(2001CMD303021240078)

(1001CMD303362240040) *1001CMD303362240040* Test Pattern

English

CLASSROOM CONTACT PROGRAMME NEET (UG)

MAJOR
(Academic Session : 2024-2025) 20-01-2025
31-12-2024

PRE-MEDICAL : ENTHUSIAST ADVANCE COURSE PHASE - MEG, MER, MES & MEU
IMPORTANT NOTE : Students having 8 digits Form No. must fill two zero before their Form No. in OMR.
For example, if your Form No. is 12345678, then you have to fill 0012345678.
Test Booklet Code This Booklet contains 32 pages.

E6 Do not open this Test Booklet until you are asked to do so.
Important Instructions :
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fill in the particulars on ORIGINAL Copy carefully with blue/black ball point pen only.
2. The test is of 3 hours 20 minutes duration and the Test Booklet contains 200 multiple-choice questions (four options with a
single correct answer) from Chemistry, Physics and Biology (Botany and Zoology). 50 questions in each subject are divided
into two Sections (A and B) as per details given below :
(a) Section A shall consist of 35 (Thirty-five) Questions in each subject (Question Nos - 1 to 35, 51 to 85, 101 to 135 and 151
to 185). All questions are compulsory.
(b) Section B shall consist of 15 (Fifteen) questions in each subject (Question Nos - 36 to 50, 86 to 100, 136 to 150 and 186 to
200). In Section B, a candidate needs to attempt any 10 (Ten) questions out of 15 (Fifteen) in each subject.
Candidates are advised to read all 15 questions in each subject of Section B before they start attempting the question
paper. In the event of a candidate attempting more than ten questions, the first ten questions answered by the candidate
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Your Target is to secure Good Rank in Pre-Medical 2025

 2 English

Topic : SYLLABUS-6

SECTION-A ( CHEMISTRY ) 5. Suppose following reaction

1. The major product of following reaction will be :-

HI (excess)
−−−−−−−→ The major product 'C' will be :-

(1) (2) (1) (2)

(3) (4)

(3) (4)

2. Major product
6. Which of following isomer of pentane (C5H12)
is :- gives four optically active products on
monochlorination?
(1) (2) (1) n – pantane (2) Isopentane
(3) Neopentane (4) Cyclopentane
7. Electrolytic reduction of Nitrobenzene in strong
(3) (4)
acidic medium gives :-
3. Which of the following give unpleasant smell (1) Aniline (2) 2 – Aminophenol
when treated with CHCl3 / KOH? (3) 3 – Aminophenol (4) 4 – aminophenol
8. Which does not give dichromate test ?
(1) (2) CH3 – NH – CH3
(1) CH3CH2OH (2)
(3) (4)

4. Which of the following is non reducing sugar :- (3) (4) CH3OH

(1) Sucrose 9. Which of the following alcohol is not oxidised

(2) Starch by PCC :
(3) Cellulose (1) n-butyl alcohol (2) sec-butyl alcohol
(4) All of these (3) iso-butyl alcohol (4) ter-butyl alcohol
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10. Benzamide on reaction with Br2 + NaOH gives :- 15. Find the final product z :
(1) aniline (2) chlorobenzene
(3) benzylamine (4) benzonitrile
11. Which is maximum reactive towards nucleophile ?
(1) CH3CONH2 (2) CH3COOCH3 (1) (2)
(3) CH3COCl (4) CH3COOC2H5
12.
(3) (4)

Product in above reaction is :- 16. Predict the products in the given reaction

(1) (2)

(1)
(3) (4)

13. (2)
Which of the following alcohol is least reactive
with Lucas reagent at room temperature ?
(3)
(1) (2) CH3 – CH2 – OH

(3) (4) (4)

14. Which of the following reaction will not lead to 17.

formation of a phenol :-
Product A,B and C are respectively.
(i ) Δ
(1) PhSO3Na + NaOH −−−−⊕→
(ii) H
Boil (1)
(2) Ph – N2Cl + H2O −−→
(3) Ph-ONa + R −∘X −→ (2) CH3 – COOH, CHI3, H – COOH
(1 )

Δ (3) CH3 – CHO, CHI3, H – CHO

(4) −→
(4) CH3 – CH3, CHI3,

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18. Find out the Major product in the following reaction :- 22. Find the hydrolysis product of maltose :-

major product is (1) α -D-Glucose + α -D-Glucose

(2) α -D-Glucose + α -D-Fructose
(1) (3) α -D-Glucose + α -D-Galactose

(2) (4) α -D-Fructose + α -D-Galactose

23. Which amino acid contain sulphur :-
(3) (1) Methionine and Arginine
(2) Aspargine and Cystine
(4)
(3) Methionine and Cystine
19. Colour of Fe(SCN)2+ is :- (4) Leucine and Cystine
(1) Violet (2) Black 24. Which of the following amine can be prepared
(3) Blood-red (4) Prussian blue by Gabriel Phthalimide synthesis?
20. In Lassaigne's test the organic compound is (1) Dimethyl Amine
fused with sodium metal as to :
(1) Hydrolyse the compound (2) Aniline
(2) Form a sodium derivative (3) Ethyl amine
(3) Convert nitrogen, sulphur and halogens (4) Trimethyl amine
present into soluble ionic sodium compounds
25.
(4) Burn the compound
21. Which of the following is non reducing sugar :- The product ''C'' is :-
(1) CH3CH2NH2
(1) (2)

(3) CH3 – CH2 – COONH4

(2) (4)

26. "DIBAL – H" can be used to prepare aldehyde

from
(3)
(1) Cyanide only

(2) Ester & isocyanides

(4) (3) Cyanide & isocyanides

(4) Cyanide & ester
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27. An organic compound having the molecular 31.
formula C8H10O on being heated with I2 and (X) Major
dilute NaOH gives a yellow precipitate. The
expected compound is : product

(1) C6H5CH2CH2OH The major product X is :-

(2)
(1)
(3)

(4) CHOH – CH3 (2)

28. Which of the following reacts fastest with NaI in
DMSO :-
(3)
(1) (2)
(4)

(3) (4) 32. The reagent suitable for given conversion is :-

29. Most reactive compound in following towards

nucleophilic substitation reaction :-

(1) Zn-Hg/HCl
(1) (2)
(2) HI/Red P
(3) NH2-NH2/OH – / Δ
(4) Both (1) and (2)
(3) (4) 33. Most reactive towards NAR is :

30. Statement-I :- Sec Butyl chloride is more (1) (2)

reactive than n-butyl chloride for SN2 reaction.
Statement-II :- Benzyl bromide is more reactive
than ethyl bromide for SN1. (3) (4)
(1) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are incorrect.
34. Fehling solution reacts with-
(2) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect.
(1) Aromatic aldehyde (2) Aliphatic aldehyde
(3) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct.
(3) Ketone (4) Both (1) & (2)
(4) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct.
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35. 38.
+ → (Q) :-

Choose the incorrect option :-

(1) (Q) has common name Aspirin

The conversion is carried out by (2) (P) has chemical name salicylic acid
(3) (Q) is analgesic in nature
(1) NaBH4
(2) LiAlH4
(4)
(3) Pd/H2
(4) Na – EtOH 39. In the given reaction (x) will be :-
SECTION-B ( CHEMISTRY )

36. The sugar present in milk is :-

(1) Sucrose (2) Maltose (1)
(3) Glucose (4) Lactose
37. Which of the following reaction have incorrect (2)
intermediate :-

(3)
(1)

(4)

(2) 40. Assertion (A) :- The boiling point of alcohols and

phenols increase with increase in the number of
carbon atoms.
Reason (R) :- The boiling point of alcohols and
phenols increase with increase in vandal waals forces.
(3)
(1) Both assertion and reason are correct and
reason is correctly explain the assertion.
(2) Both assertion and reason are correct but
reason is not explain the assertion.
(4)
(3) Assertion is correct but reason is incorrect.
(4) Assertion is incorrect but reason is correct.

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41. 44. Match List-I with List-II
Product D is :- List-I List-II
(1) CH3 – CH2 – Cl (a) (i) Etard reaction

(2)
(b) (ii) Kolbe's reaction
(3) CH3 – CH3

(4) Hell vohlard

(c) (iii)
Zelinsky reaction
42. Suppose the following reaction :-
Reimer Tiemann
(d) (iv)
reaction
The structure of intermediate compound 'B' will be :- Choose the correct answer
(1) (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)
(1) (2) (a)-(iii), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)
(3) (a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(iii), (d)-(ii)
(4) (a)-(i), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iv)
(2) 45. Consider the following reaction-

(3) Product B is ?

(1)
(4)

(2)
43. The product formed from the following reaction
sequence is
(3)

(1) CH3 – CH2 – COOH (2) CH3 – CH2 – OH

(4)
(3) (4)

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 8 English

46. In the reaction 49. Which of the following is an example of

( i ) B2 H 6 Cr2 O−2
7
2-Butene −−−−−−−−−−→ (A) −−−−→ (B)
(ii) H2 O2 /OH H2 SO4 nucleophilic substitution reaction.
(B) is :-
(1) Butane (2) 1-Butene
(1)
(3) Butyraldehyde (4) Butanone
47.
A (Major), Product A is

(2)
(1) (2)

(3) (4) All of these

(3)
48. For the given reaction

(4) CH3CHO + HCN → CH3CH(OH)CN

Which substrate will give maximum racemisation?
50. Which of following pair can not be seperated by

(1) using NaHSO3 ?

(1)
(2)

(3) (2)

(3)

(4) (4) All of these

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 English 9
Topic : SYLLABUS-6

SECTION-A ( PHYSICS ) 55. For the given incident ray as shown in figure, the
condition of total internal reflection of this ray
51. In the diagram shown the velocity of image will the minimum refractive index of prism will be : –
be along :-

(1) √ 3+1 (2) √ 2+1

(1) P (2) Q (3) R (4) S 2 2
52. A point object is placed in front of a thick plane (3) √
3 (4) √
7
mirror as shown in figure. Find the location of 2 6
final image w.r.t. object :- 56. A prism ABC of angle 30° has its face AC
silvered. A ray of light incident at an angle of 45°
at the face AB retrace its path after refraction at
face AB and reflection at face AC. The refractive
index of the material of the prism is :
(1) 15/2 cm (2) 15 cm
(3) 40/3 cm (4) 80/3 cm
53. When a ray of light enters a medium of
refractive index µ, it is observed that the angle of
refraction is half of the angle of incidence then
angle of incidence is :-
(1) 2 cos-1(µ/2) (2) cos-1(µ/2) 3 4
(1) 1.5 (2) (3) √ 2 (4)
2 3
(3) 2 cos-1(µ) (4) 2 sin-1(µ/2) √

57. A glass prism (μ = 1.5) is dipped in water (μ = 4/3) as

54. Given that, velocity of light in quartz is 1.5 × 108 m/s
shown in figure. A light ray is incident normally on
and velocity of light in glycerine is 9 × 108 m/s .
4 the surface AB. It reaches the surface BC after totally
Now a slab made of quartz is placed in glycerine as
reflected, if
shown. What is the shift produced by slab, if seen
from other side of slab.

(1) 6 cm (2) 3.55 cm (1) sin θ > 8/9 (2) 2/3 < sin θ < 8/9
(3) 9 cm (4) 2 cm (3) sin θ ≤ 2/3 (4) It is not possible
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58. A horizontal light ray passes through a prism (µ = 1.5) 61. In Y.D.S.E., the wavelength of light used is 5000 Å.
of angle 4°. Further, it is incident on a plane mirror M, How many fringes can be seen in a width of 1 cm if
that has been placed vertically. By what angle the the screen is at a distance of 1m from the slits. Slit
separation is 1 mm :-
mirror is rotated so that the ray after reflection
becomes horizontal? (1) 10 (2) 15 (3) 20 (4) 25
62. In a double slit experiment if light of wavelength
5000 Å is used then fringe width of 1 mm is
obtained. If now light of wavelength 6000 Å is
used without altering the system, then new fringe
width will be :
(1) 1 mm (2) 0·5 mm
(1) 1° (2) 2° (3) 4° (4) 8° (3) 1·2 mm (4) 1·5 mm
59. A plano convex lens fits exactly into a plano 63. In a Young's double slit experiment, a slab of
concave lens. Their plane surfaces are parallel to thickness 2.4 μ m and refractive index 1.5 is
each other. If lenses are made of different placed in front of one slit and another slab of
materials of refractive indices µ1 and µ2 and R is thickness t and refractive index 2.5 is placed in
the radius of curvature of the curved surface of front of the second slit. If the position of the
the lenses, then the focal length of combination central fringe remains unaltered, then the
is thickness t is -

2R R
(1) (2)
( μ 2 − μ 1) 2( μ 1 + μ 2 )
R R
(3) (4)
2( μ 1 − μ 2 ) ( μ 1 − μ 2)
60. Determine the nature of lens shown in figure (P)
& (Q) (given lenses are made from glass &
(1) 0.4 μ m (2) 0.8 μ m
surrounding medium is air)
(3) 1.2 μ m (4) 7 μ m
64. An electron beam is being used in YDSE. On
increasing kinetic energy of the electrons, fringe
width will :-
(1) increases
(1) P → converging & Q → diverging (2) decrease
(2) P → diverging & Q → converging (3) remain unchanged
(3) P & Q both converging (4) No interference pattern will be observed on
(4) P & Q both diverging the screen
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65. Light of wavelength 900 nm is incident on two slits 68. The angle of deviation ( δ ) vs angle of incidence
placed 3 mm apart and screen is placed 1 m away. (i) is plotted for a prism. Pick up the incorrect
statement.
Find the width of each slit if 20 maxima of double
slit lies within central maxima of single slit.
(1) 0.1 mm
(2) 0.2 mm
(3) 0.4 mm
(1) The angle of prism is 60°.
(4) 0.3 mm
(2) The refractive index of the prism is n = √ 3
66. I-V characteristic of a diode is shown in figure. (3) For deviation to be 65° the angle of
incidence i1 = 55°
(4) The curve of ' δ ' vs 'i' is parabolic
69. The work functions of silver and sodium are 4.6 eV
and 2.3 eV, respectively. The ratio of the slope of
the stopping potential versus frequency plot for
If this diode is connected across a battery of emf silver to that of sodium is :
10 V and a resistance of 12 k Ω in series, the 1 2
(1) (2)
2 1
current through diode in forward bias is nearly : (3) 1 (4) None of these
(1) 0.4 mA 70. An α -particle moves in a circular path of radius
(2) 0.83 mA 0.83 cm in the presence of a transverse magnetic
field of 0.25 Wb/m2. The de-Broglie wavelength
(3) 0.8 mA associated with the particle will be :
(4) 1.2 mA (1) 1 Å (2) 0.1 Å
67. The energy of radiation emitted by LED is :- (3) 10 Å (4) 0.01 Å
(1) greater than the band gap of the 71. In photoelectric effect experiment, the incident
semiconductor used. wavelength λ is decreases to λ /4, then ratio of
(2) always less than the band gap of the final maximum kinetic energy to initial
maximum kinetic energy of emitted electron will
semiconductor used.
be ( λ < λ 0) where λ 0 is threshold wavelength.
(3) always equal to the band gap of the
(1) Equal to 4
semiconductor used.
(2) More than 4
(4) equal to or less than the band gap of the (3) Less than 4
semiconductor used.
(4) Equal to 2
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72. A photoelectric surface is illuminated 75. In the nuclear decay given below :
successively by monochromatic light of A A A−4 A−4
ZX → Z + 1 Y → Z − 1 B∗ → Z − 1 B
wavelength λ and λ /2. If the maximum kinetic the particles emitted in the sequence are :-
energy of the emitted photoelectrons in the
(1) α , β , γ (2) β , α , γ
second case is 3 times that in the first case, the
work function of the surface of the material is : (3) γ , β , α (4) β , γ , α

(1) 2hc (2) hc (3) hc (4) hc 76. 200 MeV energy is obtained by fission of 1 nuclei
λ 3λ 2λ λ of 92U235, to obtain 1 kW energy number of
73. The figure shows a plot of photo current versus fission per second will be :
anode potential for a photo sensitive surface for (1) 3.215 × 1013 (2) 3.215 × 1014
three different radiations. Which one of the
following is a correct statement ? (3) 3.215 × 1015 (4) 3.215 × 1016
77. In the fusion process represented by reaction
235 1 144 89 1
92U + 0n → 56Ba + 36Kr + 3 0n
If 92U235 = 234.39 amu, 56Ba144 = 143.28 amu
and 36Kr89 = 88.89 amu and 0n1 = 1.01 amu.
Then the energy released is :
(1) curves (b) and (c) represent incident radiations (1) 100 MeV (2) 186 MeV
of same frequency and having same intensity (3) 250 MeV (4) 30 MeV
(2) curves (a) and (b) represent incident radiations 78. The mass defect in a particular nuclear reaction is
of different frequencies and different intensities 0.3 g. The amount of energy liberated in kilowatt
(3) curves (a) and (b) represent incident radiations hours (kWh) is (velocity of light = 3 × 108 ms – 1) :
of same frequency but of different intensities (1) 1.5 × 106 (2) 2.5 × 106
(4) curves (b) and (c) represent incident radiations (3) 3 × 106 (4) 7.5 × 106
of different frequencies and different intensities
79. A potential barrier of 0.60 V exists across a p-n
74. Binding energy per nucleon vs mass number junction. If the depletion region is 3 × 10 – 6 m wide,
(A) curve is shown in diagram. Then which the intensity of the electric field in this region is :
reaction must release the energy ?
(1) 1.0 × 106 V/m (2) 1.0 × 105 V/m
(3) 2.0 × 105 V/m (4) 2.0 × 106 V/m
80. The current flowing through the Zener diode in
figure is :

(1) A20 + B30 → C50

(2) B30 + C50 → D80
(3) C50 + D80 → E130 (1) 7.5 mA (2) 25 mA
(4) Can't say (3) 2.5 mA (4) 5 mA
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81. In the half-wave rectifier circuit shown. Which 83. Match the column-I with column-II and select
the correct option :
one of the following wave forms is true for VAC,
Column-I Column-II
the output across A and C ?
(Diode) (Their uses)
p-n junction
(A) (P) A voltage stabilizer
diode
In digital circuit and
(B) Zener (Q)
in digital display
To measure
(1) (C) Photodiode (R)
intensity of light
In half wave and
(D) LED (S)
full wave rectifier
(2) (1) A-S, B-P, C-Q, D-R
(2) A-S, B-P, C-R, D-Q
(3) A-P, B-S, C-R, D-Q
(3) (4) A-S, B-R, C-P, D-Q
84. Truth table for the given circuit is :

(4)

82. The correct Boolean operation represented by the

circuit diagram shown is :
(1) (2)

(3) (4)

85. In sample of pure silicon 1013 atom/cm3 of

(1) NAND phosphorus are mixed. If all donar atoms are
active then what will be resistivity at 20°C if
(2) NOR mobility of electron is 1200 cm2/volt-s :-
(3) AND (1) 0.5209 ohm cm (2) 5.209 ohm cm
(4) OR (3) 52.09 ohm cm (4) 520.9 ohm cm
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SECTION-B ( PHYSICS ) 88. The distance of an object from the focus of a

convex mirror of radius of curvature 'a' is 'b'.
86. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct Then the distance of the image from the focus is:
option using the codes given below the lists : (1) b2 / 4a (2) a / b2
List-I List-II
(Position of the object) (Magnification) (3) a2 / 4b (4) 4b / a2
Placed at distance equal 89. A vessel of depth x is half filled with oil of
Magnification
(I) to focus before a convex (A) refractive index µ1 and other half is filled with
is – ∞
mirror water of refractive index µ2. The apparent depth
of the vessel when viewed from above is -
Placed at distance equal
Magnification x( μ 1 + μ 2 ) xμ1 μ2
(II) to centre of curvature (B) (1) (2)
is 0.5 2μ1 μ2 2( μ 1 + μ 2 )
before a concave mirror
xμ1 μ2 2x( μ 1 + μ 2 )
Placed at distance equal (3) (4)
Magnification ( μ 1 + μ 2) μ1 μ2
(III) to focus before a (C)
is + 1 90. A bulb is placed at a depth of 2 7 m in water
√
concave mirror
and a floating opaque disc is placed over the
Placed at distance equal
Magnification surface of water so that the bulb is not visible
(IV) to centre of curvature (D) from the surface. What is the minimum diameter
before a convex mirror is –1
of the disc ( μ w = 4/3) ?
Magnification (1) 12 m
(E)
is 0.33
(2) 6 m
Codes : (3) 2 m
(1) I – B, II – D, III – A, IV – E (4) 4 m
(2) I – A, II – D, III – C, IV – B 91. Figure shows a mixture of blue, green and red
(3) I – C, II – B, III – A, IV – E coloured rays incident normally on a right angled
prism. The critical angles of the material of the
(4) I – B, II – E, III – D, IV – C
prism for red, green and blue are 46º, 44º and 43º
87. What is the velocity of image in situation shown respectively. The arrangement will separate
in figure. Object moves with velocity 10 cm/sec.
and mirror moves with velocity 2 cm/sec as
shown :-

(1) green colour from red and blue

(2) all the three colours
(1) 2 cm/sec (2) 8 cm/sec (3) red colour from blue and green
(3) 5 cm/sec (4) Zero (4) blue colour from red and green
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92. In young's double-slit experiment, the intensity 97. Assume that the nuclear binding energy per
nucleon (B/A) versus mass number (A) is as
at a point where path difference is λ /6 is I'. If I0 shown in the figure.
denotes the maximum intensity, then I'/I0 is
equal to :-
3 1 √ 3 1
(1) (2) (3) (4)
4 √ 2 2 2
93. A diffraction is obtained by using a beam of red (i) Fusion of two nuclei with mass numbers lying
in the range of 1 < A < 50 will release energy.
light. What will happen if the red light is (ii) Fusion of two nuclei with mass number lying
replaced by the blue light : in the range of 51 < A < 100 will release energy.
(iii) Fission of nucleus lying in the mass range of
(1) Fringes will be narrower and crowded 100 < A < 200 will release energy when broken
together into two equal fragments.
(iv) Fission of nucleus lying in the mass range of
(2) Fringes become broader and farther apart 200 < A < 260 will release energy when broken
into two equal fragments.
(3) No change will take place Which of the above statement(s) are correct for
above given curve ?
(4) Fringes disappear (1) Only (i) is correct.
94. A source of light is placed in front of a screen. (2) Only (iv) is correct.
Intensity of light on the screen is I. Two (3) (ii) and (iv) are correct.
Polaroids P1 and P2 are so placed in between the (4) (i), (ii) and (iv) are correct.
source of light and screen that the intensity of 98. Two similar blocks of intrinsic silicon are
light on screen is I/2. P2 should be rotated by an separately doped uniformly to 3obtain same
dopant densities ND = NA per m . The n-type
angle of ........... (degree) so that the intensity of and p-type samples thus obtained are arranged in
light on the screen becomes 3I
. parallel to each other and a current is passed
8 through the combination, Then
(1) 15 (2) 30 (3) 25 (4) 8 (1) same current passes through each sample
(2) current through n-type sample is more
95. The objective and the eyepiece of a microscope (3) current through p-type sample is more
have focal lengths of 4 mm and 25 mm, (4) current through p-type sample is twice that
respectively. The objective produces a real image through the n-type sample
30 times the size of the object. The final image is 99. Current in the circuit will be :
viewed at infinity. The least distance of distinct
vision of the microscope user is at 25 cm. The
overall magnification of the microscope is :
(1) 250 (2) 350 (3) 300 (4) 450
(1) 1 (2) 1 (3) 5 A (4) 3
A A A
96. Light described by equation 5 10 10
E = (100 V/m) sin (6 × 1015 π t – 2 π × 107x) 100. The figure shows two NAND gates followed by
and work function of metal is 3.375 eV, then a NOR gate. The system is equivalent to the
following logic gate :
maximum kinetic energy of e – will be :
(1) 9 eV (2) 7 eV
(3) 12 eV (4) None (1) OR (2) AND (3) NAND (4) NOR
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Topic : SYLLABUS-6

SECTION-A ( BOTANY ) 105. Five closely related species of Warblers co-exist

on a same tree due to __A__.
101. Flamingoes and resident fishes compete for their Select correct option from 'A' :-
common food. What food was that? (1) Intraspecific Competition
(1) Small size fishes (2) Phytoplankton (2) Competitive Release
(3) Zooplankton (4) All of these (3) Resource Partitioning
102. Statement-I : Mycorrhizae are the example of (4) Commensalism
mutualism.
Statement-II : In mutualism association one 106. Habitat includes
organism is benefitted while other is unaffected. (1) Only biotic components
(1) Only statement-I is correct. (2) Only abiotic components
(2) Only statement-II is correct. (3) Both biotic and abiotic components
(3) Both statements are correct. (4) Either biotic or abiotic components
(4) Both statements are incorrect. 107. Ecology is basically concerned with ___A___
103. Assertion (A) : Parasite may reduce the survival, levels of biological organisation.
growth and reproduction of the host. (1) A - Four (2) A - Six
Reason (R) : Many parasites have evolved to be
host specific. (3) A - Five (4) A - Three

(1) Both A and R is true and R is the correct 108. National Committee for Environmental
explanation of A. Planning and Coordination was established by
Government of India in :
(2) Both A and R is true but R is not correct
explanation of A. (1) 1984 (2) 1972 (3) 1995 (4) 2002
(3) Both A and R is false 109. The amount of energy decrease at successive
(4) A is true and R is false trophic levels due to :-
(1) 80% energy loss at each trophic level
104. Statement-I : Parasite gets nourishment and
shelter from host. (2) 85% energy loss at each trophic level
Statement-II : Parasites harm the host but do not (3) 75% energy loss at each trophic level
kill the host.
(4) 90% energy loss at each trophic level
(1) Both statement-I and statement-II are correct.
110. Each trophic level has a certain mass of living
(2) Both statement-I and statement-II are material at a particular time called as...............?
incorrect.
(1) Producers
(3) Statement-I is correct and statement-II is
(2) Standing state
incorrect
(3) Net primary productivity
(4) Statement-I is incorrect and statement-II is
correct (4) Standing Crop
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111. _____________ is an example of Aquatic 115. Primary productivity depends on -
ecosystem. (1) A variety of environmental factors
(1) Forest (2) Grassland (2) Availability of nutrients
(3) Estuary (4) Desert (3) Photosynthetic capacity of plants
112. (1) A belongs to first trophic level B to the (4) All of these
–––– ––––
second and C to the third. 116. ________ of an ecosystem is the rate of production
––– – of organic matter during photosynthesis.
(2) The green plants in the ecosystem are called D .
––– –
(1) Gross primary productivity (GPP)
(1) A → Producers, B → Herbivores, C →
Carnivores, D → Producers (2) Net primary productivity (NPP)
(2) A → Producers, B → Herbivores, C → (3) Gross secondary productivity (GSP)
Carnivores, D → Herbivores (4) Net secondary productivity (NSP)
(3) A → Producers, B → Carnivores, C → 117. Which of the following was objective of World
Herbivores, D → Producers Summit held in 2002 in south Africa ?
(4) A → Herbivores, B → Producers, C → (1) Protection of Stratospheric ozone
Carnivores, D → Herbivores
(2) Climate change
113. Match the column I with column II.
(3) Biodiversity conservation
Column – I Column – II
(4) Sustainable development
Formation of
(a) Fragmentation (i) 118. India, with much of it's land area in the tropical
humus
latitudes has _______ species of birds.
Breakdown of Complete the statement using most appropriate
(b) Leaching (ii) detritus into smaller option among the following options.
particles (1) less than 400 (2) more than 1400
Water soluble (3) more than 1200 (4) only 3000
inorganic nutrients
(c) Humification (iii) go down into the soil and 119. Match column – I with column – II with respect to
get precipitated as rivet popper hypothesis and choose the most
unavailable salts
appropriate match.
Column – I Column – II
(1) a – i, b – ii, c – iii (2) a – iii, b – ii, c – i
(i) Airplane (a) Key-stone species
(3) a – ii, b – i, c – iii (4) a – ii, b – iii, c – i (ii) Rivets (b) Ecosystem
114. An ecosystem is a complete interaction of : (iii) Rivets on wings (c) species
(1) Individual (1) (i) – (a); (ii) – (b), (iii) – (c)
(2) Population (2) (i) – (c); (ii) – (b), (iii) – (a)
(3) Community and their soil condition (3) (i) – (b); (ii) – (c), (iii) – (a)
(4) Community and their physical environment (4) (i) – (b); (ii) – (a), (iii) – (c)
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120. _______Showed that in his experiments, 126. Given below are two statements :
increased diversity contributed to higher Statement-I : Connel's elegant field experiments
productivity. showed that on the rocky sea coast of Scotland,
(1) Paul Ehrlich (2) Robert May the larger and competitively superior barnacle
Balanus dominantes the intertidal area and
(3) David Tilman (4) Reiter
excludes the smaller barnacle chathalamus from
121. In general as we move away from the equator that zone.
towards poles the species diversity. Statement-II : The life cycle of parasites is often
(1) Increases (2) Decreases simple, involving one or two intermediate host
(3) Remain constant (4) Can not predict. or vectors to facilitate parasitisation of its
primary host.
122. In tropical forests of different continents for In the light of above statements, choose the
frugivorous birds and mammals, value of z is
correct answers from the options given below :
found to be :-
(1) 1.2 (2) 2.5 (3) 1.75 (4) 1.15 (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.

123. In species - Area relationships, the relation (2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is
between species richness and area for a wide incorrect.
variety of taxa turns out to be a _____________. (3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is
(1) rectangular hyperbola correct
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are
(2) parabola
correct.
(3) straight line
127. (1) In general A appear to be more adversely
(4) rectangular parabola
affected by competition than B
124. The A argument says that biodiversity play a
major role in many ecosystem services that (2) The relationship between Herbivores &
nature provides. The fast dwindling Amazon Plants is C .
forest is estimated to produce, through
photosynthesis, 20% of the total oxygen in the A B C
earth's atmosphere.
In the above paragraph identify the A. Herbivores
(1) Carnivores Competition
(1) Narrowly utilitarian (2) Broadly utilitarian & Plants
(3) Ethical (4) All of these Herbivores
(2) Carnivores Predation
125. Which of the following is not a part of ex-situ & Plants
conservation.
Herbivores
(1) Zoological park (3) Carnivores Predation
& Plants
(2) Wild life safari park
(3) Botanical garden Herbivores
(4) Carnivores Competition
(4) Sacred groves & Plants

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128. Below two statement are given : 131. Select the correct order of different steps
Statement-I : Predators are conduits for energy occuring during decomposition.
transfer. (1) Leaching → Catabolism →
Statement-II : Biological control method adopted Fragmentation → Humification
in agricultural pest control are based on the
ability of the predator to regulate prey population. (2) Fragmentation → Catabolism →
Leaching → Humification
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
(3) Catabolism → Fragmentation
(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect. → Leaching → Humification
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct. (4) Catabolism, Fragmentation, Leaching,
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct. occurs simultaneously
129. Choose the incorrect statement ? 132. Although all the biodiversity hotspots put
together cover less than __(i)__ of the earth's
(1) Interaction of biotic and abiotic components
land area, the number of species they
result in a physical structure that is
collectively harbour is extremely high and strict
characteristic for each type of ecosystem.
protection of these hotspots could reduce the
(2) In an ecosystem unidirectional movement ongoing mass extinctions by almost __(ii)__.
of energy towards the higher trophic levels
(1) (i) 30%, (ii) 2%
and its dissipation and loss as heat to the
environment takes place. (2) (i) 2%, (ii) 2%
(3) A constant input of solar energy is the basic (3) (i) 30%, (ii) 30%
requirement for any ecosystem to function (4) (i) 2%, (ii) 30%
and sustain.
133. Match the following :-
(4) Primary productivity is defined as the rate of
formation of new organic matter by consumer. Sacred
Region
Grove
130. Given below are two statements :
Statement I :- Most common herbivores in aquatic Khasi and Karnataka and
(i) (a)
Jaintia hills Maharashtra
ecosystem are molluscs .
Statement II :- Most common herbivores in terrestrial (ii) Aravalli Hills (b) Meghalaya
ecosystem are generally mammals only. Madhya
(iii) Western Ghats (c)
In the light of the above statements, choose the most Pradesh
appropriate answer form the options given below. Sarguja, Chanda
(iv) (d) Rajasthan
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect. and Bastar
(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is (1) i – (a), ii – (b), iii – (c), iv – (d)
incorrect.
(2) i – (d), ii – (c), iii – (b), iv – (a)
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(3) i – (b), ii – (a), iii – (d), iv – (c)
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are
correct. (4) i – (b), ii – (d), iii – (a), iv – (c)
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134. As per the biodiversity of tropical Amazon an rain 137. The wasp pollinates the fig inflorescence while
forest in south America match the Column – A searching for suitable..............sites.
with Column – B. (1) Pollination
Column–A Column–B (2) Oviposition/egg-laying
(a) Plants i. 427 species
(3) Pseudocopulation
(b) Fishes ii. More than 40,000 species
(4) Co-Evolution
(c) Amphibians iii. 378 species
(d) Reptiles iv 3000 species
138. ............................. is a potent force in organic evolution.
(1) Intraspecific competition
Choose the correct answer from the following (2) Amensalism
options. (3) Interspecific competition
(1) a – ii, b – iv, c – iii, d – i (4) Predation
(2) a – ii, b – iv, c – i, d – iii 139. The......................................... depend on two
intermediate hosts (a snail and a fish) to
(3) a – iv, b – ii, c – iii, d – i complete its life cycle.
(4) a – i, b – iii, c – ii, d – iv (1) Human liver fluke (2) Leech
135. (1) __A__ also help in maintaining species (3) Copepods (4) Ticks
diversity in a community.
140. Which of the following best explains why there
(2) __B__ butterfly is highly distasteful to its are usually not more than five trophic levels in a
predator bird because of special chemical present food chain ?
in its body. (1) There are not enough organisms to fill
(3) __C__ showed that five closely related species more than five levels
of warblers living on the same tree were able to
(2) There is too much competition among the
avoid competition and coexist due to behavioural organisms at the lower levels to support
differences in their foraging activities. more animals at higher levels.
A B C (3) The statement is not true, there can be
(1) Predators Monarch Mac Arthur unlimited trophic levels
(4) Energy is lost at each trophic level
(2) Competition Queens Mac Arthur
141. Match the Column-I with Column-II.
(3) Predators Viceroy Darwin Column-I Column-II
(4) Competition Monarch Connel A. NPP i. g/m2
SECTION-B ( BOTANY ) B. Production ii. Vertical strata
C. Stratification iii. Earthworm
136. Select the correct option with respect to parasitism ? D. Detritivore iv. GPP-R
(1) Copepods on marine fishes. (1) A-iv, B-iii, C-ii, D-i
(2) Sea anemone and Clown fish (2) A-iv, B-i, C-ii, D-iii
(3) Abingdon tortoise and goats (3) A-iii, B-iv, C-ii, D-i
(4) Fig tree and Wasps (4) A-i, B-ii, C-iii, D-iv
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142. In the given pyramid of number of grassland 147. As a mechanism of defense against
ecosystem - herbivores, Calatropis :-
What can be number of (A) ? (1) Has large number of thorn
(2) Secretes cardiac glycosides
(3) Produces Neurotoxins
(4) Acts as hallucinogens
(1) 1000 (2) 4250 (3) 10521 (4) 3
148. (i) Plants capture only ___A___ percent of the
143. Statement-I : Speciation is generally a function
of time. PAR and this small amount of energy sustains
Statement-II : Tropical environments unlike the entire living world.
temperate ones are less seasonal, relatively more (ii) The annual net primary productivity of the
constant and predictable. whole biosphere is approximately ___B___
(1) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct. billion tons of organic matter.
Fill in the blanks A and B.
(2) Statement-I is correct and Statement-II are incorrect.
(3) Statement-I is incorrect and Statement-II are correct. (1) A → 2-10, B → 55

(4) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are incorrect. (2) A → 1-5, B → 55

144. Scientists estimate that in these Amazon rain (3) A → 1-5, B → 170
forests there might be at least ________waiting (4) A → 2-10, B → 170
to be discovered and named.
149. Select the incorrect statement from the following :
Complete the above statement by using most
appropriate option among the following options. (1) Amazon rain forest is called the "lungs of
the planet"
(1) Four million insect species
(2) When need became greed it lead to over
(2) Two million insect species exploitation of natural resources
(3) Two billion Angiosperms (3) Stellar's sea cow became extinct due habitat
(4) Four billion bird species loss and fragmentation
145. How many of the following are methods of in- (4) Migratory animals are badly affected by
situ conservation? habitat loss and fragmentation
Biodiversity hot spots, zoological parks, 150. Statement – I :- Bio-prospecting term stands for
National parks, wildlife sanctuaries, Biosphere exploring molecular, genetic and species-level
reserves, Botanical gardens, sacred groves, diversity for products of economic importance.
wildlife safari park. Statement – II :- All biodiversity hotspots put
(1) Four (2) Five (3) Six (4) Seven together cover more than 2% of the earth's land area.
146. The ............... are association between fungi & (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
the roots of higher plants. (2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
(1) Lichens (2) Mycorrhizae (3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(3) Sexual Deceit (4) Brood Parasitism (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
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Topic : SYLLABUS-6

SECTION-A ( ZOOLOGY ) 155. Which of the following statement is false?

(1) Rheumatoid arthritis which affects many
151. The protozoan disease plasmodium is transmitted
people in our society is an auto immune
through?
disorder.
(1) Culex
(2) Female anopheles mosquito (2) The immune system also plays an
important role in allergic reaction, auto
(3) Infected female anopheles mosquito
immune diseases and organ transplantation
(4) Sporozoites
(3) When ready-made antibodies are directly
152. The genome of HIV, the causative organism of
given to protect the body against foreign
AIDS is made up of :-
agents, it is called active immunity.
(1) ssDNA
(4) Cell-mediated immune response is
(2) ssRNA responsible for graft rejection.
(3) dsRNA 156. Virus infected cells secrete antiviral proteins.
(4) dsDNA They belong to which category of barriers of
153. Most cancers are treated by combination of:- innate immunity ?
(a) Surgery
(1) Physical barriers
(b) Radiotherapy
(c) Chemotherapy (2) Physiological barriers
(1) a and b (3) Cellular barriers
(2) a and c (4) Cytokine barriers
(3) b and c 157. An antibody has how many heavy chains and
(4) a, b and c light chains?
154. Assertion (A) :- The bone marrow is the main (1) 2, 4
lymphoid organ.
(2) 4, 2
Reason (R) :- In bone marrow all blood cells
including lymphocytes are produced. (3) 2, 2
Choose the correct answer from the given (4) 1,2
options :- 158. Abrupt discontinuation of regular dose of
(1) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
drugs/alcohol generates :-
(2) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
(1) Withdrawal syndrome
(3) (A) and (R) both are correct but (R) is not
(2) Euphoria
the correct explanation of (A)
(3) Mental stability
(4) (A) and (R) both are correct and (R) is the
correct explanation of (A) (4) Permanent feeling well being
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159. Match the disease given in column-I with their 161. Thorn of Bougainvillea and tendril of Cucurbita
symptons in column-II :-
are example of :-
Column-I Column-II
(1) Homologous organ
Slow developing chronic
(A) Ascariasis (i) (2) Analogous organ
inflammation of Lower limb
Internal bleeding, muscular (3) Homoplastic organ
(B) Elephantiasis (ii) pain, blockage of intestinal (4) Vestigial organ
passage 162. Tasmanian wolf and placental wolf appear
Dry scaly lesions on skin, similar due to :
(C) Ring worm (iii)
scalp, nails
(1) Chemical evolution
(1) (A)-ii, (B)-i, (C)-iii
(2) Divergent evolution
(2) (A)-i, (B)-ii, (C)-iii
(3) Biochemical evolution
(3) (A)-iii, (B)-ii, (C)-i
(4) Convergent evolution
(4) (A)-ii, (B)-iii, (C)-i
163. Find the odd one out related to evolution :
160. Identify the likely A, B, C, D in the following
(1) Vertebrate hearts
life cycle of plasmodium :-
(2) Vertebrate brains
(3) Wings of butterfly and birds
(4) Forelimbs of mammals
164. Agriculture came around –
(1) 10,000 year back
(2) 50,000 year back
(3) 30,000 year back
(A) (B) (C) (D) (4) 60,000 year back
Salivary 165. Statement-I : Darwinian variations are small and
(1) Sporozoite Gametocyte Liver
gland directional.
Salivary Statement-II : Branching descent and natural
(2) Gametocyte Sporozoite Liver
gland selection are the two key concepts of Lamarckian.
Salivary (1) Statement-I are Statement-II both are incorrect.
(3) Sporozoite Gametocyte Liver
gland (2) Statement-I is correct Statement-II is incorrect.
Salivary
(4) Gametocyte Sporozoite Liver (3) Statement-I are Statement-II both are correct.
gland
(4) Statement-I is incorrect Statement-II is correct.
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166. Amoebic dysentery is caused by :- 171. Invertebrates evolved and become active about :-
(1) Entamoeba histolytica (1) 50 mya
(2) Giardia intestinalis (2) 500 mya
(3) Babesia bigemina (3) 5000 mya
(4) Balantidium coli (4) 5 mya
167. Large bean shaped organ has the lymphocytes 172. Classical example of adaptive radiation is
and phagocytes and is the reservoir for evolution of :-
erythrocytes. The organ is :- (1) Reptiles
(1) Thymus (2) Invertebrates
(2) Spleen (3) Darwin's finches
(3) Liver (4) Dinosaurs
(4) Tonsil 173. Which human ancestor lived 2 mya in east
168. Which of the following are the cells of cellular African grassland essentially ate fruit & hunted
with stone weapon :-
barrier of innate immunity ?
(1) Homo erectus
(1) PMNL
(2) Australopithecus
(2) Monocyte
(3) Dryopithecus
(3) B-Lymphocyte
(4) Neanderthal man
(4) Both (1) & (2) 174. According to Oparin and Haldane theory, 1st
169. Which of the following drug is a white form of life could have come from :-
odourless, bitter, crystalline, compound ?
(1) Pangene
(1) Cocaine
(2) Pre-existing living organic molecules
(2) Heroin
(3) Pre-existing non-living organic molecules
(3) LSD
(4) Pre-existing life
(4) Marijuana
175. Which of the following factors do not affect the
170. Which cell acts as factory of HIV ?
genetic equilibrium ?
(1) Macrophage
(1) Mutation
(2) Helper T-cells
(2) Gene flow
(3) Killer T-cells (3) Random mating
(4) B-cells (4) Genetic drift
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176. Given below are two statements : 179. S.L. miller, an american scientist created electric
Statement I :- Homology indicates common
discharge in a closed flask containing __A__ at
ancestry
Statement II :- Analogous structures are a result __B__. choose the correct A and B from options
of convergent evolution and complete the given statement.
In the light of the above statements, choose the
(1) A→CH4, H2, NH3 and water vapour ; B →800
most appropriate answer form the options given
(2) A→CO2, NH3, N2 and water ; B →400
below.
(3) A→NH4, CO2, H2 and N2 ; B →800
(1) Both statement I and statement II are
incorrect (4) A→O2, CO2, NH3 and water vapour ; B →400
180. Life appeared __A__ million years after the
(2) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is
correct. formation of earth, i.e. almost ___B___ billion
(3) Statement I is correct but statement II is years back complete the given statement by
incorrect. choosing choosing correct A and B from option.
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are
correct. (1) A → 500 ; B → Four

177. Assertion (A) :- Wings of butterfly and wings of (2) A → 400 ; B → Four

birds are analogous structures. (3) A → 200 ; B → Two

Reason (R) :- They are not anatomically similar (4) A → 300 ; B → Five
though they perform similar functions. 181. Branching descent and natural selection are the
(1) Both 'A' and 'R' are correct and 'R' is the two key concepts of -
correct explanation of 'A'. (1) Darwinian theory of Evolution
(2) Both 'A' and 'R' are correct and 'R' is not (2) Lamarckism theory of Evolution
correct explanation of 'A'.
(3) Eltonian theory of Evolution
(3) A is correct but R is incorrect
(4) Lindeman's theory of Evolution
(4) A is incorrect but R is correct
182. The frequency of homozygous dominant
178. Embryological support for evolution was
proposed by :- individuals in a population is represented by

(1) Ernst heckel (1) pq

(2) Karl Ernst von bear (2) 2pq
(3) Charles Darwin (3) p2
(4) Alfred wallace (4) p2+q2
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183. Match the hominids with their correct feature. SECTION-B ( ZOOLOGY )

186. HIV enters into ________, replicate produces

(a) Homo habilis (i) Probably ate meat progeny virus. the viruses released in blood
attack other ____.
(b) Homo erectus (ii) Buried their dead
(1) T-lymphocyte & B-lymphocyte
Cromagnon Cranial capacity around
(c) (iii) (2) B-lymphocyte & macrophages
man 650-800 CC
(3) Macrophages & monocyte
Neanderthal
(d) (iv) Pre-historic cave art (4) T-lymphocyte & T-lymphocyte
man
187. Find out the number of physiological barriers.
Fever, Skin, Mucosa, pH of vagina, Phagocytic
Select the correct option :- cell, interferons.
(1) 3 (2) 4 (3) 2 (4) 5
(a) (b) (c) (d) 188. IgA in colostrum provides which immunity ?
(1) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii) (1) Natural active acquired
(2) Artificial passive acquired
(2) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(3) Natural passive acquired
(3) (i) (iv) (ii) (iii)
(4) Artificial active acquired
(4) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
189. Use of anti-histamines and steroids give a quick
184. Read the following statements and find the relief from :-
correct statement : (1) Headache
(1) Mutation are random and directional. (2) Allergy
(2) Mutations are large differences arising (3) Nausea
gradually in a population. (4) Cough
(3) Mutation are directionless. 190. Match the following column A & B ?
(4) Evolution due to mutation was gradual. A B
(1) Cocaine (A) Erythroxylum coca
185. Fill in the blanks.
(2) Morphine (B) Claviceps purpura
Common cold is ___________disease and (3) Cannabinoids (C) Cannabis sativa
common cold is caused by ________. (4) L.S.D. (D) Papaver somniferum

(1) Bacteria, rat flea. (1) 1-A, 2-B, 3-C, 4-D

(2) Protozoa, malaria (2) 1-A, 2-D, 3-C, 4-B

(3) Fungi, ringworm (3) 1-D, 2-C, 3-B, 4-A

(4) Viral, Rhino viruses (4) 1-A, 2-C, 3-D, 4-B

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191. Which one is responsible of the disease from the 195. Graft rejection after organ transplantation is due to ?
given figure? (1) Cell mediated immunity
(2) Antibody mediated immunity
(3) Innate immunity
(4) Graft rejection is not related to immunity
196. Plasmodium enters the human body as ?
(1) Gametocyte
(1) Male Culex Mosquito (2) Sporozoite
(2) Filarial worm (3) Trophozoite
(3) Anopheles Mosquito (4) Haemozoin
(4) Plasmodium 197. Which provide micro-environment for the
192. Statement-I : The principle of vaccination is based development and maturation of B-lymphocytes?
on the property of 'memory' of the immune system. (1) Bone-marrow
Statement-II : In vaccination, preformed antibodies (2) Spleen
are introduced into the body. (3) Thymus
(1) Statement I & statement II both are incorrect. (4) Both (1) and (3)
(2) Statement I is incorrect & statement II is 198. Observe the following table very carefully,
correct. which contains souce of drug, biological name
(3) Statement I is correct & statement II is incorrect. and their uses. Choose the correct option :-
(4) Statement I & statement II both are correct.
Papaver Stimulant action
193. All the following diseases are spread by (1)
somniferum on body
mosquito except :-
(1) Chikungunya Claviceps
(2) Hallucination
(2) Dengue purpura
(3) Chicken pox Depressant
Papaver
(4) Filariasis (3) action
somniferum
194. Characterstics of acquired immunity is - on body
(1) Differentiation between self and nonself.
Cannabis
(2) Specificity (4) Relieving pain
sativa
(3) Retains memory
(4) All of the above
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199. Find the incorrect combination w.r.t. disease and 200. Assertion : The cell mediated immune response
its pathogen :- is responsible for the graft rejection.
(1) Typhoid : Salmonella typhi, Reason : Cell mediated immune response is due
(2) Pneumonia : Haemophilus influenzae to plasma cells [effector B lymphocytes]
In the light of the above statement choose the
(3) Common cold : Reo viruses
correct answer from the option given below :
(4) Elephantiasis : Wuchereria
(1) Assertion is true but Reason is false
(2) Assertion is false but Reason is true
(3) Both Assertion and Reason are true and
Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason
is NOT the correct explanation of Assertion

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SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

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SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

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SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

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