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Hematology Questions

This document is a mock examination for medical students focusing on hematology, consisting of multiple-choice questions covering various blood disorders, their characteristics, diagnostic tests, and treatments. It includes questions on conditions like myelodysplastic syndrome, sickle cell disease, and hemophilia, as well as laboratory findings relevant to anemia and leukemias. The exam is designed to assess the students' understanding of hematological concepts within a 15-minute time frame.

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Duke Okechukwu
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100% found this document useful (1 vote)
105 views6 pages

Hematology Questions

This document is a mock examination for medical students focusing on hematology, consisting of multiple-choice questions covering various blood disorders, their characteristics, diagnostic tests, and treatments. It includes questions on conditions like myelodysplastic syndrome, sickle cell disease, and hemophilia, as well as laboratory findings relevant to anemia and leukemias. The exam is designed to assess the students' understanding of hematological concepts within a 15-minute time frame.

Uploaded by

Duke Okechukwu
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
Download as PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd
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CHRISTIAN MEDICAL AND DENTAL ASSOCIATION OF NIGERIA – STUDENTS’ ARM

MOCK EXAMINATION FOR GENERATION OF DELIGHT (C1)

HAEMATOLOGY MCQ

INSTRUCTION: ANSWER ALL QUESTIONS​ ​ ​ ​ ​ TIME: 15 MINUTES

1. Myelodysplastic syndrome is characterized by all the signs, except:


a) Typical age of 60 or older and male
b) Characterized by macrocytosis, hypercellular bone marrow
c) Characterized by leukopenia
d) Characterized by coagulopathy
e) Can transform into acute leukemia

2. Pancytopenia is a typical feature of:


a) Chronic myelogenous leukemia
b) Multiple myeloma
c) Aplastic anemia
d) Chronic lymphocytic leukemia
e) All of the above

3. Which of the following diseases is characterized by immunological pathogenesis?


a) Megaloblastic anemia
b) Thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura
c) Essential thrombocythemia
d) Aplastic anemia
e) None of the above

4. Toxic granulation has the most significance in:


a) Viral infection
b) Acute leukemia
c) Bacterial infection
d) Vitamin B12 deficiency

5. Which of the following statements about reticulocytes is true?


a) Reticulocytes are normally present in the peripheral blood
b) Increased reticulocytes can indicate active bone marrow function
c) The synthesis of hemoglobin occurs in reticulocytes
d) In case of vitamin B12 deficiency, reticulocytes are reduced
e) None of the above.

6. Chronic lymphocytic leukemia is characterized by all the following, except:


a) The highest incidence is at 20–25 years of age
b) Autoimmune hemolytic anemia
c) Enlarged lymph nodes are seen in
d) Hepatosplenomegaly
e) Frequent Infections complications

7. A 20-year-old foreign exchange student is seen in the emergency department for priapism.
Urology performed an aspiration procedure and stabilized the patient. An underlying diagnosis
of sickle cell disease is suspected. What is the preferred laboratory test to diagnose this disease
in this patient?
a) Complete blood count
b) Deoxyribonucleic acid testing
c) High performance liquid chromatography
d) Peripheral blood smear

8. A 55-year-old man with a history of polycythemia vera presents to the clinic for routine
check-up. His Hb is 20.5 g/dL and hematocrit is 65%. He has no symptoms and does not have a
history of cardiac disease. Which of the following treatments should be initiated based on his
results?
a) Aspirin 325 mg
b) Phlebotomy
c) Hydroxyurea 25 mg
d) Splenectomy

9. A 36-year-old African American man presents with sudden onset of dark-colored urine,
epigastric pain, back pain, and jaundice after intense physical exertion. What is the most likely
diagnostic enzyme deficiency?
a) Pyruvate kinase;
b) Aminolevulinic acid dehydrogenase;
c) Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase;
d) Aminolevulinic acid synthase.

10. Which of the following describes the cause of hemophilia B?


a) ADAMTS13 enzyme deficiency;
b) Factor IX deficiency;
c) Factor VIII deficiency;
d) Ineffective platelet adhesion

11. Which is the treatment of choice in an adult patient with sickle cell disease?
a) Hydroxyurea.
b) Hydromyneus.
c) L-glutamine.
d) Plasmapheresis.
12. Which of the following clotting factors is dependent on vitamin K in the coagulation
cascade?
a) Factor II (Prothrombin).
b) Factor VII (Proconvertin).
c) Factor IX.
d) Factor X.

13. Which of the following laboratory findings would support glucose-6-phosphate


dehydrogenase deficiency?
a) Low reticulocyte count.
b) Increased haptoglobin.
c) Bite cells in peripheral blood smear.
d) Decreased LDH.

14. Which of the following is found to be markedly decreased or absent in the gastric secretion
of patients with pernicious anemia?
a) Gastrin.
b) Intrinsic factor.
c) Mucus.
d) Pepsinogen.

15. Which of the following is the most common site of bleeding in patients with hemophilia A?
a) Epistaxis.
b) Intracranial bleeding.
c) Synovial membrane.
d) Hemarthrosis.

16. What is the most common cause of anemia worldwide?


a) Anemia of chronic disease.
b) Thalassemia.
c) Iron deficiency anemia.
d) Sideroblastic anemia.

17. A 21-year-old woman presents to the clinic for evaluation of anemia that was diagnosed on
routine testing. She reports a history of heavy menstrual bleeding. Which of the following
findings would support the most likely cause of the patient's anemia?
a) High mean corpuscular volume
b) High serum ferritin
c) Low mean corpuscular hemoglobin concentration
d) Low total iron binding capacity

18. In erythropoiesis, mitosis stops at:


a) Orthochromatic stage
b) Basophil erythroblast
c) Normoblast
d) Polychromat
e) Reticulocyte

19. During erythroid differentiation:


a) GATA 1 decreases & GATA 2 increases
b) GATA 1 & GATA 2 decrease
c) GATA 1 & GATA 2 increase
d) GATA 2 decreases & GATA 1 increases
e) None of the above

20. The intrinsic transcriptional factor in lymphoid progenitor is:


a) PU 1
b) Ikaros
c) GATA 1
d) GATA 2
e) Fog

21. Hematopoietic stem cell is:


a) CD 34− & CD 38+
b) CD 38+ & CD 34+
c) CD 38
d) CD 34+ & CD 38−
e) CD 38− & CD 34−

22. In anemia of chronic disease, the red cell morphology is:


a) Hypochromic microcytic
b) TIBC is increased
c) Macrocytic
d) Increased ferritin level
e) None of the above

23. A 90-year-old army general presented with:


- Hb: 16 g/dL
- MCV: 73 fL
- MCH: 24 pg
- MCHC: 30 g/dL
What is the primary cause?
a) Nutritional
b) Hookworm infection
c) Brain cancer
d) Vitamin B12 deficiency
e) None of the above

24. In iron deficiency anemia:


a) Mean cell volume is increased
b) Total iron-binding capacity is increased
c) Serum iron is reduced
d) Bone marrow iron is increased
e) Transferrin saturation is increased

25. Antigen-presenting cells include:


a) HLA class I
b) HLA class II
c) Dendritic cells
d) Natural killer cells
e) Cytotoxic T-cells

26. Causes of megaloblastic anemia include all except


a) Crohn’s disease
b) Pregnancy
c) Old age
d) Hookworm
e) Methotrexate

27. Laboratory findings in hemolytic anemias include all except:


a) There is hyperbilirubinemia
b) Haptoglobin level is increased
c) There is reticulocytosis
d) Serum LDH is increased
e) Peripheral blood film shows spherocytes

28. The drug of choice for treatment of autoimmune hemolysis is:


a) Ascorutin
b) Aminocaproic acid
c) Glucocorticoids
d) Transfused red blood cells

29. Where lymph nodes in Hodgkin’s lymphoma are most often affected?
a) Inguinal
b) Mediastinal
c) Cervical
d) Axillary
e) Parastinal

30. What is the main lab finding in Hodgkin’s lymphoma?


a) Peripheral blood neutrophil leukocytosis
b) Anemia
c) Signs of intoxication
d) Peripheral lymph nodes
e) Presence of Reed-Sternberg cell on lymph node biopsy

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