2023 YEAR 4 MOCK EXAMS

Instruction: Choose only the correct option

HAEMATOLOGY/BLOOD GROUP SEROLOGY

1. Naturally occurring anti-D can be found in ___ individuals (a) A Rh D Positive (b) A Rhesus D negative (c) O Rh D
negative (d) None of the above (e) All of the above
2. Which of the following is true about the colour of antisera (a) Anti-A is yellow while Anti-B is blue (b) Anti-A is blue
while Anti-AB is white (c) Anti-B is blue while Anti-AB is colourless (d) it is due to presence of dyes
3. Which of the following tubes is not included in cross match? (a) Saline at 37 o C (b) Albumin at room temperature (c)
Saline at room temperature (d) Indirect Coombs test (e) None of the above
4. The recommended titre for anti-B is (a) 512 (b) 256 (c) 64 (d) 32 (e) A is correct
5. Direct Coomb’s test is performed on (a) Patient’s red cells (b) Patients Serum (c) Donor’s red cells (d) donor’s serum
(e) D only
6. Which is true for normal saline concentration (a) 0.85g/L (b) 9g/dl (c) 9g/L (d) 0.85mg in 100ml of water (e) None of
the above
7. Freshly collected donor blood is placed in the refrigerator after (a) 30 minutes (b) 10minutes (c) not delayed,
immediately (d) 1hr (e) 24 hrs
8. The standard wide gauge for needles for donor bleeding is (a) 19 SWG (b) 21 SWG (c) 23 SWG (d)25 SWG (e) all
except A are correct
9. Which of the following antibodies does not occur naturally in group O Rhesus D negative individuals? (a) Anti-B (b)
Anti-A (c) Anti-D (d) None of the above (e) all of the above
10. Which of this is true of a newborn with HDN (a) Both father and mother are Rh positive (b) Only mother is Rh
positive (c) The child is Rhesus Negative (d) The father is Rhesus negative (e) The child is Rhesus positive
11. For a newborn with HDN, Direct Coomb’s test will be performed on (a) Baby’s serum (b) Baby’s red cells (c)
Mothers serum (d) Mother’s red cells (e) Baby’s red cells and mother’s serum
12. All the following will cause a positive direct Coomb’s test except (a) autoimmune haemolytic anaemia (b) haemolytic
disease of the newborn (c) post transfusion reaction (d) Drug induced haemolytic anaemia (e) None of the above
13. Which of the following is not taken into consideration when recruiting donors for blood transfusion (a) Donor’s
weight (b) Donor’s height (c) Donor’s occupation (d) Donor’s physical appearance (e) Donor’s age
14. Apheresis procedure will separate the following components of blood except (a) white cells (b) red cells (c) Red cell
haemoglobin (d) Platelet (e) Plasma
15. Which of the following is not required in ABO blood grouping (a) Anti-A (b) Anti-B (c) Anti-AB (d) Anti-D (e) None
of the above
16. Which is true for Du individuals (a) They cannot receive Rh positive blood (b) They are Rh D negative (c) They can
donate blood to Rh negative individuals (d) They have natural anti-D in serum (e) None of the above
17. Which of the following is not true of ABO antibodies (a) They are naturally occurring (b) They react at room
temperature (c) They react at 4o C (d) They are immune antibodies (e) They are usually of IgM class
18. Which is false about haemolysins (a) They can destroy A cells (b) They are warm antibodies (c) They cause red cell
haemolysis in absence of complement (d) They can destroy B cells (e) None of the above
19. Which of these is not a quality of good antiserum (a) Specificity (b) Presence of Rouleaux forming substances (c)
Avidity (d) Absence of fats (e) None of the above
20. For an individual of blood group AB, Direct ABO grouping will show reaction with (a) Anti-A only (b) Anti-B only
(c) Anti-A and Anti-B (d) Anti-A, Anti-B and Anti-AB (e) No reaction
21. To prepare 20% cell suspension, the ratio of washed cells to normal saline is (a) 1:19 (b) 1:20 (c) 1:21 (d) 1:4 (e) 1:9
22. Normal blood pressure for a blood donor in mmHg is (a) 80/120 (b) 60/180 (c) 180/ 60 (d) 120/80 (e) 160/80
23. Controls for indirect grouping should include (a) A2-cells (b) B-cells (c) O-cells (d) Anti-A (e) All except D
24. The colour of Coomb’s reagent is (a) Straw colour (b) Blue colour (c) Yellow colour (d) Green (e) Colourless
25. A reaction with A2-cells, B-cells and O cells indicate which blood group (a) A (b) B (c) AB (d) O (e) Bombay
26. The buffer used for Leishman staining technique for thin blood film is (a) an acetate buffer (b) A phosphate buffer (c)
Borate buffer (d) Barbitone buffer (e) Bicarbonate buffer
27. Concerning capillary tubes, which is false among the statements (a) Red tip contains Na heparin (b) Blue tip contain
lithium heparin (c) Green tip contains ammonium heparin (d) Orange tip contains Lithium heparin (e) Black strips
contain EDTA
28. Which of the following stain can be used for reticulocyte count? (a) Brilliant cresyl blue (b) New Methylene blue (c)
Azure B (d) A and B only (e) All of the above
29. Drabkin’s solution contains the following except (a) Potassium ferrocyanide (b) Potassium Cyanide (c) Non-ionic
detergent (d) Potassium dihydrogen phosphate (e) None of the above
30. The total ruled area for the improved Neubauer counting chamber is (a) 9mm (b) 16mm 2 (c) 25mm2 (d) 9mm2 (e)
0.1mm
31. PCV is spun at (a) 1200g (b) 15000g (c) 12000g (d) 12000rpm (e) 1200rpm
32. Coagulation factors present in fresh serum include (a) Factor X (b) Factor II (c) Factor IX (d) All of the above (e)
None of the above
33. Prothrombin time detects factors in which coagulation pathway? (a) Intrinsic only (b) Extrinsic only (c) Intrinsic and
common pathway (d) Extrinsic and common pathway (e) Both intrinsic and extrinsic pathway
34. Which of the following will cause an increase in ESR (a) Sideroblastic anaemia (b) Anaemia of chronic disease (c)
sickle cell anaemia (d) thalasemia (e) Vitamin B 12 deficiency
35. The size of the needle for venepuncture in infants is (a) 23 SWG (b) 18 SWG (c) 19 SWG (d) 21 SWG (e) 15 SWG
36. Which of the following factors if deficient will cause prolong prothrombin time (a) Factor XII (b) Factor VIII (c)
Factor IX (d) Factor VII (e) Factor XI
37. Which of the following is used to classify anaemia (a) MCV (b) MCH (c) MCHC (d) All of the above (d) Only A is
correct
38. The reference range for PTTK is (a) 5 – 11 min. (b) 5-11 sec. (c) 30 – 40 sec. (d) 11-14 sec. (e) 2-7 min.
39. The wavelength for measuring haemoglobin is (a) 520nm (b) 540nm (C) 560nm (d) 620nm (e) 610nm
40. The following factors influence PCV value except (a) Topography (b) Age (c) Gender (d) Gestation (e) Height
41. Whole blood clothing time is measured using (a) Ivy’s method (b) Duke’s method (c) Lee and White method (d)
Jenner’s method (e) None of the above
42. The extreme 4 corner squares of improved Neubauer counting chamber have a total of ____ squares (a) 9 (b) 16 (c) 25
(d) 64 (e) 20
43. Which can be used for WBC count? (a) Drabkin’s solution (b) Hayem’s fluid (c) Dacie’s fluid (d) Toisson’s fluid (e)
None of the above
44. Concerning sample tubes, choose the untrue statement (a) Dark blue top contain lithium heparin (b) Light blue top
contain Sodium citrate (c) Lavender top contain EDTA (d) Red top contain no anticoagulant (e) Light blue top contain
0.1ml of Trisodium citrate for collecting 5ml of blood
45. Which of the following books is not found in haematology reception unit? (a) Registration book (b) Dispatch book (c)
Record book (d) Patient book (d) None of the above
46. EDTA stock solution is prepared as ___ solution (a) 2% (b) 5% (c) 10% (d) 100% (e) 0.15%
47. Which is true concerning dilution for WBC count (a) 0.02ul of blood to 0.38ml of diluent (b) 0.02ul of diluent to
0.38ml of blood (c) 0.02ml of blood to 0.38ul of diluents (d) 0.02ml of diluent to 0.38ml of blood (e) 20uL of blood to
380ul of diluents
48. Diluting fluid used for red cell count is (a) Turk’s fluid (b) Toisson’s fluid (c) Dacie’s fluid (d) Hayem’s fluid (e) C
and D
49. Platelet are counted using ___ microscope objective (a) x4 (b) x10 (c) x20 (d) x40 (e) x100
50. Which is true concerning dilution for ESR by Westergren method (a) 0.5ml of blood is added to 2ml of diluents (b)
0.5ml of diluent is added to 2ml of blood (c) 20uL of blood to 0.38ml of diluents (d) 0.02ml of diluents to 0.38ml of
blood (e) 0.02ml of blood to 4ml of diluents
 CHEMICAL PATHOLOGY
1. Which of the following is not detected using Combi-9 test strip? (a) Leucocyte esterase (b) pH (c) Ascorbic acid (d)
Glucose (e) Nitrite
2. Which of the following is false for analytes and their estimation methods (a) Diacetylmonoxime method for
Creatinine (b) Bertholet’s method for urea (c) Copper reduction method for glucose (d) Biurete method for protein (e)
Van de Bergh method for bilirubin
3. Distilled water is different from deionized water because (a) it is free from ions (b) it is free from pyrogen (c) it is
produced using water deionizer (d) it contains sulpahtes (e) it contains chlorides
4. Blood for E/U/Cr meant for intra-operative decision making should be collected in (a) Plain bottle (b) Potassium
oxalate bottle (c) EDTA bottle (d) Lithium heparin bottle (e) A only
5. The following are routinely analysed during lipid profile test except (a) Triglycerides (b) Total cholesterol (c) HDL
(d) LDL (e) None of the above
6. Fertility profile include all but one (a) FSH (b) LH (c) Testosterone (d) insulin (e) Oestrogen
7. The following are types of dilutions except (a) Doubling dilution (b) Serial dilution (c) Fractional dilution (d) All of
the above (e) None of the above
8. Chloride can be estimated using the following methods (a) Colorimetric method (b) Ion selective electrode method (c)
Titrimetric method (d) All of the above (d) None of the above
9. Which of the following is not used during chloride titration (a) Diphenylcarbazone (b) 0.1N Mercuric nitrate (c)
0.01N Sulfuric acid (d) Distilled water (e) 2N nitric acid
10. The concentration of creatinine standard is (a) 0.585g/dl (b) 88.6-177.2 umol/L (c) 354.4umol/L (d) 96-108mmol/L
(e) 0.585mg/dl
11. Which of the following can be used as urine preservatives (a) HCl (b) Toluene (c) Thymol (d) Formalin (e) All of the
above
12. Examples of primary standard include all but one (a) Silver nitrate (b) Sodium carbonate (c) Oxalic acid (d) Sodium
hydroxide (e) Sodium chloride
13. Concentration of glucose standard used in glucose oxidase test is (a) 3.3mmol/L (b) 10mmol/L (c) 5.55mmol/L (d)
6.86mmol/L (e) None of the above
14. The following are types of blanks except (a) Reagent blank (b) Water blank (c) Sample blank (d) Standard blank (e)
None of the above
15. The degree of closeness of an analytical value to the actual value in the sample analysed is called (a) Accuracy (b)
Precision (c) Specificity (d) Reproducibility (e) Sensitivity
16. The degree of reproducibility is also known as (a) Accuracy (b) Precision (c) Sensitivity (d) Specificity (e) Ductility
17. Which of the following is not an anticoagulant used in Chemical pathology (a) EDTA (b) Heparin (c) Potassium
oxalate (d) Sodium fluoride (e) None of the above
18. Which of the following is not assayed for during liver function test (a) Alanine aminotransferase (b) Aspartate
aminotransferase (c) Acid phosphatase (d) Serum bilirubin (e) None of the above
19. Which of the following method is used for serum glucose estimation (a) Glucose oxidase method (b) Copper
reduction method (c) Glucose dehydrogenase method (d) All of the above (e) Only A is correct
20. Which of the following is not true of normal ranges for electrolytes (a) Cl = 96-108mmol (b) HCO 3- = 22-28mmol/L
(c) Na+ = 132 – 145mmol/L (d) K+ = 3.2-5.0mmol/L (e) None of the above
21. Which of the following is not true concerning normal ranges for sugar estimation (a) FBS = 3.5 – 5.5mmol/L (b) RBS
up to 9.5mmol/L (c) 2hr PP less than 7.1mmol/L (d) None of the above (e) B and C
22. All but one are true of normal protein concentration in serum (a) Total protein = 62 – 82g/L (b) Albumin = 36 – 52g/L
(c) Globulin = 18 – 36g/L (d) All of the above (e) None of the above
23. Choose the true statement regarding normal ranges for FLP (a) TC = 3.0 – 6.5mmol/L (b) HDL = 0.9 – 1.5mmol/L (c)
LDL = 2.5 – 3.3mmol/L (d) VLDL = 0.40 – 0.60mmol/L and TG = 0.80 – 1.20mmol/L (e) All of the above
24. Concerning normal ranges for Liver enzymes, choose the wrong statement (a) AST up to 40iu/L (b) ALT up to 40iu/L
(c) ALP = 22 – 92iu/L (d) B is wrong (e) All are correct
25. The reception is divided into _ and _ units (a) Clerical and Payment unit (b) Clerical and Resting unit (c) Clerical and
Phlebotomy unit (d) Phlebotomy and Payment unit (e) Patient relaxation unit and sample reception unit
26. One method employed in separation bench in Chemical Pathology in UCTH is (a) Diacetyl monoxime method (b)
Urease Bertholet’s method (c) Glucose Oxidase Method (d) Centrifugation method (e) All except D
27. Urinalysis is carried out to detect (a) Liver disease (b) Kidney diseases (c) Metabolic diseases (d) UTIs (e) All of the
above
28. In estimation of serum creatinine using Modified Yadzidi’s method, absorbance is read at (a) 540nm (b) 520nm (c)
560nm (d) 600nm (e) 510nm
29. The second most abundant anion in ECF is (a) Cl- (b) HCO3 (c) K+ (d) Na+ (e) Ca2+
30. The most abundant intracellular Cation is (a) Cl- (b) HCO3 (c) K+ (d) Na+ (e) Ca2+
31. Which of the following is estimated using back titration (a) Cl - (b) HCO3 (c) K+ (d) Na+ (e) Ca2+
32. One of the following is true of pipette with the prefix ‘Ex’ (a) It is a blow out pipette (b) It should contain its volume
(c) It should deliver the marked volume (d) All of the above (d) None of the above
33. Which of the following is true of Van Slyke’s method for Bicarbonate (a) Bicarbonates reacts with NaOH (b)
Bicarbonate reacts with Neutral red (c) Sulfuric acid reacts with NaOH (d) Purple colour indicates End point (e)None
of the above
34. In creatinine estimation using Modified Yadzidi’s method, colour development occur after the addition of (a) Picric
acid (b) Distilled water (c) Alkaline buffer (d) Diphenylcarbazone (e) 0.1% Neutral red
35. The buffer used for creatinine estimation in Modified Yadzidis method has a pH of (a) 8.0 (b) 8.4 (c) 8.6 (d) 9 (e) 12
36. Which of the following will not give a positive test with Benedict’s test (a) Homogentisic acid (b) Maltose (c) Uric
acid (d) Salicylic acid (e) None of the above
37. A test strip containing the diazonium salt 2,6 dichlorobenzene flouroborate can be used to detect ___ in urine (a)
Ascorbic acid (b) Blood (c) Ketone bodies (d) Bilirubin (e) Nitrite
38. A test strip impregnated with Sodium nitroprusside can be used for detection of ____in urine (a) Ketone bodies (b)
Protein (c) Blood (d) Nitrite (e) Bilirubin
39. Which of the following strip can be used to detect the ketone bodies acetoacetic acid and acetone (a) Ketostix strip (b)
Acetest (c) Clinistix strip (d) Albuxtix (e) Urobilistix
40. Sodium fluoride preserves blood glucose by inhibiting _____ (a) glucose dehydrogenase (b) Pyruvate dehydrogenase
(c) Lactate dehydrogenase (d) Enolase (e) Hexokinase
41. Proprietary reagents are used on which bench (a) Urea bench (b) Electrolyte bench (c) Enzyme bench (d) Urinalysis
bench (e) Creatinine bench
42. The following are equipment in chemical pathology laboratory except (a) Water bath (b) Microscope (c) Centrifuge
(d) Spectrophotometer (e) None of the above
43. Which of the following bottles is used for storing serum (a) Universal bottles (b) Mccartney bottles (c) Cryovials (d)
Lithium heparin bottle (e)Sodium heparin bottles
44. Which of the following is true of pipette with the prefix ‘In’ (a) the pipette is a blow out pipette (b) the pipette is
designed to contain its volume (c) the pipette is designed to deliver its volume (d) All of the above (e) None of the
above
45. The concentration of protein standard used for estimating CSF protein is (a) 30mg/dl (b) 40mg/dl (c) 50mg/dl
(d)60mg/dl (e) 80mg/dl
46. Which of the following test is carried out on CSF (a) Test for glucose (b) Test for protein (c) Test for Chloride (d) All
of the above (e) A and B only
47. For the estimation of CSF protein, absorbance is read at (a) 520nm (b) 540nm (c) 505nm (d) 510nm (e) 600nm
48. The renal threshold for creatinine is (a) 180mg/dl (b) 160mg/dl (c) 140mg/dl (d) Omg/dl (e) 88.6-177.2 umol/L
49. Urinary tract infection can be detected on Combi-9 through a positive (a) Nitrite (b) Leucocyte esterase (c) Ketone
bodies (d) A and B (e) A only
50. Which of the following is a proprietary reagent (a) Benedict’s reagent (b) Glucose oxidase reagent (c) Ketostix strip
(d) Picric acid (e) Buffer
 MICROBIOLOGY
1. All the following are true of mannitol salt agar except (a) It is used for isolation of Staphylococcus aureus (b) It
contains neutral red as indicator (c) Staphylococcus aureus colonies grow red (d) None of the above
2. The following are lactose fermenters except (a) Escherichia coli (b) Klebsiella pneumoniae (c) Enterobacter app (d)
Proteus vulgaris (e) Citrobacter freundii
3. Which of the following is not a phase in the bacterial growth curve (a) Decline phase (b) Lag phase (c) Log phase (d)
feeding phase (e) exponential phase
4. An example of obligate anaerobe is (a) Klebsiella pneumonia (b) Escherichia coli (c) Pseudomonas aeroginosa
(d)Bacillus anthracis (e) Clostridium tetani
5. Diagnostic characteristics of Staphylococcus aureus include all but one (a) Gram positive cocci in cluster (b) Positive
catalase test (c) Positive coagulase test (d) motile growth in motility media (e) Golden yellow colonies on media
6. Free coagulase can be demonstrated using (a) Tube coagulase test (b) Slide coagulase test (c) Motility media (d)
Oxidase test (e) CAMP test
7. Bacterial motility may be detected in all but one (a) Wet preparation (b) Hanging drop preparation (c) Semi-solid
media (d) Fluid or liquid media (e) Dark field microscopy
8. All are selective media except one (a) Selenite F broth (b) DCA (c) MacConkey agar (d) Sabouraud dextrose agar (e)
Tomato juice agar
9. An example of enrichment media is (a) MacConkey agar (b) Blood agar (c) Nutrient agar (d) Nutrient broth (e)
Selenite F broth
10. Which of the following media is used for culturing AFB? (a) MacConkey agar (b) Corn meal agar (c) Lowestein
Jensen media (d) Thayer-Martin medium
11. Media for blood culture include all but one (a)BHIB (b) Trypticase soy broth (c) Thioglycollate broth (d) Nutrient
broth (e) none of the above
12. The diluting fluid for sperm count is (a) Normal saline (b) 10% Neutral buffered formalin (c) Sodium bicarbonate
formalin (d) Formal saline (e) all of the above can be used
13. Urine pathogens include all but one (a) Escherichia coli (b) Haemophilus influenza (c) Staphylococcus saprophyticus
(d) Pseudomonas aeroginosa (e) Klebsiella pneumoniae
14. Which of the following is not a method of bacterial culture on solid media (a) Spread plate method (b) Streak plate
method (c) Sterile plate method (d) Quadrant method (e) none of the above
15. The most widely used method of streaking on media is (a) Continuous streak (b) 3 phase T-streak (c) Radiant streak
(d) Rectangular streak (e) Quadrant streak
16. Which of the following is a natural stain? (a) Methylene blue (b) Neutral red (c) Crystal violet (d) Acid fuchsin (e)
None of the above
17. Which of the following is true of Safranin (a) It is an acidic dye (b) it is a basic dye (c) it is a neutral dye (d) it is an
amphoteric dye (e) it is a violet dye
18. Which of the following is carried out on serology bench (a) Widal test (b) VDRL test (c) All of the above (d) None of
the above (e) B only
19. Oils and powders are best sterilized by (a) Inspissation (b) autoclaving (c) Tyndalization (d) hot air oven (e)
Pasteurization
20. Hydrogen sulphide production on media is seen in (a)Salmonella spp (b) Proteus vulgaris (c) Pseudomonas
aeroginosa (d) A only (e) A and B
21. The following are differential media except (a) Blood agar (b) Chocolate agar (c) CLED agar (d) Nutrient agar
22. Sterilization at 100O C for 3 consecutive days is known as (a) Pasteurization (b) Tyndallization (c) Inspissation (d)
Only A is correct (e) None is correct
23. Concerning Kliggler Iron agar, Acid butt/Alkaline slant indicates that the organism is (a) A lactose fermenter only (b)
A glucose fermenter only (c) Both a lactose fermenter and glucose fermenter (d) A hydrogen sulfide producer (e)
Cannot degrade amino acids
24. Kliggler Iron agar differs from TSI agar because (a) it contains glucose (b) it contains lactose (c) it contains sucrose
(d) It contains ferric sulphate (e) None of the above
25. Which of the following organisms will give an alkaline slant/Acid butt reaction in KIA (a) Escherichia coli (b)
Klebsiella pneumonia (c) Enterobacter aerogenes (d) Shigella spp (e) Pseudomonas aeroginosa
26. Which of the following is true of brine Floatation technique (a) parasites with spg <1.2 will sink (b) Parasites with spg
>1.2 will float (c) it cannot concentrate Schistosoma eggs (d) All are correct (e) None is correct
27. Which of the following is true of malaria RDT (a) It detects antibodies against malaria parasites (b) It detects
histidine-rich-protein in malaria (c) it detects malaria pigment in blood (d) it detects malaria chromatin (e) it detects
malaria merozoites
28. Which of the following is a sexually transmitted parasite (a) Neisseria gonorrhoeae (b) Trichomonas vaginalis (c)
Schistosoma haematobium (d) Escherichia coli (e) A and B
29. The forms of plasmodium parasite seen in peripheral blood smear include all but one (a)Trophozoite (b) hypnozoites
(c) Schizonts (d) Gametocyte (e) None of the above
30. The larvae of ___ can be seen in stool (a) Ascaris lumbricoides (b) Strongyloides stercoralis (c) Schistosoma mansoni
(d) Trichuris trichiura (e) None of the above
31. How many grams of Giemsa powder is required to prepare 500ml of Giemsa stock solution (a) 10g (b) 5g (c) 3g (d)
2g (e) 3.8g
32. For a Giemsa working solution of 2%, the recommended staining Time is (a) 2min (b) 10min (c) 30 - 45 min (d) 45 -
60min (e) 15min
33. Which of the following stains is not used in Parasitology (a) Eosin (b) Field's stain (c) Ziehl-Neelsen stain (d)
Methylene blue (e) None of the above
34. Which of the following is true about quantification of malaria parasites (a) + = 1-10 parasites/100HPF (b) ++ = 11-
100 /100HPF (c) +++ = 1-10 /HPF (d) 4+ = more than 11/HPF (e) All of the above
35. Which of the following microfilariae is Aperiodic (a) Wuchereria bancrofti (b) Loa loa (c) Mansonella app (d)
Bruggia malayi (e) Bruggia tomori
36. The percentage concentration of formalin used in Knott's concentration is (a) 10% (b) 4% (c) 2% (d) 40% (e) 20%
37. Knott's concentration technique is used for (a) Urine sample (b) Stool sample (c) blood sample (e) Urethral sample
38. Which of the following nematode can be seen in blood smear (a) Plasmodium spp (b) Trypanosome (c)Leishmania
spp (d) microfilaria (e) Ascaris lumbricooides
39. An example of flagellate that is seen in stool is (a) Entamoeba histolytica (b) Strongyloides stercoralis (c)
Cryptosporidium parvum (d) Giardia lamblia (e) Salmonella spp
40. Skin snips are collected at (a) shoulder region (b) Iliac crest (c) Calves (d) All of the above (e) Only A is correct
41. All are features of P. falciparum infected Red cells in stained thin blood film except (a) enlarged RBC (b) presence of
marginal forms (c) multiple ring forms in one RBC (d) Red chromatin dot (e) blue Cytoplasm
42. Which of the following is recommended for preservation of stool specimens (a) HCl (b) Mercuric chloride (c) 10%
formal saline (d) Boric acid (e) Flemming's fluid
43. Floatation techniques for stool concentration utilizes (a) Brine (b) 33% Zinc sulphate (c) ether (d) A and B (e) Only A
44. Which of the following is false of fields stain (a) it is prepared as stain A and B (b) it is a Romanowsky stain (c) It
does not utilize buffer (d) All of the above (e) None of the above
45. The central nervous system is parasitized by (a) Naegleria fowleri (b) Microfilaria (c) Entamoeba histolytica (d)
Trichinella spiralis (e) None of the above
46. Which of the following is not a method of parasite transmission (a) Ingestion (b) Inoculation (c) Inhalation (d)
Contact (e) None of the above
47. These parasites have their ova passed in stool except (a) Ascaris lumbricoides (b) Taenia saginata (c) Schistosoma
japonicum (d) Hymenelopis nana (e) Trichinella spiralis
48. Which of the following cause lymphatic filariasis (a) Ochocerca volvulus (b) Loa loa (c) Wuchereria bancrofti (d) All
of the above (e) None of the above
49. Normal saline in stool examination ___ (a) enhance parasite motility (b) decrease parasite motility and stabilize the
parasite for better microscopy (c) Colours the parasite (d) fixes the parasite (e) clear fats from parasites
50. Which of the following is true of working Giemsa solution and the staining time (a) 10% Giemsa for 10minutes (b)
3% Giemsa for 45-60minutes (c) 2% Giemsa for 30-45minutes (d) None of the above