer:a
etc.
a) True 5. Which model was used during the early stages of
b) False software engineering, when prototyping of user
interfaces, consideration of software and system
Answer:b interaction, assessment of performance, and
Explanation:Its the COCOMO-2 model. COCOMO evaluation of technology maturity were paramount.
2 incorporates a range of sub-models that produce a) Early design stage model
increasingly detailed software estimates. b) Post-architecture-stage model
c) Application composition model
.
Answer:c
Emperical Estimation Models - Explanation:None.
“Emperical Estimation Models”.
6. Which one is not a size measure for software 1. What all has to be identified as per risk
product? identification?
a) LOC a) Threats
b) Halstead’s program length b) Vulnerabilities
c) Function Count c) Consequences
d) Cyclomatic Complexity d) All of the mentioned

Answer:d Answer:d
Explanation:It is the part of white box testing. Explanation:Risk identification states what could
7.COCOMO was developed initially by cause a potential loss.
a) B.Beizer 2. Which one is not a risk management activity?
b) Rajiv Gupta a) Risk assessment
c) B.W.Bohem b) Risk generation
d) Gregg Rothermal c) Risk control
d) None of the mentioned
Answer:c
Explanation:Barry Boehm introduced a hierarchy of Answer:b
software estimation models bearing the name Explanation:Risk management activities would
COCOMO, for COnstructive COst MOdel. never want a new risk to be generated.
8. Estimation of size for a project is dependent on 3. What is the product of the probability of incurring
a) Cost a loss due to the risk and the potential magnitude of
b) Time that loss?
c) Schedule a) Risk exposure
d) None of the mentioned b) Risk prioritization
c) Risk analysis
Answer:d d) All of the mentioned
Explanation:Estimation depends on factors such as
Fucntion points and LOC. Answer:a
9. COCOMO-II was developed at
a) University of Texas 4. What threatens the quality and timeliness of the
b) University of Southern California software to be produced?
c) MIT a) Known risks
d) IIT-Kanpur b) Business risks
c) Project risks
Answer:b d) Technical risks

10. Which one is not a stage of COCOMO-II? Answer:d

a) Early design estimation model Explanation:Technical risks identify potential
b) Application Composition estimation model design, implementation, interface, verification, and
c) Comprehensive cost estimation model maintenance problems.
d) Post architecture estimation model 5. What threatens the viability of the software to be
built?
Answer:a a) Known risks
Explanation:It was a part of COCOMO. b) Business risks
c) Project risks
. d) Technical risks

Software Risks and Identification - Answer:b

“Software Risks and Identification”. Explanation:Business risks often jeopardize the
project or the product.
6. Which of the following is not a business risk? d) Schedule risk
a) building an excellent product or system that no
one really wants Answer:a.
b) losing the support of senior management due to a
change in focus or change in people Risk Management -
c) lack of documented requirements or software “Risk Management”.
scope 1. Risk management is one of the most important
d) losing budgetary or personnel commitment jobs for a
a) Client
Answer:c b) Investor
Explanation:This is not considered as a business c) Production team
risk. d) Project manager
7. Which of the following is a systematic attempt to
specify threats to the project plan? Answer:d
a) Risk identification Explanation:Risk management involves anticipating
b) Performance risk risks that might affect the project schedule or the
c) Support risk quality of the software being developed, and then
d) Risk projection taking action to avoid these risks.
2. Which of the following risk is the failure of a
Answer:d purchased component to perform as expected?
Explanation:By identifying known and predictable a) Product risk
risks, the project manager takes a first step toward b) Project risk
avoiding them when possible and controlling them c) Business risk
when necessary. d) Programming risk
8. Which risks are associated with the overall size of
the software to be built or modified? Answer:a
a) Business impact risks Explanation:Risks that affect the quality or
b) Process definition risks performance of the software being developed.
c) Product size risks 3. Which of the following term is best defined by the
d) Development environment risks statement: “There will be a change of organizational
management with different priorities.”?
Answer:c a) Staff turnover
b) Technology change
9. Which risks are associated with constraints c) Management change
imposed by management or the marketplace? d) Product competition
a) Business impact risks
b) Process definition risks Answer:c
c) Product size risks
d) Development environment risks 4. Which of the following term is best defined by the
statement: “The underlying technology on which the
Answer:a system is built is superseded by new technology.”?
a) Technology change
10. Which of the following term is best defined by b) Product competition
the statement:”the degree of uncertainty that the c) Requirements change
product will meet its requirements and be fit for its d) None of the mentioned
intended use.”?
a) Performance risk Answer:a
b) Cost risk Explanation:Technology changes are common in the
c) Support risk competitive environment of software engineering.
5. What assess the risk and your plans for risk Answer:b
mitigation and revise these when you learn more
about the risk? 10. Risk management is now recognized as one of
a) Risk monitoring the most important project management tasks.
b) Risk planning a) True
c) Risk analysis b) False
d) Risk identification
Answer:a
Answer:a

6. Which of the following risks are derived from the .

organizational environment where the software is
being developed? Decomposition Techniques in Software Project
a) People risks Planning -
b) Technology risks “Decomposition Techniques in Software Project
c) Estimation risks Planning”.
d) Organizational risks 1. Why is decomposition technique required?
a) Software project estimation is a form of problem
Answer:d solving
Explanation:These risks are at management level. b) Developing a cost and effort estimate for a
7. Which of the following risks are derived from the software project is too complex
software or hardware technologies that are used to c) All of the mentioned
develop the system? d) None of the mentioned
a) Managerial risks
b) Technology risks Answer:c
c) Estimation risks Explanation:For these reasons, we decompose the
d) Organizational risks problem, re-characterizing it as a set of smaller
problems.
Answer:b 2. Cost and effort estimation of a software uses only
Explanation:The risks associated with technology one forms of decomposition, either decomposition
might affect the product development. of the problem or decomposition of the process.
8. Which of the following term is best defined by the a) True
statement: “Derive traceability information to b) False
maximize information hiding in the design.”?
a) Underestimated development time Answer:b
b) Organizational restructuring Explanation:Estimation uses one or both forms of
c) Requirements changes partitioning.
d) None of the above 3. If a Direct approach to software project sizing is
taken, size can be measured in
Answer:c a) LOC
Explanation:Tracing the requirements can help us b) FP
understand the risk. c) LOC and FP
9. Which of the following strategies means that the d) None of the mentioned
impact of the risk will be reduced?
a) Avoidance strategies Answer:a
b) Minimization strategies Explanation:LOC or Line of Code is a direct
c) Contingency plans measure to estiom ate project size.
d) All of the above 4. Which software project sizing approach develop
estimates of the information domain characteristics?
a) Function point sizing
b) Change sizing c) Customer-built software should be developed
c) Standard component sizing d) All of the mentioned
d) Fuzzy logic sizing
Answer:d
Answer:a .
10. Which of the following is not one of the five
5. The expected value for the estimation variable information domain characteristics of Function Point
(size), S, can be computed as a weighted average of (FP) decomposition?
the optimistic(Sopt), most likely (Sm), and a) External inputs
pessimistic (Spess) estimates given as b) External outputs
a) EV = (Sopt + 4Sm + Spess)/4 c) External process
b) EV = (Sopt + 4Sm + Spess)/6 d) External inquiries
c) EV = (Sopt + 2Sm + Spess)/6
d) EV = (Sopt + 2Sm + Spess)/4 Answer:c
Explanation: External inputs, external outputs,
Answer:b external inquiries, internal logical files, external
Explanation: This assumes that there is a very small interface files are the five domains.
probability that the actual size result will fall outside 11. The project planner must reconcile the estimates
the optimistic or pessimistic values. based on decomposition techniques to produce a
6. How many forms exists of Barry Boehm’s single estimate of effort.
COCOMO Model? a) True
a) Two b) False
b) Three
c) Four Answer:b
d) No form exists Explanation:The planner must determine the cause
of divergence and then reconcile the estimates.
Answer:b 12. Programming language experience is a part of
Explanation: The three forms include the basic, which factor of COCOMO cost drivers?
intermediate and advanced COCOMO model. a) Personnel Factor
7. Who suggested the four different approaches to b) Product Factor
the sizing problem? c) Platform Factor
a) Putnam d) Project Factor
b) Myers
c) Boehm Answer:a
d) Putnam and Myers
13. If an Indirect approach is taken, then the sizing
Answer:d approach is represented as
a) LOC
8. In many cases, it is often more cost effective to b) FP
acquire, rather than develop, computer software. c) Fuzzy Logic
a) True d) LOC and FP
b) False
Answer:b
Answer:a Explanation:A function point (FP) is a unit of
Explanation:Mangers are faced with a make-buy measurement to express the amount of business
decision in such situations. functionality an information system provides to a
9. A make-buy decision is based on whether user.
a) The software may be purchased off-the-shelf
b) “Full-experience” or “Partial-experience” .
software components should be used
Managing Software Projects - 1 - b) product
“Managing Software Projects – 1”. c) process
1. Project management involves the planning,
monitoring, and control of the people, process, and Answer:c
events that occur as software evolves from a Explanation:A small number of framework activities
preliminary concept to an operational are applicable to all software projects, regardless of
implementation. their size or complexity.
a) True 6. Who defines the business issues that often have
b) False significant influence on the project?
a) Practitioners
Answer:a b) Project managers
c) Senior managers
2. Which of the following is not an effective
software project management focus? Answer:c
a) people
b) product 7. Who delivers the technical skills that are
c) popularity necessary to engineer a product or an application?
d) process a) Practitioners
b) Project managers
Answer:c c) Senior managers
Explanation:Effective software project management d) None of the mentioned
focuses on the four P’s: people, product, process,
and project. Answer:a
3. PM-CMM stands for Explanation:None.
a) people management capability maturity model 8. Which of the following paradigm attempts to
b) process management capability maturity model structure a team in a manner that achieves some of
c) product management capability maturity model the controls associated with the closed paradigm but
d) project management capability maturity model also much of the innovation that occurs when using
the random paradigm?
Answer:a a) asynchronous paradigm
Explanation:The people management maturity b) open paradigm
model defines the following key practice areas for c) closed paradigm
software people: recruiting, selection, performance d) synchronous paradigm
management, training, compensation, career
development, organization and work design, and Answer:b
team/culture development. Explanation:Open paradigm team structures are well
4. Which of the following is not a project manager’s suited to the solution of complex problems but may
activity? not perform as efficiently as other teams.
a) project control 9. Which of the following is a people-intensive
b) project management activity?
c) project planning a) Problem solving
d) project design b) Organization
c) Motivation
Answer:d d) Project management
Explanation:The design part of any project
management is done by the project team. Answer:d
5. A software ________ provides the framework Explanation:For this reason, competent practitioners
from which a comprehensive plan for software often make poor team leaders.
development can be established. 10. Which paradigm structures a team loosely and
a) people depends on individual initiative of the team
members? d) None of the mentioned
a) random paradigm
b) open paradigm Answer:d
c) closed paradigm Explanation:All are key traits of an effective project
d) synchronous paradigm manager.
4. Which type of software engineering team has a
Answer:d defined leader who coordinates specific tasks and
secondary leaders that have responsibility for sub
11. Which of the following is not an approach to tasks?
software cost estimation? a) Controlled decentralized (CD)
a) Empirical b) Democratic decentralized (DD)
b) Heuristic c) Controlled centralized (CC)
c) Analytical d) None of the mentioned
d) Critical
Answer:a
Answer:d Explanation:Problem solving remains a group
Explanation:Critical is no such standard approach of activity, but implementation of solutions is
cost estimation. partitioned among subgroups by the team leader.
5. Commitments to unrealistic time and resource
. estimates may result in
a) project delay
Managing Software Projects - 2 - b) poor quality work
“Managing Software Projects – 2”. c) project failure
1. Which paradigm relies on the natural d) All of the mentioned
compartmentalization of a problem and organizes
team members to work on pieces of the problem Answer:d
with little active communication among themselves?
a) random paradigm 6. Which software engineering team has no
b) open paradigm permanent leader?
c) closed paradigm a) Controlled decentralized (CD)
d) synchronous paradigm b) Democratic decentralized (DD)
c) Controlled Centralized (CC)
Answer:c d) None of the above

2. Who interacts with the software once it is released Answer:b

for production use? Explanation:Here Communication among team
a) End-users members is horizontal.
b) Client 7. Which of the following is not a project factor that
c) Project (technical) managers should be considered when planning the structure of
d) Senior managers software engineering teams?
a) The difficulty of the problem to be solved
Answer:a b) High frustration caused by personal, business, or
Explanation:A product is always built to satisfy an technological factors that causes friction among
end-user. team members
3. Which of the following is not an effective project c) The degree of sociability required for the project
manager trait? d) The rigidity of the delivery date
a) Problem solving
b) Managerial identity Answer:c
c) Influence and team building Explanation:Development is irrelevant of social
quotient.
8. Which of the following is a collection of project a) Changing customer requirements that are not
coordination technique? reflected in schedule changes
a) Formal approaches b) Technical difficulties that could not have been
b) Formal, interpersonal procedures foreseen in advance
c) Informal, interpersonal procedures c) Human difficulties that could not have been
d) All of the mentioned foreseen in advance
d) All of the mentioned
Answer:d
Answer:d
9. Which activity sits at the core of software
requirements analysis? 2. Which of the following is an activity that
a) Problem decomposition distributes estimated effort across the planned
b) Partitioning project duration by allocating the effort to specific
c) Problem elaboration software engineering tasks?
d) All of the mentioned a) Software Macroscopic schedule
b) Software Project scheduling
Answer:d c) Software Detailed schedule
Explanation:During the scoping activity d) None of the mentioned
decomposition is applied in two major areas: the
functionality that must be delivered and the process Answer:b
that will be used to deliver it.
10. Which of the following is not a sign that 3. Every task that is scheduled should be assigned to
indicates that an information systems project is in a specific team member is termed as
jeopardy? a) Compartmentalization
a) Software people don’t understand their b) Defined milestones
customer’s needs. c) Defined responsibilities
b) Changes are managed poorly. d) Defined outcomes
c) Sponsorship is gained.
d) Users are resistant. Answer:c
Explanation:These responsibilities are domain
Answer:c specific.
Explanation:Other options are contradictory of the 4. What is a collection of software engineering work
question. tasks, milestones, and deliverables that must be
11. SPMP stands for accomplished to complete a particular project?
a) Software Project Manager’s Plan a) Task set
b) Software Project Management Plan b) Degree of milestone
c) Software Product Management Plan c) Adaptation criteria
d) Software Product Manager’s Plan d) All of the mentioned

Answer:b Answer:a
Explanation:After planning is complete,
documenting of the plans is done in a Software 5. Ensuring that no more than the allocated number
Project Management Plan(SPMP) document. of people are allocated at any given time in Software
Scheduling is known as
. a) Time Allocation
b) Effort Validation
Project Scheduling and Tracking - c) Defined Milestone
“Project Scheduling and Tracking”. d) Effort Distribution
1. Which of the following is the reason that software
is delivered late?
Answer:b d) CBSE

6. What is used to determine the recommended Answer:b

degree of rigor with which the software process Explanation:The earned value system provides a
should be applied on a project? common value scale for every task, regardless of the
a) Degree of Rigor type of work being performed. The total hours to do
b) Adaptation criteria the whole project are estimated, and every task is
c) Task Set given an earned value based on its estimated
d) Both degree of Rigor and adaptation criteria percentage of the total.
11. What is the recommended distribution of effort
Answer:b for a project?
Explanation:Four different degrees of rigor are: a) 40-20-40
casual, structured, strict, and quick reaction. b) 50-20-30
7. What evaluates the risk associated with the c) 30-40-30
technology to be implemented as part of project d) 50-30-20
scope?
a) Concept scoping Answer:a
b) Preliminary concept planning Explanation:A recommended distribution of effort
c) Technology risk assessment across the software process is 40% (analysis and
d) Customer reaction to the concept design), 20% (coding), and 40% (testing).
12. A project usually has a timeline chart which was
Answer:b developed by
a) Henry Gantt
8. Which of the following is not an adaptation b) Barry Boehm
criteria for software projects? c) Ivar Jacabson
a) Size of the project d) None of the mentioned
b) Customers Complaints
c) Project staff Answer:a
d) Mission criticality Explanation:Timeline chart, also called a Gantt chart
was invented by Henry Gantt, an industrial engineer
Answer:b in 1917 .
Explanation:These can vary from client to client.
9. Which of the following is a project scheduling .
method that can be applied to software
development? Software Configuration Management - 1 -
a) PERT “Software Configuration Management – 1”.
b) CPM 1. Which of the following categories is part of the
c) CMM output of software process?
d) both PERT and CPM a) computer programs
b) documents that describe the computer programs
Answer:d c) data
Explanation:Program evaluation and review d) All of the mentioned
technique (PERT) and critical path method (CPM)
are two project scheduling methods that can be Answer:d
applied to software development. Explanation:The answer is self explanatory
10. A technique for performing quantitative analysis 2. Which is a software configuration management
of progress is known as concept that helps us to control change without
a) BCWS seriously impeding justifiable change?
b) EVA a) Baselines
c) BAC b) Source code
c) Data model d) Version management
d) None of the mentioned
Answer:a
Answer:a
Explanation:A baseline is analogous to the kitchen 7. Which of the following option is not tracked by
doors in the restaurant. Before a software configuration management tools?
configuration item becomes a baseline, change may a) Tracking of change proposals
be made quickly and informally. b) Storing versions of system components
3. Software Configuration Management can be c) Tracking the releases of system versions to
administered in several ways. These include customers
a) A single software configuration management d) None of the mentioned
team for the whole organization
b) A separate configuration management team for Answer:d
each project Explanation:All the options are tracked.
c) Software Configuration Management distributed 8. Which of the following is not a Software
among the project members Configuration Management Activity?
d) All of the mentioned a) Configuration item identification
b) Risk management
Answer:a c) Release management
Explanation:The answer is self explanatory d) Branch management
4. What combines procedures and tools to manage
different versions of configuration objects that are Answer:b
created during the software process? Explanation:Risk management is an entirely
a) Change control different domain.
b) Version control 9. The definition and use of configuration
c) SCIs management standards is essential for quality
d) None of the mentioned certification in
a) ISO 9000
Answer:b b) CMM
Explanation:Configuration management allows a c) CMMI
user to specify alternative configurations of the d) All of the mentioned
software system through the selection of appropriate
versions. Answer:d
5. What complements the formal technical review by Explanation:It is defined in all the mentioned
assessing a configuration object for characteristics options.
that are generally not considered during review? 10. What involves preparing software for external
a) Software configuration audit release and keeping track of the system versions that
b) Software configuration management have been released for customer use?
c) Baseline a) System building
d) None of the mentioned b) Release management
c) Change management
Answer:a d) Version management

6. Which of the following is the process of Answer:b

assembling program components, data, and libraries,
and then compiling and linking these to create an
executable system? .
a) System building
b) Release management Software Configuration Management - 2 -
c) Change management “Software Configuration Management – 2”.
1. Which of the following process ensures that a) Minimal recompilation
versions of systems and components are recorded b) Documentation generation
and maintained? c) Storage management
a) Codeline d) Reporting
b) Configuration control
c) Version Answer:c
d) Workspace Explanation:To reduce the storage space required by
multiple versions of components that differ only
Answer:b slightly, version management systems usually
Explanation:In configuration control changes are provide storage management facilities.
managed and all versions of components are 6. Which of the following is a collection of
identified and stored for the lifetime. component versions that make up a system?
2. Which of the following process is concerned with a) Version
analyzing the costs and benefits of proposed b) Codeline
changes? c) Baseline
a) Change management d) None of the above
b) Version management
c) System building Answer:c
d) Release management Explanation:Baselines are controlled, which means
that the versions of the components making up the
Answer:a system cannot be changed.
Explanation:It involves approving those changes 7. Which of the following is a configuration item?
that are worthwhile, and tracking which components a) Design specification
in the system have been changed. b) Source code
3. Which of the following is not a Version c) Test specification
management feature? d) Log information
a) Version and release identification e) All of the mentioned
b) Build script generation
c) Project support Answer:e
d) Change history recording Explanation:A configuration item is an approved
and accepted deliverable, changes have to be made
Answer:b through formal procedure.
Explanation:All other options are a part of version 8. Which of the following is a part of system
management. release?
4. Which method recommends that very frequent a) electronic and paper documentation describing the
system builds should be carried out with automated system
testing to discover software problems? b) packaging and associated publicity that have been
a) Agile method designed for that release
b) Parallel compilation method c) an installation program that is used to help install
c) Large systems method the system on target hardware
d) All of the mentioned d) all of the mentioned

Answer:a Answer:d
Explanation:In keeping with the agile methods Explanation:Release creation is the process of
notion of making many small changes, continuous creating the collection of files and documentation
integration involves rebuilding the mainline that includes all of the components of the system
frequently, after small source code changes have release.
been made. 9. A sequence of baselines representing different
5. Which of the following is not a build system versions of a system is known as
feature? a) System building
b) Mainline Answer:b
c) Software Configuration Item(SCI) Explanation: The answer is self explanatory.
d) None of the above 4. How many phases are there in Taute Maintenance
Model?
Answer:b a) six
b) seven
10. Which of the following term is best defined by c) eight
the statement “The creation of a new codeline from d) nine
a version in an existing codeline”?
a) Branching Answer:c
b) Merging Explanation: The answer is self explanatory.
c) Codeline 5. What type of software testing is generally used in
d) Mainline Software Maintenance?
a) Regression Testing
Answer:a b) System Testing
Explanation:The code may then be developed c) Integration Testing
independently. d) Unit Testing

. Answer:a
Explanation: All other options are known as levels
Software Maintenance - 1 - of software testing which further have types of
by mod2 software testing.
“Software Maintenance – 1”. 6. Regression testing is a very expensive activity.
1. Software Maintenance includes a) True
a) Error corrections b) False
b) Enhancements of capabilities
c) Deletion of obsolete capabilities Answer:a
d) All of the mentioned Explanation: As regression testing is performed
many times over the life of the software product, it
Answer:d becomes a costly affair.
Explanation: The answer is self explanatory. 7. Selective retest techniques may be more
2. Maintenance is classified into how many economical than the “retest-all”technique.How
categories ? many selective retest techniques are there?
a) two a) two
b) three b) three
c) four c) four
d) five d) five

Answer:c Answer:b
Explanation: Adaptive, corrective, perfective and Explanation: The three categories include:
preventive are the four types of software Coverage, Minimization and Safe techniques.
maintenance. 8. Which selective retest technique selects every test
3. The modification of the software to match case that causes a modified program to produce a
changes in the ever changing environment, falls different output than its original version?
under which category of software maintenance? a) Coverage
a) Corrective b) Minimization
b) Adaptive c) Safe
c) Perfective
d) Preventive Answer:c
Explanation: Safe techniques do not focus on
coverage criteria, instead they select every test case d) None of the mentioned
that cause a modified program to produce different
output than its original version. Answer:b
9. ______________ measures the ability of a Explanation: A software patch is an emergency fix
regression test selection technique to handle realistic which is worked upon the obsolete version
applications. whenever a vulnerability is encountered.
a) Efficiency 3. Which one of the following is not a maintenance
b) Precision model?
c) Generality a) Waterfall model
d) Inclusiveness b) Reuse-oriented model
c) Iterative enhancement model
Answer:c d) Quick fix model
Explanation: Generality measures the ability of a
technique to handle realistic and diverse language Answer:a
constructs, arbitrarily complex modifications, and Explanation: Waterfall model is a software
realistic testing applications. development model.
10. Which regression test selection technique 4. What does ACT stands for in In Boehm model for
exposes faults caused by modifications? software maintenance?
a) Efficiency a) Actual change track
b) Precision b) Annual change track
c) Generality c) Annual change traffic
d) Inclusiveness d) Actual change traffic

Answer:d Answer:c
Explanation: Inclusiveness measures the extent to Explanation: The answer is self explanatory.
which a technique chooses test cases that will cause 5. Choose the suitable options with respect to
the modified program to produce different output regression testing.
than the original program, and thereby expose faults a) It helps in development of software
caused by modifications. b) It helps in maintenance of software
c) both a and b
. d) none of the mentioned

Software Maintenance - 2 - Answer:c

by mod2 Explanation: Regression testing preserves the
“Software Maintenance – 2”. quality and reliability of software and ensures the
1. The process of generating analysis and design software’s continued operation.
documents is known as 6. What are legacy systems?
a) Software engineering a) new systems
b) Software re-engineering b) old systems
c) Reverse engineering c) under-developed systems
d) Re-engineering d) none of the mentioned

Answer:c Answer:b
Explanation: Reverse engineering is the process Explanation: Legacy systems are the existing
followed in order to find difficult, unknown and systems which may require some modification or
hidden information about a software system.. maintenance.
2. What is a software patch? 7. Which of the following manuals is not a user
a) Required or Critical Fix documentation?
b) Emergency Fix a) Beginner’s Guide
c) Daily or routine Fix b) Installation guide
c) Reference Guide Answer:d
d) SRS Explanation: During software certification all given
options are targeted.
Answer:d 2. Which of the following is a software process
Explanation: SRS provides information on exact certification ?
requirements of system as agreed between user and a) JAVA Certified
developers. b) IBM Certified
8. Which of the following manuals is a user c) ISO-9000
documentation? d) Microsoft Certified
a) SRS -Software Requirement Specification
b) SDD -Software Design Document Answer:c
c) System Overview Explanation: The answer is self explanatory.
3. Which standard is followed in aviation industry ?
Answer:c a) CTRADO-172B
Explanation: System overview provides general b) RTCADO-178B
description of the system’s functions. c) RTRADO-178B
9. The process of transforming a model into source d) CTCADO-178B
code is known as
a) Forward engineering Answer:b
b) Reverse engineering Explanation: RTCADO-178B is a popular aviation
c) Re-engineering standard that has become a defacto standard.
d) Reconstructing 4. How many levels, does the DO-178B certification
targeted by RTCADO-178B has ?
Answer:a a) two
Explanation: The answer is self explanatory. b) three
10. How many stages are there in Iterative- c) four
enhancement model used during software d) five
maintenance?
a) two Answer:d
b) three Explanation: The levels are A, B, C, D, E.
c) four 5. Third Party Certification for software standards is
d) five based on
a) Ul 1998, Second Edition
Answer:b b) UT 1998, Second Edition
Explanation: The stages include: analysis of existing c) Ul 1992, Second Edition
system, characterize proposed modifications, d) Ul 1996, Second Edition
redesign and implement current version.
Answer:a
. Explanation: The answer is self explanatory.
6. What are the goals to gain Laboratory
Software Certification - Accreditation ?
“Software Certification”. a) Increase availability of testing services through
1. Which of the following is a field related to third-party laboratories
certification ? b) Increase availability of testing market to
a) Person encourage development of software testing industry
b) Process c) Reduce cost by increasing supply of testing
c) Product services
d) All of the mentioned d) All of the mentioned
Answer:d engineers responsible for producing the software
Explanation: The goal is to promote development of d) Process continues in spite of unexpected
competitive market, hence option d. problems
7. National Voluntary Laboratory Accreditation
Program approve accreditation in Answer:d
a) Environmental standards
b) Computers and electronics 2. Process improvement is the set of activities,
c) Product testing methods, and transformations that developers use to
d) All of the mentioned develop and maintain information systems.
a) True
Answer:d b) False
Explanation: National Voluntary Laboratory
Accreditation Program Works with other national Answer:b
metro-logy institutes to establish criteria for mutual Explanation:The definition is of a system
recognition of test results. development process.
8. CSTE stands for 3. “Understandability” answers which of the
a) Certified Software Technology following description?
b) Certified Software Tester a) The extent to which the process is explicitly
c) Certified Software Trainee defined
b) Process errors are avoided or trapped before they
Answer:b result in product errors
Explanation: The answer is self explanatory. c) Defined process is acceptable and usable by the
9. CSQA stands for engineers responsible for producing the software
a) Certified Software Quality Analyst product
b) Certified Software Quality Approved d) Process continues in spite of unexpected
c) Certified Software Quality Acclaimed problems

Answer:a Answer:a
Explanation: The answer is self explanatory.
10. Which of the following companies provide 4. How many stages are there in process
certifications for their own products? improvement?
a) CISCO a) three
b) ORACLE b) four
c) Microsoft c) five
d) All of the mentioned d) six

Answer:d Answer:a
Explanation: The answer is self explanatory. Explanation:Process measurement, analysis and
change are the three stages.
. 5. In which stage of process improvement
bottlenecks and weaknesses are identified?
Process Improvement - a) Process measurement
“Process Improvement”. b) Process analysis
1. “Robustness” answers which of the following c) Process change
description? d) None of the mentioned
a) CASE tools be used to support the process
activities Answer:b
b) Process errors are avoided or trapped before they Explanation:In Process analysis the current process
result in product errors is assessed and bottlenecks and weaknesses are
c) Defined process is acceptable and usable by the identified.
6. Prototypes and 4GL business systems are a) Introducing new practices, methods or processes
categorized under which process? b) Introducing new team members to existing
a) Informal project
b) Managed c) Introducing or removing deliverable
c) Methodical d) Introducing new roles or responsibilities
d) Supported
Answer:b
Answer:a Explanation:Adding more developers aid to process
Explanation:Here the development team chose their completion rather than changing it.
own way of working. 12. The Capability Maturity Model (CMM) is a
7. The documentation of a process which records the continuous model.
tasks, the roles and the entities used is called a) True
a) Process metric b) False
b) Process analysis
c) Process modelling Answer:b
d) None of the mentioned Explanation:The CMM is discrete rather than
continuous.
Answer:c 13. The CMMI assessment is based on a x-point
Explanation:Process models may be presented from scale. What is the value of x?
different perspectives. a) 0
8. It is always best to start process analysis with a b) 2
new test model. c) 4
a) True d) 6
b) False
Answer:d
Answer:b Explanation:Not performed, performed, managed,
Explanation:It is always best to start process defined, quantitatively managed, and optimizing are
analysis with an existing model. People then may the six points.
extend and change this.
9. What is a tangible output of an activity that is .
predicted in a project plan?
a) Deliverable Software Quality Assurance -
b) Activity “Software Quality Assurance”.
c) Condition 1. Which of the following is not included in failure
costs?
Answer:a a) rework
b) repair
10. What is often undefined and is left to the c) failure mode analysis
ingenuity of the project managers and engineers? d) none of the mentioned
a) Role
b) Exception Answer:d
c) Activity Explanation:Failure costs are those that would
d) Process disappear if no defects appeared before shipping a
product to customers.
Answer:b 2. Which requirements are the foundation from
Explanation:Exceptions are often undefined and it is which quality is measured?
left to the ingenuity of the project managers and a) Hardware
engineers to handle the exception. b) Software
11. Which of the following is not a part of process c) Programmers
change?
d) None of the mentioned Answer:c

Answer:b 8. The primary objective of formal technical reviews

Explanation:Lack of conformance to requirements is is to find _________ during the process so that they
lack of quality. do not become defects after release of the software.
3. Which of the following is not a SQA plan for a a) errors
project? b) equivalent faults
a) evaluations to be performed c) failure cause
b) amount of technical work d) None of the mentioned
c) audits and reviews to be performed
d) documents to be produced by the SQA group Answer:a
Explanation:Errors lead to faults
Answer:b 9. What is not included in prevention costs?
Explanation:All other options support a SQA plan. a) quality planning
4. Degree to which design specifications are b) formal technical reviews
followed in manufacturing the product is called c) test equipment
a) Quality Control d) equipment calibration and maintenance
b) Quality of conformance
c) Quality Assurance Answer:d
d) None of the mentioned Explanation:The cost of quality includes all costs
incurred in the pursuit of quality or in performing
Answer:b quality-related activities.
10. Software quality assurance consists of the
5. Which of the following is not included in External auditing and reporting functions of management.
failure costs? a) True
a) testing b) False
b) help line support
c) warranty work Answer:a
d) complaint resolution

Answer:a .
Explanation:External failure costs are associated
with defects found after the product has been ISO 9001 and CMM -
shipped to the customer. “ISO 9001 and CMM”.
6. Which of the following is not an appraisal cost in 1. CMM stands for
SQA? a) Capability Management Module
a) inter-process inspection b) Conservative Maturity Model
b) maintenance c) Capability Maturity Module
c) quality planning d) Capability Maturity Model
d) testing
Answer:d
Answer:c Explanation:The Capability Maturity Model for
Explanation:It is associated prevention cost. Software describes the principles and practices
7. Who identifies, documents, and verifies that underlying software process maturity and is intended
corrections have been made to the software? to help software organizations improve the maturity
a) Project manager of their software processes in terms of an
b) Project team evolutionary path from adhoc, chaotic processes to
c) SQA group mature, disciplined software processes.
d) All of the mentioned 2. The ISO 9000 series of standards is a program
that can be used for external quality assurance
purposes. Answer:c
a) True Explanation:The CMM is organized into five
b) False maturity levels as namely: Initial, Repeatable,
Defined, Managed and Optimizing.
Answer:b 7. In CMM, the life cycle activities of requirements
Explanation:The ISO 9000 series of standards is a analysis, design, code, and test are described in
set of documents. a) Software Product Engineering
3. According to ISO 9001, the causes of b) Software Quality Assurance
nonconforming product should be c) Software Subcontract Management
a) deleted d) Software Quality Management
b) eliminated
c) identified Answer:a
d) eliminated and identified Explanation:In CMM planning these activities is
described in Software Project Planning, however the
Answer:d life cycle activities of requirements analysis, design,
Explanation: ISO 9001 requires that the causes of code, and test are described in Software Product
nonconforming product to be identified. Potential Engineering.
causes of nonconforming product are eliminated. 8. Which of the following requires design control
4. .CO poliy in CMM means measures, such as holding and recording design
a) The leadership practices in Commitment to reviews and qualification tests?
Perform a) CMM
b) The organizational structure (groups) practices in b) ISO 9001
Ability to Perform c) ISO 9000-3
c) The policy practices in Commitment to Perform d) None of the mentioned
d) The planning practices in Commitment to
Perform Answer:c
Explanation:ISO 9000-3 states that the supplier
Answer:c should carry out reviews to ensure the requirements
Explanation: CMM have certain policy practices are met and design methods are correctly carried
covered under .CO policy. out.
5. ISO 9001 is not concerned with ____________ of 9. The CMM emphasizes
quality records. a) continuous process improvement
a) collection b) the need to record information
b) maintenance c) the need to accept quality system
c) verification d) both a and b
d) dis-positioning
Answer:
Answer:c Explanation: CMM emphasizes the need to record
Explanation:The practices defining the quality information for later use in the process and for
records to be maintained in the CMM are distributed improvement of the process.
throughout the key process areas in the various 10. _______ states that, where appropriate, adequate
Activities Performed practices. statistical techniques are identified and used to
6. Which of the following is not a maturity level in verify the acceptability of process capability and
CMM? product characteristics.
a) Design a) ISO 9001
b) Repeatable b) ISO 9000-4
c) Managed c) CMM
d) Optimizing d) All of the mentioned
Answer:a d) process
Explanation: ISO 9001 states that, where,
appropriate adequate statistical techniques are Answer:d
identified and used to verify the acceptability of Explanation:This view is useful for making
process capability and product characteristics. judgments about non-functional system
characteristics such as performance and availability.
. 5. Which of the following is an architectural
conflict?
Architectural Design - a) Using large-grain components improves
“Architectural Design”. performance but reduces maintainability
1. Architectural design is a creative process b) Introducing redundant data improves availability
satisfying only functional-requirements of a system. but makes security more difficult
a) True c) Localizing safety-related features usually means
b) False more communication so degraded performance
d) All of the mentioned
Answer:b
Explanation:In architectural design you design a Answer:d
system organization satisfying the functional and Explanation:High availability architecture can be
non-functional requirements of a system. affected by several design factors that are required to
2. A ________ view shows the system hardware and be maintained to ensure that no single points of
how software components are distributed across the failure exist in such design.
processors in the system. 6. Which of the following is not included in
a) physical Architectural design decisions?
b) logical a) type of application
c) process b) distribution of the system
c) architectural styles
Answer:a d) testing the system
Explanation:A physical view is implemented by
system engineers implementing the system Answer:d
hardware. Explanation: Architectural design decisions include
3. The UML was designed for describing decisions on the type of application, the distribution
_________. of the system, the architectural styles to be used, and
a) object-oriented systems the ways in which the architecture should be
b) architectural design documented and evaluated.
c) SRS 7. Architecture once established can be applied to
d) Both object-oriented systems and Architectural other products as well.
design a) True
b) False
Answer:d
Explanation:The UML was designed for describing Answer:b
object-oriented systems and, at the architectural Explanation:Systems in the same domain often have
design stage, you often want to describe systems at a similar architectures that reflect domain concepts.
higher level of abstraction. 8. Which of the following pattern is the basis of
4. Which of the following view shows that the interaction management in many web-based
system is composed of interacting processes at run systems?
time? a) architecture
a) physical b) repository pattern
b) development c) model-view-controller
c) logical d) different operating system
Answer:c buildings include movement detectors in individual
Explanation:Model-View-Controller pattern is the rooms, door sensors that detect corridor doors
basis of interaction management in many web-based opening, and window sensors on ground-floor
systems. windows that can detect when a window has been
9. What describes how a set of interacting opened.
components can share data? 2. Which of the following is not real-time
a) model-view-controller architectural patterns that are commonly used?
b) architecture pattern a) Asynchronous communication
c) repository pattern b) Observe and React
d) None of the mentioned c) Environmental Control
d) Process Pipeline
Answer:c
Explanation:The majority of systems that use large Answer:a
amounts of data are organized around a shared Explanation:These patterns can be combined and
database or repository. you will often see more than one of them in a single
10. Which view in architectural design shows the system.
key abstractions in the system as objects or object 3. A monitoring system examines its environment
classes? through
a) physical a) operating system
b) development b) communication
c) logical c) set of sensors
d) process d) none of these

Answer:c Answer:c
Explanation:It is possible to relate the system Explanation:If some exceptional event or sensor
requirements to entities in a logical view. state is detected by the system, the monitoring
11. Which of the following is a type of Architectural system takes some action. Often, this involves
Model? raising an alarm to draw an operator’s attention to
a) Static structural model the event.
b) Dynamic process model 4. Which of the following is applicable on software
c) Distribution model radio?
d) All of the mentioned a) Environmental Control
b) Process Pipeline
Answer:d c) Distributed system
Explanation:All these models reflects the basic d) None of the mentioned
strategy that is used to structure a system.
Answer:b
. Explanation:A software radio accepts incoming
packets of digital data representing the radio
Architectural Patterns - transmission and transforms these into a sound
“Architectural Patterns”. signal that people can listen to.
1. Which of these following sensor is a useful as part 5. An example of a system that may use a process
of a burglar alarm system for commercial buildings? pipeline is a high-speed
a) Movement detector a) data distributing system
b) Door sensor b) data acquisition system
c) Window sensor c) data collector system
d) All of the mentioned d) none of the mentioned

Answer:d
Explanation:A burglar alarm system for commercial
Answer:b rapid processing possible by breaking down the
Explanation:Data acquisition systems collect data required data processing into a sequence of separate
from sensors for subsequent processing and analysis. transformations, with each transformation carried
6. Monitoring systems are an important class of out by an independent process.
embedded real-time systems.
a) True .
b) False
Application Architectures -
Answer:a “Application Architectures”.
Explanation:A monitoring system examines its 1. Which of the following examples is/are models of
environment through a set of sensors and, usually, application architectures?
displays the state of the environment in some way. a) a means of assessing components for reuse
7. Which of the following is an example of a b) a design checklist
controller for a car braking system? c) a vocabulary for talking about types of
a) Observe and React applications
b) Process Pipeline d) All of the mentioned
c) Environmental Control
Answer:d
Answer:d Explanation:Application architectures encapsulate
Explanation:An anti-skid braking system in a car the principal characteristics of a class of systems.
monitors the car’s wheels and brake system . 2. ERP stands for
8. ETL stands for a) Enterprise Research Planning
a) Data Extraction Transformation & Loading b) Enterprise Resource Planning
b) Data Execution Transformation & Loading c) Enterprise Resource Package
c) Extraction Transformation & Loading d) Enterprise Research Package
d) Execution Transformation & Loading
Answer:b
Answer:a
3. Which of the following type describes application
9. Control systems may make use of the architectures?
Environmental Control pattern, which is a general a) Transaction processing applications
control pattern that includes _________processes. b) Language processing systems
a) sensor c) Client management systems
b) actuator d) Transaction processing applications and
c) pipeline Language processing systems
d) both sensor and actuator e) All of the mentioned

Answer:d Answer:d
Explanation:Such patterns are quite common in Explanation:Transaction processing applications are
Environmental Control Systems. database-centered applications that process user
10. ________ can be associated with a separate requests for information and update the information
processor or core, so that the processing steps can be
in a database, while language processing systems are
carried out in parallel. systems in which the user’s intentions are expressed
a) Process Pipeline in a formal language.
b) Environmental Control 4. All the operations in a transaction need to be
c) Observe and React completed before the database changes are made
d) none of the mentioned ________.
a) functional
Answer:a b) available to the users
Explanation:The Process Pipeline pattern makes this c) permanent
d) None of the mentioned Architecture, Repository, Client–server, and Pipe
and Filter.
Answer:b 9. A language-processing systems may translate an
Explanation:This ensures that failure of operations XML data description into
within the transaction does not lead to a) a machine code
inconsistencies in the database. b) an alternative XML representation
5. Systems that involve interaction with a shared c) machine code and alternative XML representation
database can be considered as. d) a software module
a) software-based
b) transaction-based Answer:c
c) server-based Explanation:Such is the property and function of
d) client-based language processing system.
10. Transaction processing systems may be
Answer:b organized as a _________ architecture with system
Explanation:Such systems with a shared database components responsible for input, processing, and
are also referred to as transaction based information output.
systems. a) Repository
6. What translates a natural or an artificial language b) Client–server
into another representation of that language and, for c) Model-View-Controller
programming languages also execute the resulting d) Pipe and Filter
code?
a) ERP systems Answer:d
b) Transaction-based information systems
c) Language processing systems
d) None of the mentioned .

Answer:c Unified Modelling Language -

Explanation:In software engineering, compilers by mod2
translate an artificial programming language into “Unified Modelling Language”.
machine code. 1. Object oriented analysis and design can be
7. Properties of a system such as performance and handled by the one who knows UML.
security are independent of the architecture used. a) True
a) True b) False
b) False
Answer: False
Answer:b Explanation: The Unified Modeling Language
Explanation:Properties such as performance, includes a set of graphic notation techniques to
security, and availability are influenced by the create visual models of object-oriented software-
architecture used. intensive systems.
8. Which of the following is/are commonly used 2. At Conceptual level Class diagrams should
architectural pattern(s)? include
a) Model-View-Controller a) operations only
b) Layered Architecture b) attributes only
c) Client–server c) both (a) and (b)
d) All of the mentioned d) None of the mentioned

Answer:d Answer: b
Explanation:Commonly used architectural patterns Explanation: In software engineering, a class
include Model-View-Controller, Layered diagram in the Unified Modeling Language (UML)
is a type of static structure diagram that describes
the structure of a system by showing the system’s Answer: d
classes, their attributes, operations, and the Explanation: Generalization, include, extend all of
relationships among objects. these are valid relationships in use case diagrams.
3. Select the statement true for activity diagrams. 8. Which of the following statement(s) is true about
a) They can be used to discover parallel activities interaction diagrams?
b) They are used to depict workflow for a particular a) Interaction diagrams are at their best when they
business activity deal with one main design flow and not multiple
c) Activity diagram do not tell who does what and variants that can happen.
are difficult to trace back to object models b) Interaction diagrams are good at designing part or
d) All of the mentioned all of one use case’s functionality across multiple
objects.
Answer: d c) Interaction diagrams allow the analyst to show
Explanation: Activity diagrams are graphical iteration and conditional execution for messaging
representations of workflows of step wise activities between objects.
and actions with support for choice, iteration and d) All of these
concurrency.
4. Constraints can be represented in UML by Answer: d
a) {text} Explanation: Interaction diagram is used to describe
b) [text] c) constraint some type of interactions among the different
d) None of the mentioned elements in the model. So this interaction is a part of
dynamic behaviour of the system.
Answer: a 9. UML interfaces are used to:
Explanation: Constraints are represented by {text a) specify required services for types of objects.
string}. b) program in Java, but not in C++ or Smalltalk.
5. What is an object? c) define executable logic to reuse across classes.
a) An object is an instance of a class. d) define an API for all classes.
b) An object includes encapsulation of data
c) An object is not an instance of a class Answer: a
Explanation: An interface is like a template design
Answer: a for a class that contains no data or implementation;
Explanation: An object is an instance of a class. only definitions for methods, properties etc.
6. What is an abstract class? 10. Referring to the attached diagram, the arrow
a) A class that has direct instances, but whose indicates:
descendants may have direct instances. a) Navigability
b) A class that has direct instances, but whose b) Dependency
descendants may not have direct instances. c) Association
c) A class that has no direct instances, but whose d) Refers to
descendants may have direct instances.
Answer: a
Answer: c Explanation: The arrows describe the ways you can
Explanation: An abstract type is a type in a navigate.
nominative type system which cannot be instantiated
directly.
7. Which of the following are the valid relationships Building Blocks of UML -
in Use Case Diagrams “Building Blocks of UML”.
a) Generalization 1. Which of the following is a building block of
b) Include UML?
c) Extend a) Things
d) All of the mentioned b) Relationships
c) Diagrams
d) All of the mentioned d) Annotational things

Answer:d Answer:b
Explanation:All are the building blocks of UML Explanation:These are the verbs of a model,
which are further sub-categorized. representing behavior over time and space.
2. Classes and interfaces are a part of 7. Which diagram in UML emphasizes the time-
a) Structural things ordering of messages?
b) Behavioral things a) Activity
c) Grouping things b) Sequence
d) Annotational things c) Collaboration
d) Class
Answer:a
Explanation:Structural things are mostly static parts Answer:b
of a model, representing elements that are either Explanation:This diagram is a model describing how
conceptual or physical. groups of objects collaborate in some behavior over
3.What is a collection of operations that specify a time.
service of a class or component? 8. Object diagram captures the behavior of a single
a) Use Case use case.
b) Actor a) True
c) Interface b) False
d) Relationship
Answer:b
Answer:c Explanation:Sequence Diagram is responsible for
this.
4. What is a physical element that exists at run time 9. If you are working on real-time process control
in UML? applications or systems that involve concurrent
a) A node processing, you would use a
b) An interface a) Activity diagram
c) An activity b) Sequence diagram
d) None of the mentioned c) Statechart diagram
d) Object diagram
Answer:a
Explanation:A node represents a computational Answer:c
resource. Explanation:A statechart diagram shows a state
5. What can be requested from any object of the machine, consisting of states, transitions, events, and
class to affect behavior? activities.
a) object 10. Which diagram shows the configuration of run-
b) attribute time processing elements?
c) operation a) Deployment diagram
d) instance b) Component diagram
c) Node diagram
Answer:c d) ER-diagram
Explanation:An operation is the implementation of a
service that can be requested from any object of the Answer:a
class to affect behavior. Explanation:A Deployment diagram shows the
6. Which things are dynamic parts of UML models? configuration of run-time processing elements and
a) Structural things the software components, processes, and objects.
b) Behavioral things 11. Which things in UML are the explanatory parts
c) Grouping things of UML models?
a) Structural things
b) Behavioral things
c) Grouping things
d) Annotational things

Answer:d
Explanation:It include a note which is simply a
symbol for rendering constraints and comments
attached to an element or a collection of elements. a) Aggregation
12. Which of the following term is best defined by b) Dependency
the statement:”a structural relationship that specifies c) Generalization
that objects of one thing are connected to objects of d) Association
another”?
a) Association Answer:a
b) Aggregation Explanation: The figure is self explanatory.
c) Realization 3. Which core element of UML is being shown in
d) Generalization the figure?

Answer:a

13. What refers to the value associated with a

specific attribute of an object and to any actions or
side?
a) Object
b) State a) Node
c) Interface b) Interface
d) None of the mentioned c) Class
d) Component
Answer:b
Explanation:In a state chart diagram, effects occur Answer:d
when the attribute’s value changes. Explanation: The figure is self explanatory. A
component is a modular, significant and replaceable
. part of the system that packages implementation and
exposes a set of interfaces.
Diagrams in UML - 1 - 4. What type of relationship is represented by Shape
by mod2 class and Square ?
“Diagrams in UML-1 “.
1. Which of the following UML diagrams has a
static view?
a) Collaboration
b) Use case
c) State chart
d) Activity

Answer:b
Explanation: A use case diagrams captures only the
functionality of the system whereas a dynamic a) Realization
model/view captures the functions as well as the b) Generalization
action. c) Aggregation
2. What type of core-relationship is represented by d) Dependency
the symbol in the figure below?
Answer: b b) seven
Explanation: The generalization relationship is also c) eight
known as the inheritance relationship. In the figure d) nine
Square is the sub class of super class shape.
5. Which diagram in UML shows a complete or Answer:d
partial view of the structure of a modeled system at a Explanation: The nine UML diagrams include use-
specific time? case, sequence, collaboration, activity, state-chart,
a) Sequence Diagram deployment, class, object and component.
b) Collaboration Diagram 2. Which UML diagram is shown below?
c) Class Diagram
d) Object Diagram

Answer: d
Explanation: An object diagram focuses on some
particular set of object instances and attributes, and
the links between the instances. It is a static snapshot
of a dynamic view of the system.
6. Interaction Diagram is a combined term for
a) Sequence Diagram + Collaboration Diagram
b) Activity Diagram + State Chart Diagram
c) Deployment Diagram + Collaboration Diagram
d) None of the mentioned

Answer: a
Explanation: Interaction diagram are used to
formalize the dynamic behavior of the system.
7. Structure diagrams emphasize the things that must
be present in the system being modeled.
a) True
b) False

Answer: a a) Use Case

Explanation: Since structure diagrams represent the b) Collaboration Diagram
structure they are used extensively in documenting c) Class Diagram
the architecture of software systems d) Object Diagram
8. Which of the following diagram is time oriented?
a) Collaboration Answer:a
b) Sequence Explanation: The diagram is self explanatory.
c) Activity

Answer:b
Explanation: A sequence diagrams timeline along
which tasks are completed.

Software Engineering Questions and Answers –

Diagrams in UML – 2
“Diagrams in UML – 2”.
1. How many diagrams are here in Unified
Modelling Language?
a) six
3. Which UML diagram is shown below? c) Sequence Diagram
d) Object Diagram

Answer:c
Explanation: The diagram is self explanatory.
5. Which UML diagram’s symbols are shown
below?

a) Deployment diagram
b) Collaboration Diagram
c) Component Diagram
d) Object Diagram

a) Use Case Answer:a

b) State Chart Explanation: The diagram is self explanatory.
c) Activiy 6. Which UML diagram is shown below?
d) Object Diagram

Answer:b
Explanation: The diagram is self explanatory.
4. Which UML diagram is shown below?

a) Deployment diagram
b) Collaboration Diagram
c) Object Diagram
d) Class Diagram

Answer:d
Explanation: The diagram is self explanatory.

a) Use Case
b) Collaboration Diagram
7. Which UML diagram is shown below? Answer:a
Explanation: The diagram is self explanatory.

Object Oriented Design using UML -

“Object Oriented Design using UML”.
1. Which of the following is not needed to develop a
system design from concept to detailed object-
oriented design?
a) Designing system architecture
b) Developing design models
c) Specifying interfaces
d) Developing a debugging system

Answer:d
Explanation:The debugging system is a part of
testing phase.
2. Which of the following is a dynamic model that
shows how the system interacts with its environment
as it is used?
a) system context model
b) interaction model
c) environmental model
a) Activity d) both system context and interaction
b) State chart
c) Sequence Answer:b
c) Collaboration
3. Which of the following is a structural model that
Answer:a demonstrates the other systems in the environment
Explanation: The diagram is self explanatory. of the system being developed?
8. Which UML diagram is shown below? a) system context model
b) interaction model
c) environmental model
d) both system context and interaction

Answer:a
Explanation:The context model of a system may be
represented using associations. Associations simply
show that there are some relationships between the
entities involved in the association.
4. Which of the following come under system
control?
a) Reconfigure
b) Shutdown
c) Powersave
d) All of the mentioned
a) Component
b) Deployment Answer:d
c) Use Case Explanation: Functionalities are governed by the
d) DFD system.
5. We use _________ where various parts of system b) remoteControl()
use are identified and analyzed in turn. c) reconfigure()
a) tangible entities d) reportStatus()
b) scenario-based analysis
c) design-based analysis Answer:d
d) None of the mentioned
10. Open source development involves making the
Answer:b source code of a system publicly available.
Explanation:Use a scenario-based analysis where a) True
various scenarios of system use are identified and b) False
analyzed in turn.
6. Which model describes the static structure of the Answer:a
system using object classes and their relationships? Explanation:This means that many people can
a) Sequence model propose changes and improvements to the software.
b) Subsystem model
c) Dynamic model .
d) Structural model
Analysis Modelling -
Answer:d “Analysis Modelling”.
Explanation:Important relationships that may be 1. Which of the following is not the primary
documented at this stage are generalization objectives in the analysis model?
(inheritance) relationships, uses/used-by a) describing the customer complaints
relationships, and composition relationships. b) establishing a basis for the creation of a software
7. Which model shows the flow of object design
interactions? c) defining a set of requirements that can be
a) Sequence model validated once the software is built
b) Subsystem model d) None of the mentioned
c) Dynamic model
d) Both Sequence and Dynamic model Answer:d
Explanation:All the options are covered in analysis
Answer:a model.
Explanation.Sequence model are represented using a 2. A description of each function presented in the
UML sequence or a collaboration diagram and are DFD is contained in a ________.
dynamic models a) data flow
8. If the system state is Shutdown then it can b) process specification
respond to which of the following message? c) control specification
a) restart() d) data store
b) reconfigure()
c) powerSave() Answer:b
d) All of the mentioned
3. Which diagram indicates the behaviour of the
Answer:d system as a consequence of external events?
Explanation:A restart() message causes a transition a) data flow diagram
to normal operation. Both the powerSave() and b) state transition diagram
reconfigure() messages cause a transition to a state c) control specification diagram
in which the system reconfigures itself. d) workflow diagram
9. Which message is received so that the system
moves to the Testing state, then the Transmitting Answer:b
state, before returning to the Running state? Explanation:The state transition diagram represents
a) signalStatus() the various modes of behavior (called states) of the
system and the manner in which transitions are made element and the result in control output.
from state to state. a) True
4. A data model contains b) False
a) data object
b) attributes Answer:a
c) relationships Explanation:Standard flow of condition check.
d) All of the mentioned 9. The __________ enables the software engineer to
develop models of the information domain and
Answer:d functional domain at the same time
Explanation: The data model consists of three a) data flow diagram
interrelated pieces of information: the data object, b) state transition diagram
the attributes that describe the data object, and the c) control specification
relationships that connect data objects to one d) activity diagram
another.
5. _________ defines the properties of a data object Answer:a
and take on one of the three different characteristics. Explanation:As the DFD is refined into greater
a) data object levels of detail, the analyst performs an implicit
b) attributes functional decomposition of the system, thereby
c) relationships accomplishing the fourth operational analysis
d) data object and attributes principle for function.
10. The __________ contains a state transition
Answer:b diagram that is a sequential specification of
Explanation:They can be used to name an instance behavior.
of the data object, describe the instance, or make a) data flow diagram
reference to another instance in another table. b) state transition diagram
6. The __________ of a relationship is 0 if there is c) control specification
no explicit need for the relationship to occur or the d) workflow diagram
relationship is optional.
a) modality Answer:c
b) cardinality Explanation:The control specification(CSPEC)
c) entity describes the behavior of the system, but it gives us
d) structured analysis no information about the inner working of the
processes that are activated as a result of this
Answer:a behavior .
Explanation:The modality is 1 if an occurrence of
the relationship is mandatory, else 0 for optional .
relationship.
7. A _________ is a graphical representation that Component Level Design -
depicts information flow and the transforms that are “Component Level Design”.
applied as data moves from input to output. 1. Which of the following is not a construct?
a) data flow diagram a) sequence
b) state transition diagram b) condition
c) control specification c) repetition
d) workflow diagram d) selection

Answer:b Answer:d
Explanation:The basic form of a data flow diagram, Explanation: Sequence implements processing steps
also known as a data flow graph or a bubble chart. that are essential in the specification of any
8. A data condition occurs whenever a data is passed algorithm. Condition provides the facility for
to an input element followed by a processing
selected processing based on some logical 6. Which diagram evolved from a desire to develop
occurrence, and repetition allows for looping. a procedural design representation that would not
2.Which of the following steps is applied to develop allow violation of the structured constructs?
a decision table? a) State transition diagram
a) List all actions that can be associated with a b) Box diagram
specific procedure c) ER diagram
b) List all conditions during execution of the d) None of the mentioned
procedure.
c) Define rules by indicating what action(s) occurs Answer:b
for a set of conditions. Explanation:None.
d) All of the mentioned 7. A __________ executes the loop task first, then
tests a condition and repeats the task until the
Answer:d condition fails.
Explanation: A decision table includes action stub a) repeat until
and a condition stub with a set of rules. b) condition
3. _________ is a pidgin(simplified version of a c) do while tests
language that develops as a means of d) if then-else
communication between two or more groups that do
not have a language in common) Answer:a
a) program design language
b) structured English 8. Which of the following is not a characteristics of
c) pseudocode box diagram?
d) All of the mentioned a) functional domain
b) arbitrary transfer of control is impossible
Answer:d c) recursion is easy to represent
Explanation:The difference between PDL and a real d) providing a notation that translates actions and
programming language lies in the use of narrative conditions
text embedded directly within PDL statements.
4. Which of the following term is best defined by the Answer:d
statement:”The ability to represent local and global Explanation:This functionality is covered by UML
data is an essential element of component-level diagrams.
design.”? 9. The________ is represented as two processing
a) Data representation boxes connected by an line (arrow) of control.
b) Logic verification a) Repetition
c) “Code-to” ability b) Sequence
d) Automatic processing c) Condition
d) None of the above
Answer:a
Answer:b
5. A software component
a) Implements some functionality 10. Which of the following term is best defined by
b) Has explicit dependencies through provides and the statement “Notation that can be input directly
required interfaces into a computer-based development system offers
c) Communicates through its interfaces only significant benefits.”?
d) All of the mentioned a) Machine readability
b) Maintainability
Answer:d c) Structure enforcement
Explanation:All the options identify with features of d) Overall simplicity
a software component.
Answer:a reduce the requirement to remember past actions and
Explanation:Readability is processing input. results.
5. Which of the following option is not considered
. by the Interface design?
a) the design of interfaces between software
User Interface Design - components
“User Interface Design”. b) the design of interfaces between the software and
1. Which of the following is golden rule for interface human producers and consumers of information
design? c) the design of the interface between two computers
a) Place the user in control d) all of the mentioned
b) Reduce the user’s memory load
c) Make the interface consistent Answer:c
d) All of the mentioned Explanation:The answer is self explanatory
6. A software might allow a user to interact via
Answer:d a) keyboard commands
Explanation:These golden rules actually form the b) mouse movement
basis for a set of user interface design principles that c) voice recognition commands
guide this important software design activity. d) all of the mentioned
2. Which of the following is not a design principle
that allow the user to maintain control? Answer:d
a) Provide for flexible interaction Explanation:All the mentioned input mediums are
b) Allow user interaction to be interrupt-able and available today.
undo-able 7. A software engineer designs the user interface by
c) Show technical internals from the casual user applying an iterative process that draws on
d) Design for direct interaction with objects that predefined design principles.
appear on the screen a) True
b) False
Answer:c
Explanation:The user interface should move the user Answer:a
into the virtual world of the application. Explanation:The statement is true.
3. Which of the following is not a user interface 8. What incorporates data, architectural, interface,
design process? and procedural representations of the software?
a) User, task, and environment analysis and a) design model
modeling b) user’s model
b) Interface design c) mental image
c) Knowledgeable, frequent users d) system image
d) Interface validation
Answer:a
Answer:c Explanation:The requirements specification may
Explanation:These are the end user for whom the establish certain constraints that help to define the
product is being built. user of the system, but the interface design is often
4. When users are involved in complex tasks, the only incidental to the design model.
demand on __________ can be significant. 9. What establishes the profile of end-users of the
a) short-term memory system?
b) shortcuts a) design model
c) objects that appear on the screen b) user’s model
d) all of the mentioned c) mental image
d) system image
Answer:a
Explanation:The interface should be designed to
Answer:b Answer:b
Explanation:To build an effective user interface, all Explanation:Integration testing is the phase in
design should begin with an understanding of the software testing in which individual software
intended users, including their profiles of their age, modules are combined and tested as a group.
physical abilities, education, etc. 4. Which test refers to the retesting of a unit,
10. What combines the outward manifestation of the integration and system after modification, in order to
computer-based system , coupled with all supporting ascertain that the change has not introduced new
information that describe system syntax and faults?
semantics? a) Regression Test
a) mental image b) Smoke Test
b) interface design c) Alpha Test
c) system image d) Beta Test
d) interface validation
Answer:a
Answer:c Explanation:Regression test seeks to uncover new
Explanation:When the system image and the system software bugs in existing functional and non-
perception are coincident, users generally feel functional areas of a system after changes have been
comfortable with the software and use it effectively. made to them.
5. Which of the following is a black box testing
. strategy?
a) All Statements Coverage
Test Case Design - b) Control Structure Coverage
“Test Case Design”. c) Cause-Effect Graphs
1. What do you understand by V&V in software d) All Paths Coverage
testing?
a) Verified Version Answer:c
b) Version Validation Explanation:Rest are test strategies of white box
c) Verification and Validation testing.
d) Version Verification 6. A set of inputs, execution preconditions and
expected outcomes is known as a
Answer:c a) Test plan
Explanation:V&V generally refers to any activity b) Test case
that attempts to ensure that the software will c) Test document
function as required. d) Test Suite
2. In static test techniques, behavioral and
performance properties of the program are observed. Answer:b
a) True
b) False 7. In which test design each input is tested at both
ends of its valid range and just outside its valid
Answer:b range?
Explanation:Static Analysis Techniques are based a) Boundary value testing
solely on the (manual or automated) examination of b) Equivalence class partitioning
project documentation of software models and code. c) Boundary value testing AND Equivalence class
3. Which granularity level of testing checks the partitioning
behavior of module cooperation? d) Decision tables
a) Unit Testing
b) Integration Testing Answer:a
c) Acceptance Testing Explanation:Boundary value analysis is a software
d) Regression Testing testing technique in which tests are designed to
include representatives of boundary values.
8. A white box test scales up well at different c) Product Restrictions Document
granularity levels of testing. d) None of the mentioned
a) True
b) False Answer:a
Explanation:A product requirements document
Answer:b (PRD) is a document written by a company that
Explanation:A white box test is mostly applicable at defines a product they are making, or the
unit and integration testing level. requirements for one or more new features for an
9. When does the testing process stops? existing product.
a) When resources (time and budget) are over
b) When some coverage is reached .
c) When quality criterion is reached
d) Testing never ends. Software Design Pattern -
“Software Design Pattern”.
Answer:c 1. Which mechanism is applied to use a design
Explanation:As software testing is an exhaustive pattern in an OO system?
process, when the quality assurance is established a) Inheritance
and the product is ready to be delivered, testing is b) Composition
stopped. c) All of the mentioned
10. Which of the following is not a part of a test d) None of the mentioned
design document?
a) Test Plan Answer:c
b) Test Design Specification Explanation:Using inheritance, an existing design
c) Test Case Specification pattern becomes a template for a new
d) Test Log subclass.Composition is a concept that leads to
aggregate objects.
Answer:d 2. Design patterns does not follow the concept of
Explanation:Test log is a part of testing result software reuse.
document. a) True
11. Specifying a set of test cases or test paths for b) False
each item to be tested at that level is known as
a) Test case generation Answer:b
b) Test case design Explanation:Design patterns allow the designer to
c) ALL of the mentioned create the system architecture by integrating
d) None of the mentioned reusable components.
3. The use of design patterns for the development of
Answer:c object-oriented software has important implications
for
12. Acceptance & system test planning are a part of a) component-based software engineering
architectural design. b) reusability in general
a) True c) All of the mentioned
b) False d) None of the mentioned

Answer:b Answer:c
Explanation:They are a part of requirements
engineering, while integration & unit test planning 4. Which of the following is a design pattern?
come under architectural design. a) Behavioral
13. PRD stands for b) Structural
a) Product Requirement Document c) Abstract Factory
b) Project Requirement Document
d) All of the mentioned d) None of the mentioned

Answer:d Answer:b
Explanation:All the options are design patterns so Explanation:In singleton pattern, the class itself is
option d. made responsible for keeping track of its
5. You want to minimize development cost by instance.Thus it ensures that no more than one
reusing methods? Which design pattern would you instance is created.
choose? 10. Facade pattern promotes weak coupling between
a) Adapter Pattern subsystem and its clients.
b) Singleton Pattern a) True
c) Delegation pattern b) False
d) Immutable Pattern
Answer:a
Answer:c Explanation:It is one of the patterns’s benefit.The
Explanation:The delegation pattern is a design facade pattern shields clients from subsystem classes
pattern in OOP where an object, instead of and reduces the number of objects that clients deal
performing one of its stated tasks, delegates that task with.
to an associated helper object. 11. Which design pattern defines one-to-many
6. You want to avoid multiple inheritance. Which dependency among objects?
design pattern would you choose? a) Singleton pattern
a) Abstraction-Occurrence Pattern b) Facade Pattern
b) Player-Role Pattern c) Observer pattern
c) General Hierarchy Pattern d) Factory method pattern
d) Singleton Pattern
Answer:c
Answer:b Explanation:Observer pattern defines one-to-many
Explanation:The answer is self-explanatory. dependency among objects so that when one object
7. The recurring aspects of designs are called design changes its state, all its dependents are notified.
a) patterns 12. Facade pattern couples a subsystem from its
b) documents clients.
c) structures a) True
d) methods b) False

Answer:a Answer:b
Explanation:A pattern is the outline of a reusable Explanation:A facade can be a single entry point to
solution to a general problem encountered in a each subsystem level. It decouples the subsystem.
particular context. 13. In factory method pattern, the framework must
8. Design pattern is a solution to a problem that instantiate classes but it only knows about the
occurs repeatedly in a variety of contexts. abstract classes, which it cannot initiate. How would
a) True one solve this problem?
b) False a) encapsulating the knowledge of which document
subclass to is to be created and
Answer:a b) moving this knowledge out of the framework
Explanation:Each design pattern has a name and use c) instantiating the application specific documents
of each pattern has consequences. without knowing their class
9. Which pattern prevents one from creating more d) All of the mentioned
than one instance of a variable?
a) Factory Method Answer:d
b) Singleton Explanation:Following all the options in order will
c) Observer solve the factory method problem.
 b) Shared components are woven into an application
. at different places when the program is compiled.
c) Large-scale systems that encapsulate generic
business functionality and rules are configured for
Software Reuse - an organization.
“Software Reuse”. d) Systems are developed by configuring and
1. Reuse-based software engineering is a software integrating existing application systems.
engineering strategy where the development process
is geared to reusing existing software. Answer:d
a) True Explanation:The answer is self explanatory.
b) False 6. .NET are specific to which platform?
a) Java
Answer:a b) Mac-OS
Explanation:The answer is self explanatory. c) Microsoft
2. The open source movement has meant that there d) LINUX
is a huge reusable code base available at
a) free of cost Answer:c
b) low cost Explanation:NET Framework (pronounced dot net)
c) high cost is a software framework developed by Microsoft
d) short period of time that runs primarily on Microsoft Windows.
7. Which of the following is a generic structure that
Answer:b is extended to create a more specific subsystem or
Explanation:The open source movement has meant application?
that there is a huge reusable code base available at a) Software reuse
low cost. This may be in the form of program b) Object-oriented programming language
libraries or entire applications. c) Framework
3. Consider the example and categorize it d) None of the mentioned
accordingly, “A pattern-matching system developed
as part of a text-processing system may be reused in Answer:c
a database management system”. Explanation:Frameworks are implemented as a
a) Application system reuse collection of concrete and abstract object classes in
b) Component reuse an object-oriented programming language.
c) Object and function reuse 8. “An ordering system may be adapted to cope with
d) None of the mentioned a centralized ordering process in one company and a
distributed process in another.” Which category the
Answer:b example belong to?
Explanation:Components of an application, ranging a) Process specialization
in size from subsystems to single objects, may be b) Platform specialization
reused. c) Environment specialization
4. COTS stands for d) Functional specialization
a) Commercial Off-The-Shelf systems
b) Commercial Off-The-Shelf states Answer:a
c) Commercial Off-The-System state Explanation:In process specialization, the system is
d) None of the mentioned adapted to cope with specific business processes.
9. What are generic application systems that may be
Answer:a designed to support a particular business type,
Explanation:The answer is self explanatory. activity, or sometimes a complete enterprise?
5. COTS product reuse means a) COTS-solution systems
a) Class and function libraries that implement b) COTS-integrated systems
commonly used abstractions are available for reuse. c) ERP systems
d) Both COTS-solution and COTS-integrated 2.In which of the following language the
systems frameworks will not work?
a) C#
Answer:a b) Ruby
Explanation:The answer is self explanatory c) PHP
10. Which of the following is not an advantages of d) Java
software reuse?
a) lower costs Answer:c
b) faster software development Explanation:Frameworks available in all of the
c) high effectiveness commonly used object-oriented programming
d) lower risks languages.
3. Which frameworks support the development of
Answer:c system infrastructures such as communications, user
Explanation:Effectiveness depends on how one interfaces, and compilers?
reuses the existing product. a) Middleware integration frameworks
11. ERP stands for b) System infrastructure framework
a) Effective Reuse Planning c) Enterprise application frameworks
b) Enterprise Resource Planning d) Web application frameworks
c) Effective Research Planning
d) None of the mentioned Answer:b
Explanation:The answer is self explanatory.
Answer:b 4. The MVC pattern was originally proposed in the
Explanation:Enterprise Resource Planning systems 1980s as an approach to
are examples of large-scale COTS reuse. a) Web application frameworks
12. Which framework class include standards and b) Middleware integration frameworks
classes that support component communication and c) Web application frameworks
information exchange? d) GUI design
a) System infrastructure frameworks
b) Middleware integration frameworks Answer:d
c) Enterprise application frameworks Explanation:The MVC pattern was originally
d) MVC proposed in the 1980s as an approach to GUI design
that allowed for multiple presentations of an object
Answer:b and separate styles of interaction with each of these
Explanation:The answer is self explanatory. presentations.
. 5. MVC framework includes
a) Observer pattern
Application Frameworks in Software Reuse - b) Strategy pattern
“Application Frameworks in Software Reuse”. c) Composite pattern
1.Which of the following is not a benefit of software d) All of the mentioned
reuse?
a) Standards compliance Answer:d
b) Increased Reliability Explanation:MVC framework includes the Observer
c) Reduced Process risk pattern, the Strategy pattern, the Composite pattern,
d) Maintaining a component library and a number of others .
6. Which category the following statement
Answer:c belongs,”Classes to create and manage sessions are
Explanation:There can be thousands of components usually part of a WAF”?
in a frameworks whose maintenance is quite a) Session management
difficult. b) Security
c) User interaction
d) Database support Formal Methods of Software Engineering -
“Formal Methods of Software Engineering”.
Answer:a 1. Which of the following option is not provided by
Explanation:The answer is self explanatory. formal methods?
7. Which framework’s applications are difficult to a) providing frameworks
deal with? b) verifying systems
a) MVC pattern c) provide investors
b) Web application frameworks d) both providing frameworks and verifying systems
c) Debugging framework
d) None of the mentioned Answer:d
Explanation:A method is formal if it has a sound
Answer:c mathematical basis, typically given by a formal
Explanation:Debugging framework based specification language.
applications is difficult because you may not 2. ___________ are statements that can be
understand how the framework methods interact. interpreted in a number of ways.
This is a general problem with reusable software . a) Contradictions
8. Which category the following statement b) Ambiguities
belongs,”Frameworks don’t usually include a c) Vagueness
database but rather assume that a separate database d) Comments
such as MySQl”?
a) Session management Answer:a
b) Security Explanation:As the name indicates, these statements
c) User interaction may be interpreted differently as per user.
d) Database support 3. What defines the circumstances in which a
particular operation is valid?
Answer:d a) Contradictions
Explanation:The answer is self explanatory. b) Post-condition
9. Which option supports the statement:”Most web c) Vagueness
frameworks now provide AJAX support”? d) None of the mentioned
a) Session Management
b) Security Answer:d
c) User interaction Explanation:A precondition defines the
d) Database support circumstances in which a particular operation is
valid.
Answer:c 4. Which of the following is a way of making a
Explanation:The answer is self explanatory. statement about the elements of a set that is true for
10. Frameworks are an effective approach to reuse, every member of the set?
but are _________ to introduce into software a) Set
development processes. b) Sequence
a) difficult c) Universal quantification
b) expensive d) both Set and Sequence
c) unreliable
d) difficult and expensive Answer:c
Explanation:The answer is self explanatory.
Answer:d 5. Which of the following occurs often due to the
Explanation:Frameworks can be difficult and bulkiness of a system specification document?
expensive to evaluate available frameworks to a) Contradictions
choose the most appropriate one. b) Ambiguities
. c) Vagueness
d) Incompleteness 10. It is generally not necessary to apply formal
methods to every aspect of a major system.
Answer:c a) True
Explanation:Achieving a high level of precision b) False
consistently is an almost impossible task.
6. The _________ of a formal specification language Answer:a
is often based on a syntax that is derived from Explanation:Those components that are safety
standard set theory notation and predicate calculus. critical are first choices, followed by components
a) semantic domain whose failure cannot be tolerated.
b) syntactic domain .
c) sequence
d) set Cleanroom Software Engineering -
“Cleanroom Software Engineering”.
Answer:b 1. Who was first to proposed the Cleanroom
Explanation:The answer is self explanatory philosophy in software engineering ?
7. Which of the following provides a concise, a) Mills
unambiguous, and consistent method for b) Dyer
documenting system requirements? c) Linger
a) CMM d) All of the Mentioned
b) ISO-9001
c) CASE tools Answer:d
d) Formal methods Explanation:The Cleanroom philosophy was first
proposed for software engineering by Mills, Dyer,
Answer:d and Linger during the 1980s.
Explanation:Formal methods provide a concise, 2. How does Cleanroom software engineering
unambiguous, and consistent method for differs from the conventional and object-oriented
documenting system requirements. views ?
8. The ____________ of a specification language a) It makes explicit use of statistical quality control.
indicates how the language represents system b) It verifies design specification using a
requirements. mathematically based proof of correctness.
a) semantic domain c) It relies heavily on statistical use testing to
b) syntactic domain uncover high-impact errors.
c) sequence d) All of the mentioned
d) set
Answer:d
Answer:a Explanation:The answer is self explanatory.
Explanation:For example, a programming language 3. Cleanroom software engineering complies with
has a set of formal semantics that enables the the operational analysis principles by using a
software developer to specify algorithms that method called known as
transform input to output. a) box structure specification
9. Which of the following is essential for success, b) referential transparency
when formal methods are used for the first time? c) degenerative error correction
a) Expert training d) None of the mentioned
b) Consulting
c) Pre-requisite knowledge Answer:a
d) Both Expert training and Consulting Explanation:Box structures are descriptions of
e) All of the mentioned functions that exhibit properties essential for
effective system specification and design.
Answer:d 4. What encapsulates state data and services in a
Explanation:The answer is self-explanatory. manner that is analogous to objects?
a) State box 9. Which of the following is required for
b) Clean box Certification for cleanroom software engineering?
c) White box a) Sampling model
d) Black box b) Component model
c) Certification model
Answer:a d) All of the mentioned
Explanation:In this specification view, inputs to the
state box (stimuli) and outputs (responses) are Answer:d
represented. Explanation:The answer is self explanatory.
5. MTTF stands for 10. The philosophy of Cleanroom SE focuses on
a) mean-time-to-function defect removal rather than defect avaoidance.
b) mean-time-to-failure a) True
c) manufacture-time-to-function b) False
d) None of the mentioned
Answer:b
Answer:b Explanation: The philosophy focuses on defect
Explanation:The answer is self explanatory. avoidance rather than defect removal.
6. The transition functions that are implied by the 11. Which of the following Cleanroom process
state box are defined in teams develops set of statistical test to exercise
a) Yellow box software after development?
b) Clear box a) Specification team
c) White box b) Development team
d) Black box c) Certification team
.
Answer:b
Explanation:Stated simply, a clear box contains the Component Based Software Engineering -
procedural design for the state box. “Component Based Software Engineering”.
7. Which of the following is not included in the 1. A software element conforms to a standard
certification approach? component model and can be independently
a) Creation of usage scenarios deployed and composed without modification
b) Specific usage file according to a composition standard.
c) Generation of test cases from the servers end. a) True
d) Reliability b) False

Answer:c Answer:a
Explanation:This is a part of testing phase and can Explanation:This definition is essentially based on
be as exhaustive as possible. standards so that a software unit that conforms to
8. The __________ specifies the behavior of a these standards is a component.
system or a part of a system. 2.Which of the following is a feature of CBSE?
a) Yellow box a) It increases quality
b) Clear box b) CBSE shortens delivery time
c) White box c) CBSE increases productivity
d) Black box d) All of the mentioned

Answer:d Answer:d
Explanation:The system (or part) responds to Explanation:CBSE increases quality, especially
specific stimuli (events) by applying a set of evolvability and maintainability. Other options are
transition rules that map the stimulus into a also favor CBSE.
response. 3. Which of the following term is best define by the
statement:”For a component to be composable, all
external interactions must Answer:c
take place through publicly defined interfaces”? Explanation:The answer is self explanatory.
a) Standardized 8. A _________ defines a set of standards for
b) Independent components, including interface standards, usage
c) Composable standards, and deployment standards.
d) Documented a) Component-based software engineering
b) Component composition
Answer:c c) Component model
Explanation:The answer is self eexplanatory. d) Component interfaces
4. A component model defines standards for
a) properties Answer:c
b) methods Explanation:The implementation of the component
c) mechanisms model provides a set of common services that may
d) All of the mentioned be used by all components.
9. When composing reusable components that have
Answer:d not been written for your application, you may need
Explanation:A component model defines standards to write adaptors or ‘glue code’ to reconcile the
for properties individual components must satisfy different __________.
and methods and mechanisms for composing a) Component modules
components. b) Component composition
5. Which of the following is not an example of c) Component model
component technology? d) Component interfaces
a) EJB
b) COM+ Answer:c
c) .NET Explanation:The answer is self explanatory.
d) None of the mentioned 10.____________ is a reuse-based approach to
defining, implementing, and composing loosely
Answer:d coupled independent components into systems.
Explanation:All the options supports the a) Component-based software engineering
implementation, assembly, deployment, execution of b) Component composition
components. c) Component model
6. Which of the following term is best defined by the d) Component interfaces
statement:”The operations on each side of the
interface have the same name but their parameter Answer:d
types or the number of parameters are different.”? Explanation:Component Interfaces are PeopleSoft’s
a) Parameter incompatibility way of exposing the business logic developed into
b) Operation incompleteness Components for consumption by other areas of the
c) Operation incompatibility system.
d) None of the mentioned .

Answer:a Distributed Software Engineering -

Explanation:The answer is self explanatory. “Distributed Software Engineering”.
7. Which of the following term is best defined by the 1. Which of the following term is best defined by the
statement: “The names of the operations in the statement “In a distributed system, several processes
‘provides’ and ‘requires’ interfaces are different.”? may operate at the same time on separate computers
a) Parameter incompatibility on the network.”?
b) Operation incompleteness a) Concurrency
c) Operation incompatibility b) Openness
d) None of the above c) Resource sharing
d) Fault tolerance server systems

Answer:a Answer:b
Explanation:The answer is self explanatory. Explanation:One should design the architecture of
2.Which of the following is not a dimension of distributed client–server systems so that they are
scalability? structured into several logical layers, with clear
a) Size interfaces between these layers.
b) Distribution 7. Which architecture is used when there is a high
c) Manageability volume of transactions to be processed by the
d) Interception server?
a) Multi-tier client–server architecture
Answer:d b) Master-slave architecture
Explanation:Interception is a communication c) Distributed component architecture
conception. d) Peer-to-peer architecture
3. A distributed system must defend itself against
a) Modification Answer:a
b) Interruption Explanation:Multi-tier systems may be used when
c) Fabrication applications need to access and use data from
d) All of the mentioned different databases.
8. Which architecture are reliant on middle-ware?
Answer:d a) Multi-tier client–server architecture
Explanation:The answer is self explanatory. b) Master-slave architecture
4. QoS stands for c) Distributed component architecture
a) Quality of security d) Peer-to-peer architecture
b) Quality of system
c) Quality of service Answer:c
d) None of the mentioned Explanation:It allows the system designer to delay
decisions on where and how services should be
Answer:c provided.
Explanation:QoS is particularly critical when the 9. __________ is a way of providing functionality
system is dealing with time-critical data such as on a remote server with client access through a web
sound or video streams. browser.
5. In Java,_________ are comparable with, though a) SaaS
not identical to, RPCs. b) SOA
a) Remote Method Invocations c) Configurability
b) Operating System d) both SaaS and Configurability
c) Client–server computing
d) None of the above Answer:a
Explanation:The server maintains the user’s data and
Answer:a state during an interaction session.
Explanation:The RMI framework handles the 10. Which architecture decentralized architectures in
invocation of remote methods in a Java program. which there are no distinguished clients and servers?
6. _________ depend on there being a clear a) Multi-tier client–server architecture
separation between the presentation of information b) Master-slave architecture
and the computations that create and process that c) Distributed component architecture
information. d) Peer-to-peer architecture
a) Master-slave architectures
b) Client–server systems Answer:d
c) Two-tier client–server architecture Explanation:Peer-to-peer (p2p) systems are
d) Both Master-slave architectures AND Client–
decentralized systems in which computations may Answer:c
be carried out by any node on the network. Explanation: A service-oriented architecture is
. essentially a collection of services which
communicate with each other.
Service Oriented Architecture - 5. Which architecture will be built on top of a SOA ?
“Service Oriented Architecture”. a) The Application Architecture
1. Service Oriented Architecture (SOA) is b) The Service Architecture
a) Strongly Coupled c) The Component Architecture
b) Loosely Coupled d) None of the mentioned
c) Strongly Cohesive
d) Loosely Cohesive Answer:a

Answer:b 6. Which of the following utilities is not a part of

Explanation: SOA is the architectural style that Application Service Layer ?
supports loosely coupled services to enable business a) Policy implementation
flexibility. b) QoS
2. Which of the following is an essential principle of c) Security
an architecture? d) Verify invoice
a) Consistency
b) Reliability Answer:d
c) Scalability Explanation: It is a part of Business service layer.
d) All of the mentioned 7. Which of the following utilities is not a part of
Business Service Layer ?
Answer:d a) Task centric service
Explanation: Architecture implies a consistent and b) Wrapper Services
coherent design approach. c) Get account info
3. Arrange the following activities in order to build a d) Entity centric service
SOA.
i. Virtualization through mediation. Answer:b
ii. Track services with registries. Explanation: It is a part of Application service layer.
iii. Govern, secure and manage the services. 8. We can build Service Oriented Architecture
iv. Design for interoperability through the adoption (SOA) using Object Oriented (OO) language
of standards. a) True
a) i, ii, iii, iv b) False
b) iii, ii, i, iv
c) ii, iii, i, iv Answer:a
d) ii, iii, iv, i Explanation: In SOA, the design methodology is
associated, not an OO programming language. In
Answer:c fact we can do OO based architecture using non OO
Explanation: The order mentioned is appropriate to languages. Likewise we can build SOA using OO
build a SOA language.
4. How is SOA different from OO Architecture ? 9. Which architecture describes the various elements
a) Strong coupling among objects that support the implementation of services.
b) Communications are prescriptive rather than a) The Application Architecture
being descriptive b) The Service Architecture
c) Data is separated from a service or behavior c) The Component Architecture
d) Data and methods are integrated into a single
object Answer:c
10. Web Services is not a realization of SOA ? Answer:b
a) True Explanation:Embedded applications are built on top
b) False of a real-time operating system (RTOS).
5. The times by which stimuli must be processed and
Answer:b some response produced by the system is known as
Explanation: Web services is one realization of the a) Compile time
SOA. b) Frequency
. c) Deadlines
d) Execution time
Embedded Software -
“Embedded Software”. Answer:c
1. Which of the following is a category of a stimuli? Explanation:If the system does not meet a deadline
a) Periodic stimuli then, it results in a system failure; in a soft real-time
b) Software stimuli system, it results in degraded system service .
c) Hardware stimuli 6. The switch to backup power must be completed
d) Management stimuli within a deadline of
a) 50 ms
Answer:a b) 55 ms
Explanation: Periodic stimuli occur at predictable c) 70 ms
time intervals. For example, the system may d) 100 ms
examine a sensor every 50 milliseconds and take
action depending on that sensor value. Answer:a
2. Which of the following activities may be included Explanation:The time required to power failure
in a real-time software design process? stimuli is 50 millisecond.
a) Platform selection 7. An example of a system that may use a process
b) Timing analysis pipeline is a _________.
c) Process design a) High-speed data acquisition system
d) All of the mentioned b) Failure of a power supply in an embedded system
c) Both High-speed data acquisition system AND
Answer:d Failure of a power supply in an embedded system
Explanation: All these can be implemented. d) None of the mentioned
3. Which of the following is not a real-time
architectural pattern Answer:a
a) Observe and React Explanation:Data acquisition systems collect data
b) Environmental Control from sensors for subsequent processing and analysis.
c) Embedded System These systems are used in situations where the
d) Process Pipeline sensors are collecting a lot of data from the system’s
environment and it isn’t possible or necessary to
Answer:c process that data in real time.
Explanation:Embedded systems’ patterns are 8. Periodic occur irregularly and unpredictably and
process-oriented rather than object- or component- are usually signaled using the computer’s interrupt
oriented . mechanism.
4. RTOS stands for a) True
a) real-life operating system b) False
b) real-time operating system
c) real-time operating software Answer:b
d) real-life operating software Explanation: This is the case for Aperiodic stimuli
9. If you detect power failure by monitoring a
voltage level, you have to make more than one
observation to detect that the voltage is dropping.
a) True Answer:c
b) False Explanation:Aspect-oriented programming
languages such as AspectJ have been developed that
Answer:a extend object-oriented programming to include
Explanation:If you run the process 250 times per aspects.
second, this means that it runs every 4 ms and you 4. Which of the following is a key principle of
may require up to two periods to detect the voltage software design and implementation?
drop. a) Separation of concerns
10. The average execution time of the power b) Writing aspects
monitor process should be less than c) Finding code complexity
a) 1ms d) None of the mentioned
b) 10ms
c) 100ms Answer:a
d) none of the above Explanation:The separation of concerns is a key
principle of software design and implementation. It
Answer:a means that you should organize your software so
Explanation:General embedded software property. that each element in the program (class, method,
. procedure, etc.) does one thing and one thing only.
5. Which of the following is not a type of
Aspect Oriented Software Engineering - stakeholder concern?
“Aspect Oriented Software Engineering”. a) Functional concerns
1. Which of the following diagrams can help spot b) Quality of service concerns
points cuts? c) Policy concern
a) Class diagram d) Non-functional concern
b) Object diagram
c) Sequence diagram Answer:a
d) ER diagram Explanation:The core concerns of a system are those
functional concerns that relate to its primary
Answer:b purpose.
Explanation:In AOSE, sequence diagrams can help 6. Which of the following concerns best suits the
spot where pointcuts need to be set. following statement:”Internet banking system
2. Which of the following is represented as an aspect includes new customer requirements, account
that requests a login name and password? Requirements, customer management requirements,
a) Class security requirements, recovery requirements etc.” ?
b) Object a) Functional concerns
c) User authentication b) Quality of service concerns
d) All of the mentioned c) System concerns
d) Cross-cutting concerns
Answer:c
Explanation:User authentication may be represented Answer:d
as an aspect that requests a login name and Explanation:Cross-cutting concerns, which is based
password. This can be automatically woven into the on an example of an Internet banking system. This
program wherever authentication is required. system has requirements relating to new customers
3. Research and development in aspect-orientation such as credit checking and address verification.
has primarily focused on 7. Which of the following is core concern in medical
a) software re-engineering record management system?
b) artificial programming a) maintaining records of patients
c) aspect-oriented programming b) diagnose and treatments
d) All of the mentioned c) consultations
d) All of the mentioned b) software
c) Hardware
Answer:a d) None of the mentioned
Explanation:The answer is self explanatory.
8. An event in an executing program where the Answer:d
advice associated with an aspect may be executed is Explanation:A root system, sometimes a mainframe,
known as serves as the repository for corporate data plays a
a) aspect dual role.
b) join point 2. Which of the following term is best defined by the
c) join point model statement:”The client sends structured query
d) pointcut language (SQL) requests to the server which are
transmitted as messages across the net”?
Answer:b a) File servers
Explanation:The answer is self explanatory. b) Database servers
9. The incorporation of advice code at the specified c) Client servers
join points by an aspect weaver is called”. d) None of the mentioned
a) aspect
b) join point Answer:b
c) join point model Explanation:SQL is a database language.
d) pointcut 3. Which subsystem implements the requirements
e) weaving defined by the application?
a) UI
Answer:e b) DBMS
Explanation:The answer is self explanatory. c) Application subsystem
10. Which of the following is needed by d) None of the mentioned
Maintenance staff?
a) a specific type of equipment Answer:c
b) maintenance record for each and every equipment Explanation:This subsystem implements the
item requirements defined by the application within the
c) Check in/check out equipment for maintenance context of the domain in which the application
d) All of the mentioned operates.
4. Which test do you infer from the following
Answer:d statement: “The coordination and data management
Explanation:All the options are essential for functions of the server are tested.”?
effective maintenance. a) Server tests
11. An aspect is only static. b) Application function tests
a) True c) Transaction tests
b) False d) Network communication tests

Answer:d Answer:a
Explanation:An aspect is a class-like structure to Explanation:The answer is self explanatory
encapsulate cross-cut concerns that can be static or 5. Which of the following presentation is explained
dynamic. in the following statement:”An extension of the
. distributed presentation approach, primary database
and application logic remain on the server, and data
Client Server Software Engineering - sent by the server is used by the client to prepare the
“Client Server Software Engineering”. user presentation.”?
1. The ________ is connected to servers (typically a) Local Presentation
powerful workstations or PCs) that play a dual role. b) Distributed presentation
a) database
c) Remote presentation Answer:c
Explanation:An ERD is not a part of UML.
Answer:c 10. Which of the following term is best defined by
Explanation:The answer is self explanatory. the statement:”When one object invokes another
6. “A client is assigned all user presentation tasks independent object, a message is passed between the
and the processes associated with data entry”.Which two objects.”?
option supports the client’s situation? a) Control couple
a) Distributed logic b) Application object
b) Distributed presentation c) Data couple
c) Remote presentation d) Database object

Answer:a Answer:c
Explanation:The server is assigned database Explanation:The answer is self explanatory.
management tasks, the processes for client queries, 11. CORBA stands for
and enterprise-wide applications. a) Common Object Request Build Architecture
7. What is used to pass SQL requests and associated b) Common Object Request Broker Architecture
data from one component to another? c) Common Object Request Break Architecture
a) Client/server SQL interaction
b) Remote procedure calls Answer:b
c) SQL Injection Explanation:The answer is self explanatory.
d) All of the above .

Answer:a Web Engineering -

Explanation:This mechanism is limited to relational “Web Engineering”.
database management system (RDBMS) 1. Which web app attribute is defined by the
applications. statement:”A large number of users may access the
8. When a client application invokes a method WebApp at one time”?
contained within an object elsewhere in the system, a) Unpredictable load
CORBA uses dynamic invocation to b) Performance
a) obtain pertinent information about the desired c) Concurrency
method from the interface repository d) Network intensiveness
b) create a data structure with parameters to be
passed to the object Answer:c
c) create a request for the object Explanation:The answer is self explanatory.
d) All of the mentioned 2. Which web app attribute is defined by the
statement:”The quality and aesthetic nature of
Answer:d content remains an important determinant of the
Explanation:The request is then passed to the ORB quality of a WebApp”?
core—an implementation-specific part of the a) Availability
network operating system that manages requests, b) Data driven
and the request is fulfilled. c) Content sensitive
9. Which of the following services is not provided d) Continuous evolution
by an object?
a) Activating & Deactivating Objects Answer:c
b) Security features Explanation:The answer is self explanatory.
c) Files implementing the entities identified within 3. If the user queries a collection of large databases
the ERD and extracts information from the webapp, the
d) Registering object implementation webapp is categorized under
a) Service oriented app
b) Database access app
c) Portal app Answer:b
d) Data warehousing app Explanation:Web-based systems are typically
constrained to a short development time making it
Answer:d difficult to apply the same levels of formal planning
Explanation:The Data Warehouse is a stable, read- and testing used in software development.
only database that combines information from 9. Which of the following statements are incorrect
separate systems into one, easy-to-access location. with reference to web-based systems? Web-based
4. Which process model should be used in virtually systems
all situations of web engineering? a) should be unscalable
a) Incremental Model b) must be able to cope with uncertain, random
b) Waterfall Model heavy demands on services
c) Spiral Model c) must be secure
d) None of the mentioned d) are subject to assorted legal, social, and ethical
scrutiny
Answer:a
Explanation:The web enginering proces must Answer:a
accommodate incremental delivery, frequent Explanation:Web-based systems should be scalable.
changes and short timeline. 10. What category of web-based system would you
5. Which analysis is a part of Analysis model of the assign to electronic shopping?
web engineering process framework? a) Informational
a) Content Analysis b) Interactive
b) Interaction Analysis c) Transaction-oriented
c) Functional Analysis d) Workflow-oriented
d) All of the mentioned
Answer:c
Answer:d Explanation:It involves usage of transaction
Explanation:Analysis model establishes a basis for management of database systems.
design which requires all the mentioned options. 11. What category of web-based system would you
6. Web development and software development are assign to discussion groups?
one and the same thing. a) Collaborative work
a) True b) Online communities
b) False c) Web portals
d) Workflow-oriented
Answer:b
Explanation:They are different due to the nature and Answer:b
distinct requirements of Web-based systems. Explanation:The answer is self explanatory.
7. Web-based systems are often document-oriented 12. W3C stands for
containing static or dynamic content. a) World Wide Web Consortium
a) True b) World Wide Web Collaboration
b) False c) World Wide Web Community
d) None of the mentioned
Answer:a
Explanation:In web-based systems, more emphasis Answer:a
is on “look and feel” of the product. Explanation:W3C is an international consortium
8. Web-based systems apply the same levels of where member organizations, a full-time staff, and
formal planning and testing used in software the public work together to develop web standards.
development. 13. Which of the following is a risk associated with
a) True using hypertext in web applications?
b) False a) loss of sense of locality and direction
b) cognitive overload for users
c) All of the mentioned b) hiring an employee
d) None of the mentioned c) purchasing services
d) testing software
Answer:c
Explanation:Hypertexts and links may divert the Answer:d
users attention from the main content. Explanation:It is a part of development phase.
. 6. Which of the following is a data problem?
a) hardware problem
Software Re-engineering - b) record organisation problems
“Software Re-engineering “. c) heavy computational demands
1. What are the problems with re-structuring? d) loss of comments
a) Loss of comments
b) Loss of documentation Answer:b
c) Heavy computational demands Explanation:Records representing the same entity
d) All of the mentioned may be organised differently in different programs.
7. When does one decides to re-engineer a product?
Answer:b a) when tools to support restructuring are disabled
Explanation:Restructuring doesn’t help with poor b) when system crashes frequently
modularisation where related components are c) when hardware or software support becomes
dispersed throughout the code. obsolete
2. Which of the following is not a module type? d) subsystems of a larger system require few
a) Object modules maintenance
b) Hardware modules
c) Functional modules Answer:c
d) Process support modules Explanation:Re-engineering involves putting in the
effort to make the system easier to maintain.
Answer:a 8. Which of the following is not a business goal of
Explanation:Except option a all other are module re-engineering ?
types. a) Cost reduction
3. Reverse engineering of data focuses on b) Time reduction
a) Internal data structures c) Maintainability
b) Database structures d) None of the mentioned
c) ALL of the mentioned
d) None of the mentioned Answer:d
Explanation:No such goal is mentioned which is not
Answer:c a business goal, so option d is correct here.
Explanation: . 9. Which of these benefits can be achieved when
4. Forward engineering is not necessary if an software is restructured?
existing software product is producing the correct a) Higher quality programs
output. b) Reduced maintenance effort
a) True c) Software easier to test
b) False d) All of the mentioned

Answer:b Answer:d
Explanation:Forward engineering refers to taking a Explanation:The answer is self explanatory.
high-level model and using it to build a more 10. Data re-engineering may be part of the process
complex lower-level implementation. of migrating from a file-based system to a DBMS-
5. Which of the following is not an example of a based system or changing from one DBMS to
business process? another.
a) designing a new product a) True
b) False d) interactivity

Answer:a Answer:c
Explanation:Data re-engineering involves analyzing Explanation:The engineer must evaluate the old
and reorganizing the data structures in a program. program and extract a meaningful specification of
11. BPR stands for the processing that is performed, the user interface
a) Business process re-engineering that is applied, and the program data structures or
b) Business product re-engineering database that is used.
c) Business process requirements 4. What have become de rigueur for computer-based
products and systems of every type?
Answer:a a) GUIs
Explanation:The answer is self explanatory. b) candidate keys
12. Source code translation is a part of which re- c) object model
engineering technique? d) All of the mentioned
a) Data re-engineering
b) Re-factoring Answer:a
c) Restructuring Explanation:Therefore, the redevelopment of user
d) None of the mentioned interfaces has become one of the most common
types of re-engineering activity. But before a user
Answer:c interface can be rebuilt, reverse engineering should
Explanation:Restructuring involves automatic occur.
conversion from unstructured to structured code. 5. Forward engineering is also known as
. a) extract abstractions
b) renovation
Reverse Engineering - c) reclamation
“Reverse Engineering”. d) both renovation and reclamation
1. In reverse engineering process, what refers to the
sophistication of the design information that can be Answer:d
extracted from the source code? Explanation:Forward engineering, also called
a) interactivity renovation or reclamation , not only recovers design
b) completeness information from existing software, but uses this
c) abstraction level information to alter or reconstitute the existing
d) direction level system in an effort to improve its overall quality.
6. Reverse engineering is the process of deriving the
Answer:c system design and specification from its
Explanation:The answer is self explanatory. a) GUI
2. In reverse engineering, what refers to the level of b) Database
detail that is provided at an abstraction level? c) Source code
a) interactivity d) All of the mentioned
b) completeness
c) abstraction level Answer:c
d) directionality Explanation:The answer is self explanatory
7. Reverse engineering techniques for internal
Answer:b program data focus on the definition of classes of
Explanation:The answer is self explanatory. objects.
3. The core of reverse engineering is an activity a) True
called b) False
a) restructure code
b) directionality Answer:a
c) extract abstractions Explanation:This is accomplished by examining the
program code with the intent of grouping related c) Forward engineering
program variables. d) Both a and b
8. Which of the following steps may not be used to
define the existing data model as a precursor to re- Answer:d
engineering a new database model: Explanation:The answer is self explanatory.
a) Build an initial object model 13. Which of the following is not an objective of
b) Determine candidate keys reverse engineering?
c) Refine the tentative classes a) to reduce maintenance effort
d) Discover user interfaces b) to cope with complexity
c) to avoid side effects
Answer:d d) to assist migration to a CASE environment
Explanation:Once information defined in the
preceding steps is known, a series of transformations Answer:d
can be applied to map the old database structure into Explanation:Reverse engineering helps us to detect
a new database structure. side effects rather than avoiding them.
9. Much of the information necessary to create a .
behavioral model can be obtained by observing the
external manifestation of the existing Computer Aided Software Engineering -
a) candidate keys “Computer Aided Software Engineering”.
b) interface 1. Which of the following is software engineer’s
c) database structure primary characteristics?
d) none of the above a) A collection of useful tools that will help in every
step of building a product
Answer:b b) An organized layout that enables tools to be
Explanation:The GUI or the interface provides the found quickly and used efficiently
base for the behavioral model. c) A skilled artisan who understands how to use the
10. Extracting data items and objects, to get tools in an effective manner
information on data flow, and to understand the d) All of the mentioned
existing data structures that have been implemented
is sometimes called Answer:d
a) data analysis Explanation:The answer is self explanatory.
b) directionality 2. Database management software serves as a
c) data extraction foundation for the establishment of a CASE
d) client applications database (repository) that we call
a) project database
Answer:a b) system database
Explanation:The answer is self explanatory. c) analysis and design tools
11. Reverse engineering and Re-engineering are d) prototyping tools
equivalent processes of software engineering.
a) True Answer:a
b) False Explanation:Given the emphasis on configuration
objects, database management tools for CASE are
Answer:b evolving from relational database management
Explanation: Re engineering is a process of analysis systems to object oriented database management
and change whereby a system is modified by first systems.
reverse engineering and then forward engineering. 3. What enables a software engineer to define screen
12. Transformation of a system from one layout rapidly for interactive applications?
representational form to another is known as a) Analysis and design tools
a) Re-factoring b) Tool kit
b) Restructuring c) Screen painters
d) PRO/SIM tools b) Data integrity
c) Information sharing
Answer:c d) Data/data integration
Explanation:More sophisticated CASE prototyping
tools enable the creation of a data design, coupled Answer:a
with both screen and report layouts. Explanation:The answer is self explanatory.
4. _________tools assist in the planning, 9. Which of the following term is best defined by the
development, and control in CASE. statement: “CASE tools and the target applications
a) Dynamic measurement are isolated from physical storage so they are not
b) Data acquisition affected when the hardware configuration is
c) Test management changed.”?
d) Cross-functional tools a) Non-redundant data storage
b) Data independence
Answer:c c) Data dependence.
Explanation:The answer is self explanatory. d) Adhoc data queries and reports
5. Which tools cross the bounds of the preceding
categories? Answer:b
a) Data acquisition Explanation:The answer is self explanatory.
b) Dynamic measurement 10. Which of the following term is best define by the
c) Cross-functional tools statement:”Each object is stored only once, but is
d) Simulation accessible by all CASE tools that need it.”?
a) Non-redundant data storage
Answer:c b) Data independence
Explanation:The answer is self explanatory. c) Transaction control.
6. Which environment demands specialized testing d) Adhoc data queries and reports
tools that exercise the graphical user interface and
the network communications requirements for client Answer:a
and server? Explanation:The answer is self explanatory.
a) Dynamic analysis .
b) Client/Server
c) Re-engineering Using CASE Tools -
d) Test management “Using CASE Tools”.
1. CASE stands for
Answer:b a) Cost Aided Software Engineering
Explanation:A client/server architecture is GUI b) Computer Aided Software Engineering
based. c) Control Aided Software Engineering
7. Which tools are used to modify on-line database d) None of the mentioned
systems?
a) Reverse engineering specification tools Answer:b
b) Code restructuring and analysis tools Explanation:CASE tools purpose is to make the
c) Test management tools work of software development and maintenance
d) On-line system re-engineering tools easier and more reliable.
2. CASE tools are used only during the software
Answer:d testing phase.
Explanation:For example these tools convert IDMS a) True
or DB2 files into entity-relationship format. b) False
8. Which is the definition of objects in the database
that leads directly to a standard approach for the Answer:b
creation of software engineering documents. Explanation:CASE tools support the developer when
a) Document standardization
performing one or more phases of the software life application software compatible with a given
cycle and/or support software maintenance. software development language.
3. Which of the following is not a type of CASE 7. Logical design errors can be resolved using both
tool? classic and real CASE tools.
a) Lower a) True
b) Classic b) False
c) Real
d) Middle Answer:b
Explanation:Classic CASE tools include interactive
Answer:d debuggers and compilers which do not serve the
Explanation:Lower and Upper CASE tools support required purpose.
analysis and design. 8. CASE-generated updated documentation enables
4. What stores all changes and info related to the easier and more reliable identification of software
project from development through maintenance in failure causes.
CASE tools? a) True
a) Database b) False
b) Repository
c) Registers Answer:a
d) None of the mentioned Explanation:The answer is self explanatory.
9. What kind of support is provided by the Code
Answer:b Editing CASE tool?
Explanation:The main component of real CASE a) Management of design documents and software
tools is the repository which stores all changes. code versions
5. What kind of support is provided by the b) Transformation of design records into application
Repository Query CASE tool? software
a) Editing text and diagrams c) Compiling, interpreting or applying interactive
b) Display of parts of the design texts debugging code
c) Cross referencing queries and requirements d) None of the mentioned
tracing
d) Display of parts of the design texts AND Cross Answer:c
referencing queries and requirements tracing Explanation:Code editing tool serves the purpose of
compiling, interpreting or applying interactive
Answer:d debugging code specific coding language or
Explanation:The answer is self explanatory. development tool.
6. What kind of support is provided by the Code 10. Use of the repository assures automated coding
Generation CASE tool? and documentation of corrections.
a) Cross referencing queries and requirements a) True
tracing b) False
b) Transformation of design records into application
software Answer:b
c) Compiling, interpreting or applying interactive Explanation:Use of the repository assures
debugging code consistency of new applications and improvements
d) Transformation of design records into application with existing software systems.
software AND Compiling, interpreting or applying 11. Which of the following is a drawback of using
interactive debugging code CASE tool?
a) Standardization of notations and diagrams
Answer:b b) Communication between development team
Explanation:Code Generation tool aids in member
transformation of design records into prototypes or c) Costs associated with the use of the tool
d) Reduction of time and effort 3. How many product quality factors are proposed in
McCall quality model?
Answer:c a) 2
Explanation:Using CASE tools is an expensive b) 3
approach. c) 11
12. An upper CASE tool is also referred to as a back d) 8
end CASE.
a) True Answer:b
b) False Explanation: McCall quality model has three
product quality factors namely: Product revision,
Answer:b Product operation, Product Transition .
Explanation:An upper CASE tool (front end CASE) 4. Which one of the following is not a software
provides support for the early stages in the systems quality model?
development life cycle such as requirements analysis a) ISO 9000
and design. b) McCall model
13. CASE tools are mainly used while developing c) Boehm model
which of the following methodologies? d) ISO 9126
a) RAD
b) JAD Answer:a
c) OO Approach Explanation: ISO-9000 series of standards is a set of
d) All of the mentioned document dealing with quality systems that can be
used for quality assurance purposes.
Answer:d 5. What is MTTF ?
Explanation:CASE tools are used in various stages a) Maximum time to failure
of the Software Development Life Cycle. b) Mean time to failure
. c) Minimum time to failure
d) None of the mentioned
Software Reliability -
by mod2 Answer:b
“Software Reliability”.
1. Which of the following is not a phase of “bath tub 6. How is software reliability defined?
curve” of hardware reliability? a) time
a) Useful Life b) efficiency
b) Burn-in c) quality
c) Wear-out d) speed
d) Time
Answer:a
Answer:d Explanation: Software Reliability mainly concerned
Explanation: Time is the horizontal dimension on with the time component. It can be seen in various
which the bath tub curve is built and not the phase. models like Basic Execution Time Model and
2. How is reliability and failure intensity related to Logarithmic Poisson Execution Time Model.
each other? 7. Suitability, Accuracy, Interpolability and security
a) direct relation are what type quality attribute of ISO 9126 ?
b) inverse relation a) Reliability
c) no relation b) Efficiency
c) Functionality
Answer:b d) Usability
Explanation: As the reliability increases, failure
intensity decreases. Answer:c
Explanation: All the Characteristics mentioned in
the question are related to achievement of the basic c) Fault tolerance
purpose for which the software is being engineered, d) All of the mentioned
which is functionality.
8. Time Behavior and Resource Behavior fall under Answer:d
which quality attribute of ISO 9126 ? Explanation: All the options lead to formation of a
a) Reliability reliable system.
b) Efficiency 3. A system maintaining its integrity while accepting
c) Functionality a temporary halt in its operation is said to be in a
d) Usability state of
a) Full Fault Tolerance
Answer:b b) Graceful Degradation
Explanation: The Characteristics mentioned in the c) Fail Soft
question are related to the relationship between the d) Fail Safe
level of performance of the software and the amount
of resources used, under stated conditions. Answer:d
9. NHPP stands for
a) Non Homogeneous Poisson Product 4. Which of the following Error Detection checks is
b) Non Hetrogeneous Poisson Product not a part of Application detection?
c) Non Hetrogeneous Poisson Process a) Hardware checks
d) Non Homogeneous Poisson Process b) Timing checks
c) Reversal checks
Answer:d d) Coding checks

10. The CMM model is a technique to Answer:a

a) automatically maintain the software reliability Explanation: Hardware is a part of environment
b) improve the software process. detection check.
c) test the software 5. Exception handling is a type of
d) all of the mentioned a) forward error recovery mechanism
b) backward error recovery mechanism
Answer:b
Explanation: Capability Maturity Model (CMM) is a Answer:a
strategy for improving the software process, Explanation: Exception handling is a forward error
irrespective of the actual life cycle model used. recovery mechanism, as there is no roll back to a
. previous state; instead control is passed to the
handler so that recovery procedures can be initiated.
Fault Tolerance - 6. Non-occurrence of improper alteration of
“Fault Tolerance”. information is known as
1. What type of fault remains in the system for some a) Available Dependability
period and then disappears? b) Confidential Dependability
a) Permanent c) Maintainable Dependability
b) Transient d) Integral Dependability
c) Intermittent
Answer:d
Answer:b Explanation: Integrity is to keep the original content
Explanation: For example many faults in safe from alteration.
communication systems are transient in nature. 7. In N-version programming which is the
2. Which of the following approaches are used to independent generation of N, the value of N is
achieve reliable systems? a) greater than 1
a) Fault prevention b) less than 1
b) Fault removal c) greater than 2
d) less than 2 2. How many levels are present in CMM?
a) three
Answer:c b) four
Explanation: N-version programming (NVP), also c) five
known as multiversion programming or multiple- d) six
version dissimilar software, is a method or process
in software engineering where multiple functionally Answer:c
equivalent programs are independently generated Explanation:The five levels are: initial, repeatable,
from the same initial specifications. defined, managed, optimizing.
8. In Log-based fault tolerance, logs of 3. Which level of CMM is for process management?
undetermined events are saved and replayed on a) Initial
failure. b) Repeatable
a) True c) Defined
b) False d) Optimizing

Answer:a Answer:d
Explanation:It is a characteristic of processes at this
9. All fault-tolerant techniques rely on level that the focus is on continually improving
a) Integrity process performance through both incremental and
b) Dependability innovative technological changes/improvements.
c) Redundancy 4. In ISO 9126, time behavior and resource
utilization are a part of
Answer:c a) maintainability
Explanation: All fault-tolerant techniques rely on b) portability
extra elements introduced into the system to detect c) efficiency
& recover from faults. d) usability
10. It is imperative for a communicating processes
to reach consistent recovery points to avoid the Answer:c
_________ effect, with backward error recovery Explanation:A set of attributes that bear on the
mechanism. relationship between the level of performance of the
a) Static software and the amount of resources used, under
b) Dynamic stated conditions.
c) Domino 5. Which of the following is not a Probabilistic
d) Whirlpool Model?
a) Error seeding
Answer:c b) NHPP
c) Input domain
. d) Halstead’s software metric
Software Engineering Questions and Answers –
Software Reliability Models Answer:d
“Software Reliability Models”. Explanation:Halstead’s software metric is a
1. Which one is not a software quality model? deterministic model.
a) ISO 9000 6. Software reliability is defined with respect to
b) McCall model a) time
c) Boehm model b) bugs
d) ISO 9126 c) failures
d) quality
Answer:a
Explanation:ISO 9000 is software certification. Answer:a
Explanation:The answer is self explanatory.
7. Failure In Time (FIT) is another way of reporting b) Evaluating deliverable to find errors
a) MTTR c) A stage of all projects
b) MTTF d) None of the mentioned
c) MTSF
d) MTBF Answer: b
Explanation: Software testing is the process of
Answer:d evaluation a software item to detect differences
Explanation:FIT reports the number of expected between given input and expected output.
failures per one billion hours of operation for a 2. What is Cyclomatic complexity?
device. This term is used particularly by the a) Black box testing
semiconductor industry but is also used by b) White box testing
component manufacturers . c) Yellow box testing
8. MTTF stands for d) Green box testing
a) Minimum time to failure
b) Mean time to failure Answer: b
c) Maximum time to failure Explanation: Cyclomatic complexity measures the
d) None of the mentioned amount of decision logic in the program
module.Cyclomatic complexity gives the minimum
Answer:b number of paths that can generate all possible paths
Explanation:The answer is self explanatory. through the module.
9. Mean Time To Repair (MTTR) is the time needed 3. Lower and upper limits are present in which
to repair a failed hardware module. chart?
a) True a) Run chart
b) False b) Bar chart
c) Control chart
Answer:a d) None of the mentioned
Explanation:In an operational system, repair
generally means replacing a failed hardware part. Answer: a
Thus, hardware MTTR could be viewed as mean Explanation: A run chart is used to monitor the
time to replace a failed hardware module. behavior of a variable over time for a process or
10. IMC Networks is a leading ________ certified system. Run charts graphically display cycles,
manufacturer of optical networking and LAN/WAN trends, shifts, or non-random patterns in behavior
connectivity solutions for enterprise, over time. It contains lower and upper limits.
telecommunications and service provider 4. Maintenance testing is performed using which
applications. methodology?
a) Telco Systems a) Retesting
b) D-Link b) Sanity testing
c) Arista Networks c) Breadth test and depth test
d) ISO 9001 d) Confirmation testing

Answer:a Answer: c
Explanation:Founded in 1988, with over one million Explanation: Maintenance Testing is done on the
products installed worldwide, IMC Networks offers already deployed software. The deployed software
a wide range of fiber media and mode converters for needs to be enhanced, changed or migrated to other
a variety of applications. hardware. The Testing done during this
Software Engineering Questions and Answers – enhancement, change and migration cycle is known
Software Testing Techniques – 1 as maintenance testing.
“Software Testing Techniques – 1”. 5. White Box techniques are also classified as
1. Which of the following term describes testing? a) Design based testing
a) Finding broken code b) Structural testing
c) Error guessing technique 10. Alpha testing is done at
a) Developer’s end
Answer: b b) User’s end
Explanation: The structural testing is the testing of
the structure of the system or component. Structural Answer: a
testing is often referred to as ‘white box’ or ‘glass Explanation: Alpha testing takes place at the
box’ or ‘clear-box testing’ because in structural developer’s end. Developers observe the users and
testing we are interested in what is happening ‘inside note problems. Alpha testing is testing of an
the system/application’. application when development is about to complete.
6. Exhaustive testing is Minor design changes can still be made as a result of
a) always possible alpha testing.
b) practically possible
c) impractical but possible Software Testing Techniques - 2 -
d) impractical and impossible by mod2
“Software Testing Techniques – 2”.
Answer: c 1. The testing in which code is checked
Explanation:Exhaustive testing is the testing where a) Black box testing
we execute single test case for multiple test data.It b) White box testing
means if we are using single test case for different c) Red box testing
product or module under manual testing. d) Green box testing
testing .
7. Which of the following is/are White box Answer: b
technique? Explanation: White-box testing is a method of
a) Statement Testing testing software that tests internal structures or
b) Decision Testing workings of an application, as opposed to its
c) Condition Coverage functionality .
d) All of these 2. Testing done without planning and
Documentation is called
Answer: d a) Unit testing
Explanation: Statement testing, decision testing, b) Regression testing
condition coverage all of them uses white box c) Adhoc testing
technique. d) None of the mentioned
8. What are the various Testing Levels?
a) Unit Testing Answer: c
b) System Testing Explanation: Adhoc testing is used term for software
c) Integration Testing testing performed without planning and
d) All of the mentioned documentation. The tests are intended to be run only
once, unless a defect is discovered.
Answer: d 3. Acceptance testing is also known as
Explanation: Unit, system, integration testing all of a) Grey box testing
them are levels in testing. b) White box testing
9. Boundary value analysis belong to? c) Alpha Testing
a) White Box Testing d) Beta testing
b) Black Box Testing
Answer: d
Answer: b Explanation: Acceptance testing is a test conducted
Explanation: Boundary value analysis is based on to determine if the requirements of a specification or
testing at the boundaries between partitions and contract are met and is done by users.
checks the output with expected output. 4. Which of the following is non-functional testing?
a) Black box testing
b) Performance testing 9. Which of the following is black box testing
c) Unit testing a) Basic path testing
d) None of the mentioned b) Boundary value analysis
c) Code path analysis
Answer: b d) None of the mentioned
Explanation: Performance testing is in general
testing performed to determine how a system Answer: b
performs in terms of responsiveness and stability Explanation: Boundary value analysis is a software
under a particular workload. testing technique in which tests are designed to
5. Beta testing is done at include representatives of boundary values.
a) User’s end 10. Which of the following is not used in measuring
b) Developer’s end the size of the software
a) KLOC
Answer: a b) Function Points
Explanation: In beta testing the user evaluates the c) Size of module
product and gives his feedback.
6. SPICE stands for Answer: c
a) Software Process Improvement and Compatibility Explanation: KLOC and function points both can be
Determination used as size measurement for measuring the size of
b) Software Process Improvement and Control the software.
Determination
c) Software Process Improvement and Capability Software Testing Strategies -
Determination “Software Testing Strategies”.
d) None of the mentioned 1. Software Debugging is a set of activities that can
be planned in advance and conducted systematically.
Answer: c a) True
Explanation: SPICE stands for Software Process b) False
Improvement and Control Determination.
7. Unit testing is done by Answer:b
a) Users Explanation:Software Testing is a set of such
b) Developers activities.
c) Customers 2. Which of the following is not a software testing
generic characteristics?
Answer: b a) Different testing techniques are appropriate at
Explanation: Unit testing is a method by which different points in time
individual units of source code, sets of one or more b) Testing is conducted by the developer of the
computer program modules together with associated software or an independent test group
control data, usage procedures, and operating c) Testing and debugging are different activities, but
procedures are tested to determine if they are fit for debugging must be accommodated in any testing
use. strategy
8. Behavioral testing is d) None of the mentioned
a) White box testing
b) Black box testing Answer:a
c) Grey box testing Explanation:The answer is self explanatory.
3. ITG stands for
Answer: b a) instantaneous test group
Explanation: Black-box testing is a method of b) integration testing group
software testing that examines the functionality of c) individual testing group
an application without peering into its internal d) independent test group
structures or workings.
Answer:d provide enough information to assist in the location
Explanation:The role of an independent test group of the cause of the error.
(ITG) is to remove the inherent problems 8. What is normally considered as an adjunct to the
associated with letting the builder test the thing that coding step
has been built. a) Integration testing
4. By collecting ________ during software testing, it b) Unit testing
is possible to develop meaningful guidelines to halt c) Completion of Testing
the testing process. d) Regression Testing
a) Failure intensity
b) Testing time Answer:b
c) Metrics Explanation:After source level code has been
d) All of the mentioned developed, reviewed, and verified for
correspondence to component level design, unit test
Answer:c case design begins.
Explanation:It answers questions like: “When are we 9. Which of the following is not regression test case?
done with testing?”. a) A representative sample of tests that will exercise
5. Which of the following issues must be addressed all software functions
if a successful software testing strategy is to be b) Additional tests that focus on software functions
implemented? that are likely to be affected by the change
a) Use effective formal technical reviews as a filter c) Tests that focus on the software components that
prior to testing have been changed
b) Develop a testing plan that emphasizes “rapid d) Low-level components are combined into clusters
cycle testing.” that perform a specific software sub-function
c) State testing objectives explicitly
d) All of the mentioned Answer:d
Explanation:Regression testing may be conducted
Answer:d manually, by re-executing a subset of all test cases
Explanation:All the mentioned options are carried or using automated capture or playback tools
out for the purpose. 10. Which testing is an integration testing approach
6. Test cases should uncover errors like that is commonly used when “shrink-wrapped”
a) Nonexistent loop termination software products are being developed?
b) Comparison of different data types a) Regression Testing
c) Incorrect logical operators or precedence b) Integration testing
d) All of the mentioned c) Smoke testing
d) Validation testing
Answer:a
Explanation:Test cases should uncover errors such Answer:c
as all the explained options and much more. Explanation:Smoke testing is designed as a pacing
7. Which of the following errors should not be tested mechanism for time-critical projects, allowing the
when error handling is evaluated? software team to assess its project on a frequent
a) Error description is unintelligible basis.
b) Error noted does not correspond to error 11. In which testing level the focus is on customer
encountered usage?
c) Error condition causes system intervention prior a) Alpha Testing
to error handling b) Beta Testing
d) Error description provide enough information to c) Validation Testing
assist in the location of the cause of the error d) Both Alpha and Beta

Answer:a
Explanation:Actually, error description does not
Answer:d c) use-based testing
Explanation:Alpha testing is done at developer’s end d) none of the mentioned
while beta testing is done at user’s end.
12. Validation refers to the set of tasks that ensure Answer:b
that software correctly implements a specific Explanation:Each thread is integrated and tested
function. individually. Regression testing is applied to ensure
a) True that no side effects occur.
b) False 4. Which of the following is one of the steps in the
integration testing of OO software?
Answer:b a) cluster testing
Explanation:Its verification, while validation refers b) thread-based testing
to a different set of tasks that ensure that the c) use-based testing
software that has been built is traceable to customer d) none of the above
requirements.
. Answer:a
Explanation:Here, a cluster of collaborating classes
Object Oriented Testing - is exercised by designing test cases that attempt to
“Object Oriented Testing”. uncover errors in the collaborations.
1. The architecture of object-oriented software 5. __________ methods can be used to drive
results in a series of layered subsystems that validations tests
encapsulate collaborating classes. a) Yellow-box testing
a) True b) Black-box testing
b) False c) White-box testing
d) All of the mentioned
Answer:a
Explanation:It is necessary to test an OO system at a Answer:b
variety of different levels in an effort to uncover Explanation:Black-box testing methods are as
errors that may occur as classes collaborate with one appropriate for OO systems as they are for systems
another and subsystems communicate across developed using conventional software engineering
architectural layers. methods.
2.The construction of object-oriented software 6. Which of the following is a part of testing OO
begins with the creation of code?
a) design model a) Validation tests
b) analysis model b) Integration tests
c) code levels c) Class tests
d) both design and analysis model d) System tests
e) All of the mentioned
Answer:d
Explanation:It is due to the evolutionary nature of Answer:c
the OO software engineering paradigm, these Explanation:The answer is self explanatory.
models begin as relatively informal representations 7. The object of ___________within an OO system
of system requirements and evolve into detailed is to design tests that have a high likelihood of
models of classes, class connections and uncovering plausible bugs.
relationships, system design and allocation, and a) Fault-based testing
object design. b) Integration testing
3. Which testing integrates the set of classes c) Use-based testing
required to respond to one input or event for the d) Scenario-based testing
system?
a) cluster testing Answer:a
b) thread-based testing Explanation:The object of fault-based testing within
an OO system is to design tests that have a high b) Stress testing
likelihood of uncovering plausible faults. c) System testing
8. What refers to the externally observable structure d) Random testing
of an OO program?
a) Deep structure Answer:d
b) Surface structure Explanation:It is a testing method at class level.
c) Core structure .
d) All of the above
Debugging Techniques and Approaches -
Answer:b “Debugging Techniques and Approaches”.
Explanation:Surface structure refers to the externally 1. What is testing process’ first goal?
observable structure of an OO program which is a) Bug prevention
immediately obvious to an end-user. b) Testing
9. _____________ categorizes class operations c) Execution
based on the generic function that each performs d) Analyses
a) Category-based partitioning
b) Attribute-based partitioning Answer:a
c) State-based partitioning Explanation:Its better to prevent a bug rather than
d) None of the mentioned putting time in its testing and removal.
2. Software mistakes during coding are known as
Answer:a a) errors
Explanation:For example, operations in the account b) failures
class can be categorized in initialization operations c) bugs
(open, setup), computational operations d) defects
(deposit,withdraw) etc.
10. Which of the following is black-box oriented Answer:c
and can be accomplished by applying the same Explanation:A software bug is an error, flaw, failure,
black-box methods discussed for conventional or fault in a computer program or system that causes
software? it to produce an incorrect or unexpected result.
a) Conventional testing 3. Name an evaluation technique to assess the
b) OO system validation testing quality of test cases.
c) Test case design a) Mutation analysis
d) Both Conventional testing and OO system b) Validation
validation testing c) Verification
d) Performance analysis
Answer:d
Explanation:The answer is self explanatory. Answer:a
11. In which of the following testing strategies, a Explanation:Mutation analysis is used to design new
smallest testable unit is the encapsulated class or software tests and evaluate the quality of existing
object? software tests.
a) Unit testing 4. Test should be conducted for every possible
b) Integration testing a) data
c) System testing b) case
d) None of the mentioned c) variable
d) All of the mentioned
Answer:a
Explanation:The answer is self explanatory. Answer:d
12. Which of the following testing types is not a part Explanation:It increases the scope for code
of system testing? inspection.
a) Recovery testing
5. Which of the following is not a part of bug report? Answer:c
a) Test case Explanation:The answer is self explanatory.
b) Output 10. Effective testing will reduce _______ cost.
c) Software Version a) maintenance
d) LOC b) design
c) coding
Answer:d d) documentation
Explanation:Line of code(LOC) is immaterial during
testing, as it is an exhaustive process. Answer:a
6. Which of the following is not a part of Execution Explanation:Remaining options are a part of
Flow during debugging? development process.
a) Step Over 11. Which of the following is a common pointwer
b) Step Into problem?
c) Step Up a) Data sharing errors
d) Step Out b) Accessing data elements of the wrong type
c) Attempting to use memory areas after freeing
Answer:c them
Explanation:Step Into executes code, Step Out d) All of the mentioned
continues execution until bound value and Step Over
is to execute code without stopping. Answer:d
7. Cyclomatic Complexity method comes under Explanation:These are the common errors
which testing method. programmers make while coding.
a) Yellow box .
b) White box
c) Gray box Testing Tools -
d) Black box “Testing Tools”.
1. Standard Enforcer is a
Answer:b a) Static Testing Tool
Explanation:Cyclomatic Complexity tells us about b) Dynamic Testing
the number of indepoendent paths in a program
which is covered in white box testing. Answer:a
8. Which is a black box testing technique Explanation: Static Testing tools are those that
appropriate to all levels of testing? perform analysis of the the program without
a) Acceptance testing executing them at all.
b) Regression testing 2. Many applications using static analysis find 0.1-
c) Equivalence partitioning 0.2% NCSS. NCSS stands for
d) Quality assurance a) Non-Code Source Statement
b) Non Comment Source Sentence
Answer:c c) Non-Comment Source Statement
Explanation:Equivalence partitioning is a software
testing technique that divides the input data of a Answer:c
software unit into partitions of equivalent data from
which test cases can be derived. 3. Which testing tool does a simple job of enforcing
9. Which of the following is the way of ensuring that standards in a uniform way of many programs?
the tests are actually testing code? a) Static Analyzer
a) Control structure testing b) Code Inspector
b) Complex path testing c) Standard Enforcer
c) Code coverage d) Both b & c
d) Quality assurance of software
Answer:d b) False
Explanation: A standard enforcer is just like a code
inspector, except that the rules are generally simpler. Answer:b
Standard enforcer looks at only single statements Explanation: This tool looks at only single
while the static analyzer looks at whole programs. statements.
4. Software Testing with real data in real 9. Debugging Program is a program which runs
environment is known as concurrently with the program under test & provide
a) alpha testing commands to
b) beta testing a) examine memory & registers
c) regression testing b) stop execution at a particular point
d) None of the mentioned c) search for references for particular variables,
constant and registers
Answer:b d) All of the mentioned
Explanation: Beta testing is the last stage of testing,
and normally can involve sending the product to Answer:d
beta test sites outside the company for real-world Explanation: Debugging is a methodical process of
exposure or offering the product for a free trial finding and reducing the number of bugs, or defects,
download over the Internet. in a computer program or a piece of electronic
5. Which of the following testing tools examine hardware, thus making it behave as expected.
program systematically & automatically ? 10. Execution Verifier is a dynamic tool that is also
a) Code Inspector known as
b) Static Analyzer a) Test File Generator
c) Standard Enforcer b) Coverage Analyzer
d) Coverage Analyzer c) Output Comparator
d) Test Harness System
Answer:b
Explanation: A static analyzer operates from a pre- Answer:b
computed database o descriptive information
derived from the source text of the program. .
6. Which testing tool is responsible for documenting
programs ? Software Monitoring -
a) Test/File Generator “Software Monitoring”.
b) Test Harness System 1. Why is software difficult to build ?
c) Test Archiving Systems a) Controlled changes
d) Coverage Analyzer b) Lack of reuseability
c) Lack of monitoring
Answer:c d) All of the mentioned
Explanation: The answer is self-explanatory.
7. Beta Testing is done by Answer:c
a) Developers Explanation:Monitoring is a key aspect which
b) Testers requires much attention for a succesful build.
c) Users 2. Which of the following is not a conflict in
d) All of the mentioned software development team?
a) Simultaneous updates
Answer:c b) Shared and common code
c) Versions
8. Standard enforcer tool looks at the whole d) Graphics issues
program.
a) True
Answer:d Answer:b
Explanation:These are part of design, which can be Explanation:The answer is self explanatory.
handled by the design team. 8. What is a collection of software elements treated
3. Which of the following lasts for the duration of as a unit for the purposes of SCM?
the project and covers the development process? a) Software Configuration Item
a) Monitoring all key parameters like cost, schedule, b) Baseline
risks c) Configuration
b) Taking corrective actions when needed d) Configuration Control Board
c) Providing information on the development
process in terms of metrics Answer:a
d) All of the mentioned Explanation:Software Configuration Item is a
collection of software elements treated as a unit for
Answer:a the purposes of SCM.
Explanation:The answer is self explanatory. 9. What is one or more software configuration items
4. Which of the following is not a typical that have been formally reviewed and agreed upon
environment in communication facilitation ? and serve as a basis for further development?
a) Multiple teams a) Configuration
b) Multiple user groups b) Baseline
c) Multiple fests c) Software
d) Multiple locations d) All of the above

Answer:c Answer:b
Explanation:The answer is not related to the Explanation:Baseline – One or more software
question. configuration items that have been formally
5. Which of the following is a software process ? reviewed and agreed upon and serve as a basis for
a) Analysis and design further development.
b) Configuration and management 10. What is validating the completeness of a
c) Business modeling product?
d) All of the mentioned a) Identification
b) Software
Answer:d c) Auditing and Reviewing
Explanation:The answer is self explanatory. d) Status Accounting
6. Which of the following is not included in Issues
Meetings? Answer:c
a) Issues gathered the day before Explanation: Auditing and Reviewing is validating
b) Regular schedule of meeting the completeness of a product and that SCM
c) Discussion with business procedures are being followed.
d) Attendance 11. What is group with the responsibility for
reviewing and approving changes to baselines?
Answer:c a) Software Configuration Item
Explanation:Discussion with business is planning in b) Baseline
QA Meetings. c) Configuration
7. Which of the following is not a part of Software d) Configuration Control Board
Configuration Management Basics?
a) Identification Answer:d
b) Version Explanation:Configuration Control Board (CCB) is
c) Auditing and Reviewing the group with the responsibility for reviewing and
d) Status Accounting approving changes to baselines.
12. In many settings PM is a center of
communication hub
a) True 4. CM is about managing the different items in the
b) False product, and changes in them.
a) True
Answer:a b) False
Explanation:The answer is self explanatory.
13. What is a specific instance of a baseline or Answer:a
configuration item? Explanation:The answer is self explanatory.
a) Software 5. What allows different projects to use the same
b) Configuration source files at the same time?
c) Version a) Version Control
d) Status Accounting b) Access control
c) CM Process
Answer:c d) Version Control and Access control
Explanation:Even the smallest development projects
should utilize some sort of version and baseline Answer:a
control tool. Explanation:It allows software engineers to continue
. development along a branch even when a line of
development is frozen.
Software Control - 6. Which of the following is not a change
“Software Control”. management process?
1. SCM stands for a) Log the changes
a) Software Control Management b) Estimate impact on effort and schedule
b) Software Configuration Management c) Review impact with stakeholders
c) Software Concept Management d) None of the mentioned
d) None of the above
Answer:d
Answer:b Explanation:All are required for a change.
Explanation:In software engineering, software 7. Configuration management (CM) is needed to
configuration management (SCM) is the task of deliver product to the client
tracking and controlling changes in the software, a) True
part of the larger cross-discipline field of b) False
configuration management.
2. When code is made available to others, it goes in Answer:a
a/an Explanation:The answer is self explanatory.
a) hard drive 8. What is one or more software configuration items
b) access-controlled library that have been formally reviewed and agreed upon
c) servers and serve as a basis for further development?
d) access control a) Baseline
b) Cumulative changes
Answer:b c) CM
Explanation:The answer is self explanatory. d) Change Control
3. Which of the following is not a main phase in
Configuration Management (CM) Process? Answer:a
a) CM Planning Explanation:In configuration management, a
b) Executing the CM process “baseline” is an agreed-to description of the
c) CM audits attributes of a product, at a point in time, which
d) None of the mentioned serves as a basis for defining change.
9. How are baselines verified?
Answer:d a) By reviews
Explanation:All are main phases of CM. b) By inspections
c) By testing of code d) SQA and SQM
d) All of the above
Answer:a
Answer:c Explanation:Quality Management is also called
Explanation:Testing verifies the agreed-to software quality assurance (SQA) which serves as
description. an umbrella activity that is applied throughout the
10. Which of the following is a example of software process.
Configuration Items ? 2. Quality also can be looked at in terms of user
a) SCM procedures satisfaction which includes
b) Source code a) A compliant product
c) Software design descriptions b) Good quality output
d) All of the mentioned c) Delivery within budget and schedule
d) All of the mentioned
Answer:d
Explanation:All are covered in CM. Answer:d
11. SCM controls only the products of the Explanation:This focuses on how well the
development process. implementation follows the design and how well the
a) True resulting system meets its requirements .
b) False 3. Inspections and testing are what kinds of Quality
Costs?
Answer:a a) Prevention
Explanation:The answer is self explanatory. b) Internal Failure
12. CCB stands for c) External Failure
a) Change Control Board d) Appraisal
b) Change Control Baseline
c) Cumulative Changes in Baseline Answer:d
d) None of the mentioned Explanation:Inspections, equipment calibration,
maintenance and testing appraisal costs is quality
Answer:a management.
Explanation:The answer is self explanatory. 4. According to Pareto’s principle, x% of defects can
13. What information is required to process a change be traced to y% of all causes. What are the values of
to a baseline? x and y?
a) Reasons for making the changes a) 60, 40
b) A description of the proposed changes b) 70, 30
c) List of other items affected by the changes c) 80, 20
d) All of the mentioned d) No such principle exists

Answer:d Answer:c
Explanation:A baseline is an agreed-to description Explanation:The Pareto principle (also known as the
of the product, changes require multiple reasons.. 80–20 rule) states that, for many events, roughly
. 80% of the effects come from 20% of the causes.
5. What is Six Sigma?
Quality Management - a) It is the most widely used strategy for statistical
“Quality Management”. quality assurance
1. Quality Management in software engineering is b) The “Six Sigma” refers to six standard deviations
also known as c) It is the most widely used strategy for statistical
a) SQA quality assurance AND The “Six Sigma” refers to
b) SQM six standard deviations
c) SQI d) A Formal Technical Review(FTR) guideline for
quality walkthrough or inspection d) Appraisal

Answer:c Answer:b
Explanation:The Six Sigma uses data and statistical Explanation:This includes rework, repair, and failure
analysis to measure and improve a company’s mode analysis.
operational performance . 11. The degree to which the design specifications
6. Which of the following is not a core step of Six are followed during manufacturing is known as
Sigma? a) Quality of design
a) Define b) Quality of conformance
b) Control c) Quality of testing
c) Measure d) None of the mentioned
d) Analyse
Answer:b
Answer:b Explanation:This focuses on how well the
Explanation:It is an additional step added for implementation follows the design and how well the
existing processes and can be done in parallel. resulting system meets its requirements.
7. Non-conformance to software requirements is 12. Quality of design encompasses requirements and
known as specifications of the system.
a) Software availability a) True
b) Software reliability b) False
c) Software failure
d) None of the mentioned Answer:a
Explanation:The characteristic that designers specify
Answer:c for an item are cover in quality of design.
Explanation:Given a set of valid requirements, all 13. According to ISO 9001, inspection and testing
software failures can be traced to design or comes under which management responsibility?
implementation problems. a) Process control
8. Software safety is equivalent to software b) Document control
reliability. c) Control of non-conforming products
a) True d) Servicing
b) False
Answer:a
Answer:b Explanation:The answer is self explanatory.
Explanation:Software reliability uses statistical .
analysis to determine the likelihood that a software
failure will occur; however, the failure may not
necessarily result in a hazard or mishap.
9. Misinterpretation of customer communication is a
sample of possible cause defects.
a) True
b) False

Answer:a
Explanation:Translation gap between the client and
the developer often leads to software defects.
10. What kind of quality cost is incurred when an
error is detected in a product prior to shipment?
a) Prevention
b) Internal Failure
c) External Failure