English (1001CMD303029230092) *1001CMD303029230092* Test Pattern

CLASSROOM CONTACT PROGRAMME NEET (UG)

MAJOR
(Academic Session : 2023-2024) 27-01-2024

PRE-MEDICAL : ENTHUSIAST COURSE PHASE - MEA,PS,B,C,D,F,G,H,I,K,L,M,N,P,Q,R & MEX

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single correct answer) from Chemistry, Physics and Biology (Botany and Zoology). 50 questions in each subject are divided
into two Sections (A and B) as per details given below :
(a) Section A shall consist of 35 (Thirty-five) Questions in each subject (Question Nos - 1 to 35, 51 to 85, 101 to 135 and 151 to
185). All questions are compulsory.
(b) Section B shall consist of 15 (Fifteen) questions in each subject (Question Nos - 36 to 50, 86 to 100, 136 to 150 and 186 to
200). In Section B, a candidate needs to attempt any 10 (Ten) questions out of 15 (Fifteen) in each subject.
Candidates are advised to read all 15 questions in each subject of Section B before they start attempting the question paper.
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Your Target is to secure Good Rank in Pre-Medical 2024

 2 English

Topic : FULL SYLLABUS

SECTION-A ( CHEMISTRY ) 4.

1. CH3 COCl
CH3MgBr + CdCl2 → A −−−−−−→ B Product C is :-
The product B is :- (1) CH3 – CH2 – NH2 (2) CH3NH2
(1) CH3COCH3 (2) CH3COOCH3
(3) CH3 – CH2CH2NH2 (4)
(3) CH3CH2Cl (4) CH3Cl
2. Which of the following is correct method to 5. Which of the following is degradation reaction to
prepare aniline ? prepare amine.
(1) CH3CN −Na C2 H5 OH
+

−−−−−−−−→
(1) (i) LiAlH
4
(2) CH3CONH2 −(ii)
−−− −−→
H O 2

(3) R – NO2 −F−e−HCl

+

−−→
(2)
(4) RCONH2 −NaOH Br2
−−−−−−→
+

6. Which of the following reagent is used to

(3) distinguish acetaldehyde and acetone ?
(1) 2, 4 - D.N.P (2) NaOH + I2
(3) Tollen reagent (4) NaHSO3
(4) 7.

3. Match the following :- Product A is :-

Polysaccharide Monomer (1) CH3 – CH=CH – CH2CH2CH2NH2
(2) CH3 – CH=CH – CH2CH2CHO
(i) Starch (P) β -D-glucose
(3) CH3 – CH=CH – CH2CH2COOH
α -D-glucose and (4) CH3 – CH=CH – CH2NH2
(ii) Cellulose (Q)
β -D-fructose 8. Which of the following is not an aromatic aldehyde ?
(1) Vanillin (2) Salicylaldehyde
β -D-galactose and
(iii) Sucrose (R) (3) Cinnamaldehyde (4) Phthalaldehyde
β -D-glucose 9. Which of the following compound will be suitable
(iv) Lactose (S) α -D-glucose for Kjeldahl's method for nitrogen estimation ?

(1) (i)-(S), (ii)-(R), (iii)-(P), (iv)-(Q) (1) (2)

(2) (i)-(S), (ii)-(P), (iii)-(Q), (iv)-(R)
(3) (i)-(P), (ii)-(Q), (iii)-(R), (iv)-(S)
(3) (4)
(4) (i)-(P), (ii)-(Q), (iii)-(S), (iv)-(R)
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1001CMD303029230092 27-01-2024
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10. Most basic species among the following is :- 16. Which of the following set of molecule are
planar and iso structural-
(1) (2) (1) H2O, SO2, SnCl2 (2) SO2, H2O, CO2
(3) CH4, CCl4, SiCl4 (4) XeF4, SF4, BCl3
17. Match the following
(3) (4) Oxide Nature
(P) PbO (i) Neutral
11. Which of the following reaction does not (Q) K2O (ii) Acidic
produce an alcohol ?
(R) SO3 (iii) Basic
(1) (S) CO (iv) Amphoteric
(2)
Which of the following option is correct-
(3)
(1) P - (i), Q - (iv), R - (ii), S - (iii)
(4) (2) P - (i), Q - (iii), R - (ii), S - (iv)

12. Which alcohol gives white turbidity with Lucas (3) P - (iv), Q - (iii), R - (ii), S - (i)
reagent most readily ? (4) P - (iii), Q - (ii), R - (i), S - (iv)
18. Correct order of dipole moment for NH3, NCl3 and
(1) (2) NF3 will be-
(1) NH3 < NF3 < NCl3 (2) NH3 > NCl3 > NF3
(3) CH3 – OH (4) CH3 – CH2OH
(3) NH3 < NCl3 < NF3 (4) NH3 > NF3 > NCl3
13. Which compound shows tautomerism ?
19. Find out the no. of π bond in organic compound
(1) HCHO (2) CH3COCH3 "X" obtained by hydrolysis of CaC2.
(3) PhCHO (4) (1) One (2) Two
(3) Zero (4) Three
14. The hybridisation and shape of SF4 molecule will be-
(1) sp3, Tetrahedral 20. Which of the following type of hybridisations
are present in Boron of Borax.
(2) sp3d, Trigonal bipyramidal
(3) sp3d, Folded square (1) Only sp3
(4) sp3d2, square planar (2) Two sp2 and Two sp3
15. Which of the following will not affect ionisation (3) One sp2 and Three sp3
energy-
(1) Number of core electrons (4) Only sp2
(2) Number of Neutrons 21. The ratio of 2C - 2e – bond and 3C – 4e – bond
(3) Effective nuclear charge in B2H6 will be-
(4) Shell number (n) (1) 4 : 2 (2) 2 : 4 (3) 1 : 4 (4) 4 : 0
PHASE - MEA,PS,B,C,D,F,G,H,I,K,L,M,N,P,Q,R & MEX
27-01-2024 1001CMD303029230092
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22. Assertion : PbO2 is oxidising agent 28. In any subshell the maximum number of e – having
Reason : Pb+2 is more stable than Pb+4 the same value of spin quantum number is :-
Choose correct options- (1) 2(2 ℓ +1) (2) ℓ +2
(1) Assertion and Reason both correct and
(3) 2 ℓ +1 (4) √ ℓ ( ℓ + 1)
Reason is correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Assertion and Reason both correct but 29.
Reason is incorrect explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are incorrect A2(g) + B2(g) ⇌ 2AB(g)
23. The magnetic moment "0 BM" will be obtain for When A2 and B2 are allowed to react. The
(1) [Fe(CN)6]3 – (2) [Fe(H2O)6]3+ equilibrium constant of reaction at 25°C is found
to be 4. Find concentration of AB at equilibrium.
(3) [Fe(CN)6]4 – (4) [Fe(H2O)6]2+
(1) 1 M (2) 0.25 M
24. Correct order of electrical conductance will be-
(3) 2 M (4) 0.5 M
(1) CoCl3.6H2O > CoCl3.4H2O > CoCl3.5H2O
30. An acidic buffer solution has equal concentration
(2) CoCl3.4H2O > CoCl3.5H2O > CoCl3.6H2O of HX and X – (Conjugate Base). Find pH of
(3) CoCl3.6H2O > CoCl3.5H2O > CoCl3.4H2O solution if Kb of X – is 10 – 10.
(4) CoCl3.6H2O < CoCl3.4H2O > CoCl3.5H2O (1) 4 (2) 10 (3) 3 (4) 9
25. Which of the following option is incorrect of 31. In a reversible reaction Kc – Kp > 0 and Δ H = – ve.
[Ni(CN)4]2 – :- Find favourable condition for more formation of
(1) High spin complex reactant.
(2) Square planar geometry (1) T ↑, P ↑ (2) T ↑, P ↓

(3) Hybridisation = dsp2 (3) T↓ , P ↓ (4) T↓, P ↑

(4) Diamagnetic 32. For which of the following degree of hydrolysis
is minimum?
26. What is the charge in coulombs present on 64 amu
of S – 2 ions (1) 10 – 1 M CH3COONH4
(1) – 3.2 × 10 – 19 C (2) 10 – 2 M CH3COONH4
(2) – 6.4 × 10 – 19 C (3) 10 – 3 M CH3COONH4
(3) – 6.4 × 10 – 19 × NA C (4) Same for all
(4) – 3.2 × 10 – 19 × NA C 33. Calculate weight of copper (At. wt. = 63.5 amu)
displaced by a quantity of electricity which liberates
27. 6.4 g oxide of sulphur contain 3.2 g oxygen in it. 5600 mL of O2 at STP.
Find empirical formula of compound.
(1) 63.5 g (2) 127 g
(1) SO (2) SO2
(3) 15.875 g (4) 31.75 g
(3) SO3 (4) S2O
PHASE - MEA,PS,B,C,D,F,G,H,I,K,L,M,N,P,Q,R & MEX
1001CMD303029230092 27-01-2024
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34. Statement I: Isotonic solutions must have the 37. Assertion (A) :- Aniline does not undergo friedel-
same molar concentration. crafts alkylation and friedel-crafts acetylation both.
Statement II: Solutions which have the same
Reason (R) :- NH2 group in aniline is activating
osmotic pressure are known as isotonic solution.
group.
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason
(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
is NOT the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.
(2) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
(3) Assertion is false but Reason is true.
35. Select the rate law that corresponds to the data
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are true and
shown for the reaction A + B → C
Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
[A] [B] rate
Exp. No. 38. Which of the following statement is incorrect ?
mol L mol L mol L – 1s – 1
–1 –1

1 0.012 0.035 0.1 (1) Tertiary structure of protein give rise to

fibrous and globular shape of protein.
2 0.024 0.070 0.8
(2) Fibrous protein has hydrogen and
3 0.024 0.035 0.1 disulphide bonds and insoluble in water.
4 0.012 0.070 0.8 (3) In denaturation of protein primary and
(1) r = K[A][B]2 (2) r = K[A][B]3 secondary structure destroyed.
(3) r = K[B]4 (4) r = K[B]3 (4) Primary structure of each protein is different.
SECTION-B ( CHEMISTRY ) 39. Which of the following is correct statement ?
(1) Aniline is water soluble but not ethylamine.
36. Which of the following is not correctly matched ?
(2) pKb of aniline is less than that of methylamine.
Reaction Intermediate
(3) Amines are soluble in water
(1) (4) Boiling point order of isomeric amines is
RNH2 < R2NH < R3N
40. Which of the following reaction will be considered
(2) best method to prepare an ether ?

(1)
(3)
(2)
(3)
(4)
(4)

PHASE - MEA,PS,B,C,D,F,G,H,I,K,L,M,N,P,Q,R & MEX

27-01-2024 1001CMD303029230092
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41. "d-Block element and their compounds work as 46. In H-spectrum, calculate the ratio of the minimum
catalyst" frequency of Lyman and Balmer series.
Which of the following option does not describe 5 27
(1) (2) (3) 4 : 1 (4) 1 : 4
the above property 27 5
(1) Presence of Vacant "d" orbital 47. Assertion : In H-atom the energy of 3d-orbital is
smaller than 4s orbital.
(2) Possibility of variable oxidation state
Reason : For multielectronic species an orbital
(3) Quite similarity in size of transition metal with lower value of (n + ℓ ) has energy smaller
(4) Presence of free valency over metal surface than the orbital with larger value of (n+ ℓ ).
42. IUPAC name of [Co(NH3)5Cl]Cl2 will be:- (1) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason
is NOT the correct explanation of Assertion.
(1) Pentamminetrichloride cobalt (III)
(2) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(2) Pentamminechloridocobalt(II) chloride
(3) Assertion is false but Reason is true.
(3) Pentamminecobalt(III) chlorido chloride
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are true and
(4) Pentamminechloridocobalt(III) chloride
Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
43. When conc. H2SO4 and Cu clips are added to a salt 48. Find enthalpy of formation of H2O2 (g) [in kJ mol–1].
in test tube and heated strongly, then a brown gas
If bond energy of H–H, O=O, O–H and O–O are
with pungent smell is liberated. So salt may contain-
435 kJ mol–1, 498 kJ mol–1, 464 kJ mol–1 and
(1) Cl – (2) I – (3) NO−3 (4) SO−2
4 142 kJ mol–1 respectively. If enthalpy of vaporisation
44. XCl + NaOH → NaCl + NH3 + H2O of H2O2(ℓ) = 52 kJ mol–1.
What can be X and which group radical test is (1) – 85 (2) 47
written above
(3) – 189 (4) – 127
(1) X = Na+ Ist group radical
49. 6 g urea was dissolved in 178.2 g of water. If the
(2) X = NH4+ Zero group radical vapour pressure of pure water is x, the vapour
(3) X = K+ Ist group radical pressure of solution is
(4) X = NH4+ IInd group radical (1) 0.1 x
45. (2) 0.99 x
(3) 1.1 x
(4) 0.9 x
50. o
If EAu o
"X" is complex with Rosy red colour predict + |Au is 1.69 V and EAu3+ |Au is 1.40 V. Find

o
EAu
radical and its group present in "X". + |Au+3

(1) X = Zn2+ Group = Zero (1) 0.19 V

(2) X = Ni2+ Group = II (2) 2.945 V
(3) X = Zn2+ Group = IV (3) 1.255 V
(4) X = Ni2+ Group = IV (4) – 1.255 V
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1001CMD303029230092 27-01-2024
 English 7
Topic : FULL SYLLABUS

SECTION - A ( PHYSICS ) 55. If voltmeter of 1 V & 1 Ω is to be converted into

voltmeter of 100 V, find series resistance :-
51. There are 2 neutral bodies A & B. Both are 1
rubbed with each other so that A aquires positive (1) 99 Ω (2) 100 Ω (3) 101 Ω (4)
99 Ω
charge and B aquires negative charge, then body 56. Two metallic spheres of radii R1 and R2 are
having high work function is : connected by a thin wire. If q1 and q2 are the
(1) A initial charges on the two spheres then the ratio
of final surface charge densities are :-
(2) B
σ R1 σ R2
(3) Both have same work function (1) σ 1F =
R2
(2) σ 1F =
R1
2F 2F

(4) Can't say σ R 2

σ R 2
(3) σ 1F = 12 (4) σ 1F = 22
52. A hollow metallic sphere with charge q at centre 2F R2 2F R1
is shown. Which one is correct 57. The acceleration of an electron at a certain
moment in a magnetic field B→ = 2iˆ + 3jˆ + 4kˆ is
→a = xiˆ + ˆj − kˆ . The value of x is:-

(1) 0.5 (2) 1 (3) 2.5 (4) 1.5

58. An electron is moving in south direction and it is
(1) EA ≠ 0, EB = 0, EC ≠ 0 deflected in upward direction then direction of
magnetic field present at this place is :-
(2) EA ≠ 0, EB = 0, EC = 0
(1) North (2) South (3) East (4) West
(3) EA = 0, EB = 0, EC ≠ 0
59. Which of the following is incorrect for
(4) EA ≠ 0, EB ≠ 0, EC = 0 diamagnetic material :-
53. Two metal wires of identical dimensions are (1) 𝛘 m< 0
connected in series. If σ 1 and σ 2 are the (2) μ < μ 0
conductivities of the metal wires respectively, the
(3) 0 < μ r < 1
effective conductivity of the combinations is -
(4) 𝛘 m depends on temperature.
σ1 + σ2 σ1 σ2
(1) σ σ (2) σ 1 + σ 2 60.
1 2 In a coil of resistance 10 Ω , the induced current
2σ σ σ1 + σ2 developed by changing magnetic flux through it, is
(3) σ +1 σ2 (4) 2 σ σ
1 2 1 2 shown in figure as a function of time. The magnitude
54. In the given figure, reading of ideal voltmeter of change in flux through the coil in Weber is:
will –

(1) 2 V (2) 1 V (3) 0.5 V (4) Zero (1) 4 (2) 8 (3) 2 (4) 6
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61. A circular wire of radius r rotates about its own 65. In YDSE experiment, when two light rays make
axis with angular speed ω in a magnetic field B third minima, then they have :
perpendicular to its plane, then the induced
e.m.f is : (1) Phase difference of 3 π
1 5π
(1) Br ω 2 (2) Phase difference of
2 2
(2) Br ω 2 (3) Path difference of 3 λ
2B ω r2
(3) (4) Path difference of 5 λ
2
(4) Zero
66. Two identical and independent sodium lamps act as –
62. An LCR series circuit is at resonance. Then:
(1) Coherent sources (2) Non coherent source
(1) The phase difference between current and
voltage is 90° (3) either (1) & (2) (4) None of these

(2) The phase difference between current and 67. If kinetic energy of an electron is decreased by
voltage is 45° 51% then calculate % change in its momentum :-

(3) Its impedance is purely resistive (1) 70% (2) 10% (3) 49% (4) 30%

(4) Current is minimum 68. The energy band diagrams for three
semiconductor samples of silicon are as shown.
63. When light travels from one medium to the other We can then assert that
of which the refractive index is different, then
which of the following will change :
(1) Frequency,wavelength and velocity
(2) Frequency and wavelength (1) sample X is undoped while samples Y and
Z have been doped with a third group and a
(3) Frequency and velocity fifth group impurity respectively
(4) Wavelength and velocity (2) sample X is undoped while both samplesY and
64. A horizontal light ray passes through a Z have been doped with a fifth group impurity
prism (µ = 1.5) of angle 4°. Further, it is (3) sample X has been doped with equal
incident on a plane mirror M, that has been amounts of third and fifth group impurities
placed vertically. By what angle the mirror is while samples Y and Z are undoped
rotated so that the ray after reflection becomes
horizontal? (4) sample X is undoped while samples Y and
Z have been doped with a fifth group and a
third group impurity respectively
69. q2
Energy of capacitor is given as E = , where
2C
q is charge and C is capacitance. If % error in
measurement of charge is 2% and in capacitance
is 3%, find out % error in energy.
(1) 1° (2) 2° (3) 4° (4) 8° (1) 4% (2) 3% (3) 7% (4) 11%
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70. The area of the shaded portion of the graph 76. The figure shows elliptical orbit of a planet m
represents :- about the sun S. The shaded area SCD is twice
the shaded area SAB. If t1 is the time for the
planet to move from C to D and t2 is the time to
move from A to B then :

(1) The average acceleration

(2) The maximum KE
(3) The momentum
(1) t1 = t2 (2) t1 < t2
(4) The displacement
(3) t1 = 4t2 (4) t1 = 2t2
71. A aeroplane flying horizontally with 100 m/s
releases an object which reaches the ground in 10 s. 77. A 20 cm long capillary tube is dipped in water, the
At what angle with horizontal it hits the ground? water rises up to 15 cm. If the entire arrangement
is put in a freely falling elevator the length of
(1) 50° (2) 45° (3) 60° (4) 75°
water column in the capillary tube will be :-
72. A man of mass 60 kg is in a lift and lift is accelerating
(1) 10 cm (2) 4 cm (3) 20 cm (4) 18 cm
upwards with acceleration 4 m/s2. Calculate effective
weight of man in lift. (g = 10 m/sec2) 78. An iceberg of density 900 kg/m3 is floating in
water of density 1000 kg/m3. The percentage of
(1) 840 N (2) 600 N
volume of iceberg outside the water is :-
(3) 700 N (4) 360 N
(1) 20% (2) 35% (3) 10% (4) 25%
73. A mass M is lowered with the help of a string by
79. The bulk modulus of a spherical body is 'B'. If it
a distance h at a constant acceleration g/2. The
is subjected to uniform pressure P, then fractional
work done by the string will be :- decrease in surface area is :-
Mgh Mgh
(1) (2) − (1) P (2) 2P (3) P (4) P
4 2
3B 3B B 2B
3Mgh 3Mgh
(3) (4) − 80. A rod PQ of mass M and length L is hinged at end
2 2
P. The rod is kept horizontal by a massless string
74. One projectile moving with velocity v in space,
tied to point Q as shown in figure. When string is
gets burst into 2 parts of masses in the ratio 1 : 3.
cut, the initial angular acceleration of the rod is :-
The smaller part becomes stationary. What is the
velocity of the other part?
(1) 4v (2) v (3) 4v/3 (4) 3v/4
75. A stone is rotated in a vertical circle. Speed at
bottommost point is 8gR, where R is the radius
√

of circle. The ratio of tension at the top and the

bottom is :
2g 3g
(1) g/L (2) 2g/L (3) (4)
(1) 1 : 2 (2) 1 : 3 (3) 2 : 3 (4) 1 : 4 3L 2L
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 10 English

81. Statement-1 : A particle is moving along x-axis. The SECTION - B ( PHYSICS )

resultant force F acting on it is given by
F = – ax – b, where a and b are both positive 86. In given system find potential at the surface of
constants. The motion of this particle is not SHM. outer shell :-
Statement-2 : In SHM resultant force must be
proportional to the displacement from mean position.
(1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
Statement-2 is a correct explanation for
Statement-1.
(2) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; KQ KQ KQ
Statement-2 is not a correct explanation for (1) Zero (2) (3) (4)
2a 4a a
Statement-1 87. A battery of e.m.f. 10 V is connected to resistances
(3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False as shown in the given figure. The potential
difference between A and B, (VA – VB) is :
(4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True
82. The two nearest harmonics of a tube closed at one
end and open at other end are 220 Hz and 260 Hz.
What is the fundamental frequency of the system ?
(1) 20 Hz (2) 30 Hz (3) 40 Hz (4) 10 Hz
83. Star A has radius r and surface temperature T while
star B has radius 4r and surface temperature T/2. (1) – 2V (2) 2V
The ratio of the power of two stars, PA : PB is :-
(3) 5V (4) (20/11)V
(1) 16 : 1 (2) 1 : 16 (3) 1 : 1 (4) 1 : 4
88. Magnetic field at point 'P' due to given current
84. One kg of ice at 0°C is mixed with 1 kg of water distribution is :-
at 10°C. The resulting temperature will be :
(1) between 0°C and 10°C
(2) 0°C
(3) less than 0°C
(4) greater than 0°C μ 0I μ 0I
(1) ( 1 + √2 ) ⊙ (2) ( 1 + √2 ) ⊙
85. If a bimetallic strip is heated, it will- 4πr 2πr
μ I μ I
(1) bend towards the metal with lower thermal (3) 0 (1 + √2) ⊗ (4) 0 (1 + √2) ⊗
4πr 2πr
expansion coefficient.
89. Flux of the field is given by ϕ = t3 – 3t2 + 6 Weber
(2) bend towards the metal with higher thermal then calculate the flux in Weber at the maximum
expansion coefficient. induction-
(3) twist itself into helix. (1) 10 Wb (2) 6 Wb
(4) have no bending. (3) 4 Wb (4) none
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90. Assertion : AC source is connected across a 93. The I-V. characteristic of a P-N junction in
circuit power dissipated in circuit is P. The forward bias is shown. The approximate forward
power is dissipated only across resistance. resistance of junction is-
Reason : Inductor and capacitor will not
consume any power in AC circuit.
(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and
Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason (1) 1 Ω
is not the correct explanation of Assertion. (2) 0.25 Ω
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false. (3) 0.5 Ω
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false. (4) 5 Ω
91. Two similar plano-convex lenses are combined 94. The main scale of a vernier caliper reads in mm
together in three different ways as shown in the and its Vernier is divided into 10 divisions which
adjoining figure. The ratio of the focal lengths in coincide with 9 divisions of the main scale. The
three cases will be:- reading for the given situation will be :-

(1) 2 : 2 : 1 (2) 1 : 1 : 1
(3) 1 : 2 : 2 (4) 2 : 1 : 1 (1) 7.58 cm

92. Match the column-I with column-II (2) 8.79 cm

Column-I Column-II (3) 8.63 cm
h (4) 9.78 cm
A. Energy of photon (p)
cλ 95. In fig. coefficient of kinetic friction between the
B. Linear momentum of photon (q) zero 1
4 kg block and the inclined surface is . Here
C. Rest mass of photon (r) h √ 3
λ 'm' is such a mass that the 4 kg block is moving
D. Effective mass of photon (s) hc up the plane with a constant speed, then m is :-
λ
(1) A – p; B – q; C – r; D – s
(2) A – s; B – q; C – r; D – p
(3) A – s; B – r; C – q; D – p
(1) 2 kg (2) 2.8 kg
(4) A – s; B – r; C – p; D – q
(3) 3.4 kg (4) 4 kg
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96. For horizontal circular motion, select the correct 98. A simple pendulum of length 1 m is allowed to
match. The position of observer is above the oscillate with amplitude 2°. It collides elastically
circular path. with a wall inclined at 1° to the vertical. Its time
period will be (use g = π 2) :-
Object is moving
in clockwise
(P) (a)
direction with
increasing speed.

Object is moving
in clockwise
(Q) (b) (1) 2/3 sec (2) 4/3 sec
direction with
decreasing speed. (3) 2 sec (4) none of these
99. A small planet is revolving around a very
Object is moving massive star in a circular orbit of radius R with a
in anticlockwise period of revolution T. If the gravitational force
(c) between the planet and the star were proportional
direction with
increasing speed. to R – 5/2, then T would be proportional to?
Object is moving (1) R3/2 (2) R3/5

(d)
in anticlockwise (3) R7/2 (4) R7/4
direction with
100. The given figure shows the pressure-temperature (P-T)
decreasing speed.
diagram for a fixed mass of an ideal gas undergoing
(1) P-d, Q-b
cyclic process ABCA. The corresponding pressure-
(2) P-d, Q-a volume(P-V) graph for the given cyclic process will be.
(3) P-c, Q-b
(4) P-c, Q-a
97. A thin rod of length L and mass m is bend at the
middle point O as shown in figure. Consider an
axis passing through the middle point O and
perpendicular to the plane of the bent rod. Then
moment of inertia about this axis is :
(1) (2)

2 mL2 mL2
(1) (2) (3) (4)
3 3
mL2 mL2
(3) (4)
12 24
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Topic : FULL SYLLABUS

SECTION - A ( BOTANY ) 107. Which of the following is not a function of ecosystem?

(1) Energy Flow (2) Productivity
101. How many species are present in the following
group of organisms ? (3) Stratification (4) Decomposition
Mangifera indica, Solanum tuberosum, Panthera
leo, Panthera pardus, Solanum nigrum. 108. Match the column-I with column-II and choose
correct option :-
(1) Four (2) Five (3) Ten (4) Three Column I Column II
102. What is true for slime mould ? (a) Chrysophytes (i) Paramoecium
(1) Grow on decaying wood and leaves engulfing (b) Dinoflagellates (ii) Euglena
organic material. (c) Euglenoids (iii) Gonyaulax
(2) Under adverse condition, they form Plasmodium (d) Protozoans (iv) Diatoms
(3) Spores possess true walls
(4) Option (1) & (3) both are correct (1) a–i, b–iii, c–ii, d–iv (2) a–ii, b–iv, c–iii, d–i
103. Archaebacteria differ from other eubacteria in having:- (3) a–iv, b–ii, c–iii, d–i (4) a–iv, b–iii, c–ii, d–i
(1) True nucleus 109. Assertion : In five kingdom classification
(2) Composition of cell wall chlamydomonas, chlorella and paramoecium,
(3) Composition of cytoplasm amoeba put together under the kingdom protista.
(4) Composition of genetic material Reason : Kingdom protista include the unicelluar
104. In plants, the symptoms can be mosaic eukaryotes.
formation, leaf rolling and curling, yellowing (1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the
and vein clearing are the symptoms of Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(1) Bacterial disease (2) Viral disease (2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason
(3) Fungal disease (4) Protozoans disease is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.

105. When certain exotic species are introduced into a (3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
geographical region they become invasive and (4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.
start spreading fast because :- 110. Select the wrong statement :-
(1) Exotic species have high biotic potential.
(1) In absence of predators, prey species could
(2) Geographical conditions are favourable for achieve very high population densities and
exotic species. cause ecosystem instability.
(3) Exotic species can grow in least fertile area. (2) If a predator is too efficient and overexploit
(4) Invaded land does not have its natural predators. its prey, then the prey might become extinct
106. What is the reason of maximum species diversity and predator will also become extinct.
formed in tropical rain forest ? (3) Predators help in maintaining species diversity
(1) Undisturbed environment, they have long in a population, by reducing the intensity of
evolutionary time competition among competing prey species.
(2) Less seasonal variations (4) Biological control methods adopted in
(3) More solar availability & rainfall agricultural pest control are based on the ability
(4) All of the above of the predator to regulate prey population.
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111. Which of the following statement incorrect about 115. Tomato, potato & brinjal are included in
decomposition ? family solanaceae due to :-
(1) Decomposition is largely an oxygen-requiring (1) Presence of perianth
process.
(2) Presence of swollen placenta
(2) Decomposition rate is faster if detritus is
rich in lignin and chitin. (3) Presence of papilionaceous corolla
(4) Presence of cruciform carolla
(3) Warm and moist environment favour
decomposition. 116. Which of the following is not essential for the
(4) Temperature and soil moisture are the most process of photosynthesis ?
important climatic factors that regulate
decomposition. (1) Chlorophyll (2) Oxygen
112. Assertion : Ecological diversity of India is more (3) Carbon dioxide (4) Light
than Norway.
Reason : India has more ecosystem diversity than 117. In Moll's half leaf experiment, compound __A__ is
Norway. used to absorb carbon dioxide, the compound A is :-
(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the
Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion. (1) NaOH (2) HCl (3) KOH (4) NaCl
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason 118. Nature of respiratory pathway is :
is not a correct explanation of the Assertion. (1) Only catabolic and exergonic
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False. (2) Only anabolic and endergonic
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False. (3) Catabolic, anabolic & endergonic
113. Statement-I: India's share of the global species (4) Catabolic, Anabolic & exergonic
diversity is an impressive 8.1 percent. 119. Naturally cytokinins are synthesized in-
Statement-II: India has more than 50,000 genetically
different strains of rice and 1000 varieties of mango. (1) Dormant seeds (2) Senescent leaves
(1) Statement I and II both are correct
(3) Dormant buds (4) Root apices
(2) Statement I and II both are incorrect
(3) Only Statement I is correct 120. Spraying of GA increases sugarcane production by-
(4) Only Statement II is correct (1) 20 kg per acre (2) 200kg per acre
114. In below representation of trophic levels in an (3) 20 tonnes per acre (4) 2000 kg per acre
ecosystem (a), (b) & (c) are respectively-
121. Concentration of carbon dioxide .......... can
become damaging for plants over longer periods.
Choose correct option for blank :-
(1) between 0.02 to 0.03 percent
(2) beyond 0.05 percent
(1) (a)-Primary consumer (b)-Second trophic level (3) less than 0.02 percent
(c)-Birds
(2) (a)-Secondary producer (b)-First trophic (4) between 0.03 to 0.04 percent
level (c)-Cow 122. The rate of photosynthesis at any point will be
(3) (a)-Primary consumer (b)-Third trophic level determined by the factor available at :-
(c)-Lion
(1) Sub optimal levels (2) Optimal levels
(4) (a)-Primary consumer (b)-First trophic level
(c)-Lion (3) Super optimal levels (4) Sufficient levels
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123. Select the correct value for A and B given in the 128. Following diagram represent
table below :-
C3 Plants C4 Plants
CO2 Saturation point A B
Options :-
(1) A = 0 – 50 ppm, B = 300 ppm
(2) A = beyond 450 ppm, B = 360 ppm
(3) A = 360 ppm, B = beyond 450 ppm
(4) A = 100 – 110 ppm, B = 290 ppm
124. An unusual nucleotide that is added to the 5'
end of hnRNA is : (1) Independent Assortment
(1) Methyl guanosine triphosphate (2) Linkage
(2) Methyl adenosine triphosphate (3) Crossing over
(3) Adenylic acid (4) Incomplete linkage
(4) Guanylic acid 129. Which one of the following is an example of
125. Which of the following is called Bakers yeast & carrying out biological control of pest using
Brewer's yeast -
fungi?
(1) Rhizopus
(1) Bacillus thuringiensis against butterfly
(2) Saccharomyces caterpillars
(3) Lactic acid bacteria (2) Baculoviruses against certain insects and
(4) Streptococcus arthropods.
126. A failure in cell division after DNA replication (3) Lady bird beetle against aphids
results into (4) Trichoderma species against certain plant
(1) Gene mutation pathogens.
(2) Chromosomal aberration 130. In __A__ type of inflorescence main axis
(3) Polyploidy terminates in a flower and flower are arranged in
(4) All except (3) __B__ succession. What are A and B ?

127. Mendel conducted artificial cross pollination A B

experiments using : (1) Racemose Acropetal
(1) Few true-breeding pea lines (2) Racemose Basipetal
(2) Several true-breeding pea lines
(3) Cymose Acropetal
(3) No true-breeding lines
(4) Cymose Basipetal
(4) Many heterohygours lines
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131. 135. Statement-I : Integuments of ovules harden as

tough protective seed coats.
Statement-II : The micropyle remains as a small
pore in the seed coat.
(1) Both statements are incorrect
(2) Both statements are correct
(3) Statement-I is correct and Statement-II is incorrect
Identify A, B, C and D :- (4) Statement-I is incorrect and Statement-II is correct
(1) A = Root hair, B = Region of elongation
SECTION - B ( BOTANY )
C = Region of maturation, D = Root cap
(2) A = Region of maturation, B = Region of 136. Complex post fertilization development is seen
meristematic activity, C = Region of elongation, in which algae :-
D = Root cap (1) Green algae (2) Brown algae
(3) A = Root hair, B = Region of elongation (3) Yellow green algae (4) Red algae
C = Region of maturation, D = Region of
meristematic activity 137. In an ecosystem the rate of production of new
plant tissue is :-
(4) A = Region of meristematic activity, B = Root cap
C = Region of maturation, D = Region of (1) Net community productivity
elongation (2) Net primary productivity
132. Select the correct option in which given diagram and its (3) Net secondary productivity
labelled structure 'A' correctly identified, respectively :-
(4) Gross secondary productivity
138. Predation, parasitism and commensalism share a
common characteristic :-
(1) Interacting species are benefitted
(2) Interacting species live closely together
(1) Stomata, guard cell (3) Both the species belong to same taxonomic group
(2) Stomata, subsidiary cell (4) One of the species is benefitted while other
(3) Stomata, epidermal cell is harmed.
(4) Stomata endodermal cell 139. Select the option which includes all the correct
ones only :-
133. In monocot stem (maize stem), vascular bundles are :- (A) Diatoms → haploid body
(1) Conjoint & open (2) Conjoint & closed (B) Dinoflagellate → bioluminescence
(C) Slime mould → Decomposer nature
(3) Radial (4) Concentric
(D) Euglenoids → Sometime behave like predator
134. Ground tissue system consist of all tissues, except :- (E) Protozoa → unicellular prokaryotes
(1) Hypodermis (2) Vascular bundles (1) pair A, B and C (2) pair A, B, C and D
(3) Cortex (4) Endodermis (3) pair B, C, D and E (4) pair B, C and D
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140. Identify the correct match from the coloumn I, II 145. Select incorrect statement :
and III :-
Column- (1) During aerobic respiration O2 is consumed
Column-I Column-II and CO2 is released.
III
Plant pollinator (2) RQ ratio is – Ratio of volume of CO2 consumed
1 Predation a
relation
i +/ –
to the volume of O2 evolved
2 Commensalism b Cuckoo & Crow ii +/0
Biological control (3) The RQ depends upon the type of respiratory
3 Mutualism c iii +/+ substrate
method
Sea-anemone & (4) When fat are used in respiration, the RQ is less
4 Parasitism d iv +/ –
clown fish than 1.
(1) 1-b-i, 2-a-ii, 3-c-iii, 4-d-iv 146. GA can ............. the senescence in plant parts
(2) 4-a-ii, 2-b-iii, 1-c-iv, 3-d-i such as fruits-
(3) 1-c-i, 3-a-iii, 2-d-ii, 4-b-iv (1) promote (2) eliminate
(4) 1-c-i, 3-a-iii, 2-b-iv, 4-d-ii (3) delay (4) not affect
141. Select the correct option with respect to following 147. Read the following statements & choose the
figure :- right option :
A - Rate of photosynthesis determines the yield
of plants including crop plants.
B - The internal factors that determine rate of
photosynthesis are genetic predisposition and
growth of plant.
(1) Both A & B are correct
(2) Both A & B are incorrect
(A) (B) (C) (D)
(3) A is correct but B is incorrect
(1) Birds Fishes Amphibian Mammals (4) B is correct but A is incorrect
(2) Mammals Birds Reptiles Fishes 148. Which codon has dual functions ?
(3) Mammals Birds Amphibian Fishes (1) AUG (2) UUU (3) UAA (4) UGG
(4) Birds Mammals Fishes Amphibian 149. Statement-I : The large holes in 'swiss-cheese' are
due to production of a large amount of CO2 by
142. Endosperm is formed as a result of double fertilisation bacterium named Propionibacterium-sharmanii.
in angiosperms that is absent in the mature seeds of: Statement-II : The 'Roquefort cheese' are ripened
by growing a specific bacteria on them, which
(1) Coconut (2) Gram (3) Maize (4) Castor gives them a particular flavour.
143. Which of the following is incorrect match ? (1) Statement-I & Statement-II both are correct.
(1) Superior ovary – Mustard, china rose (2) Statement-I is correct & Statement-II is incorrect.
(2) Half inferior ovary – Plum, Rose (3) Statement-I is incorrect & Statement-II is correct.
(4) Both Statement-I & Statement-II is incorrect.
(3) Inferior ovary – Guava, Cucumber
(4) Half superior ovary – Sunflower, Brinjal 150. If hybrids are made into apomicts, then :-
(1) Characters may be segregate in the hybrid progeny.
144. In the photosynthesis of green plants, oxygen
evolved comes from :- (2) Hybrid will show inferior characters only.
(3) There is no segregation of characters in the
(1) Water (2) Carbon dioxide hybrid progeny.
(3) Hydrogen sulphide (4) Chlorophyll (4) Hybrid seeds will not develop into hybrid plants.
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Topic : FULL SYLLABUS

SECTION - A ( ZOOLOGY ) 155. Find out the correct match pair only :
Tissues Characters
151. In the evolutionary history of the animal Simple
kingdom, which of the following features have (1) Mainly Protective function
epithelium
evolved for the first time in phylum annelida?
Compound Functions as a lining for body
(A) Metameric segmentation (2)
epithelium cavities and ducts
(B) Organ system level of organisation
(C) Closed circulatory system Simple
(3) Consists of two or more cell layers
(D) True coelom epithelium
(E) Bilateral symmetry Compound Provide protection against
(4)
Select the correct answer :- epithelium chemical and mechanical stress
(1) A, B and E (2) A, B, C and D 156. Choose incorrect statement :-
(3) A, C and D (4) Only A and B (1) Eosinophil resists infection.
152. Read the following statements and give correct (2) Erythroblastosis foetalis can be avoided by
answer: administration of anti-Rh antibodies to
Phylum Character Examples mother immediately after first delivery.
Nephridia for (3) During pregnancy blood of mother and
Nereis,
(1) Annelida osmoregulation &
Ancylostoma foetus are well separated by placenta.
excretion
Pinctada, (4) Person with AB blood group is universal donor
(2) Mollusca Body is segmented
Aplysia
157. Mark the true statement among the following
Sexual reproduction
(3) Echinodermata & usually external
Cucumaria, with reference to normal breathing :
Antedon
fertillization (1) Inspiration and expiration are passive processes.
Presence of Meandrina,
(4) Cnidaria
paragastric cavity Limulus
(2) Inspiration is an active process where
expiration is Passive Process
153. (A) Bones are pneumatic
(3) Inspiration and Expiration are Active Process
(B) Feathers are exclusive characters
(C) Crop and gizzard are present (4) Inspiration is an Passive Process where as
(D) Homeothermic expiration is an Active Process
Which of the above given characters related to 158. Which mechanism helps to maintain a concentration
class aves? gradient in the medullary interstitium
(1) ABCD (2) ABC (3) BCD (4) ACD (1) Ultra filtration
154. Which tissue found in the inner surface of hollow (2) Counter current mechanism
organs like bronchioles and fallopian tube. (3) RAAS mechanism
(4) Hormonals mechanism
(1) Ciliated columnar epithelium
159. Which substances are reabsorbed in the collecting
(2) Ciliated cuboidal epithelium duct ?
(3) Compound epithelium (1) Urea, water (2) Water, glucose
(4) All of these (3) H+, K+ ions (4) Water, H+ ions
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160. On application of a stimulus on the axonal 165. Consider the statements given below regarding human
membrane, reproduction and answer as directed there after:
(1) There is a rapid influx of K+ at that site (A) Scientifically it is correct to say that the sex of the
(2) There is a rapid efflux of Na+ at that site baby is determined by the father and not by the
(3) There is a rapid influx of Na+ at that site mother.
(4) There is a rapid efflux of K+ at that site (B) HCG, HPL and relaxin are produced in women
161. The nerve centres which control the body temperature only during pregnancy.
and the urge for eating are contained in: (C) The meiotic division starts as the zygote moves
through the isthmus of the oviduct called cleavage.
(1) Hypothalamus (2) Pons (D) The placenta is connected to the embryo through
(3) Cerebellum (4) Thalamus an umbilical cord.
162. Assertion: Graves' disease is also called as Which of the above statements are correct?
Exopthalmic goitre. (1) A, B, C (2) A, B, D (3) B, C, D (4) A, C
Reason: Protrusion of eye balls enlargement of 166. In assisted reproductive technology (ART), the
thyroid gland's are the main characteristics of method in which a sperm is directly injected into
Graves' disease. the ovum is called____:
(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the (1) GIFT (2) ET (3) ZIFT (4) ICSI
Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
167. Select the correct match w.r.t. type of antibody
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason and its function listed :-
is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(1) IgA – Provides passive immunity to fetus
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(2) IgG – Provides active immunity to fetus
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.
(3) IgE – Can cross placenta to provide immunity
163. The correct sequence of events during contraction
of muscle will be :- (4) IgG – Number rises dramatically on subsequent
(A) Action potential is generated in sarcolemma exposure to antigen in secondary response
(B) Ca++ binds with subunit of troponin
(C) Release of Ca++ ions into the sarcoplasm 168. The exaggerated response of the immune system
(D) A neural signal reaching the neuromuscular to certain antigens is called
junction releases a neurotransmitter-acetylcholine (1) Primary response
(E) Removal of masking of active sites at actin for
myosin (2) Secondary response
(F) Myosin head binds to exposed active sites on
(3) Immune suppression response
actin to form cross bridge.
(4) Allergy
(1) D, A, B, C, E, F (2) D, C, A, B, E, F
169. A vector borne disease characterised by enlargement
(3) D, A, C, B, E, F (4) A, B, C, E, F, D
of spleen, jaundice and low haemoglobin
164. Which hormone causes strong uterine contraction concentration. All these feature associated to RBC
during parturition ? destruction by pathogen. This disease may be?
(1) PRL (2) Oxytocin (1) Chikungunya (2) Malaria
(3) Relaxin (4) Inhibin (3) Filariasis (4) Dengue
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170. Which of the following statement is not correct ? 177. On a chromosome, site for attachment of spindle
(1) Spleen also has a large reservoir of erythrocytes. fibres is
(1) Secondary constriction
(2) MALT constitutes about 50% of the lymphoid (2) Primary constriction
tissue in human body.
(3) Kinetochore
(3) Thymus is lobed organ where all blood (4) Satellite
cells including lymphocytes are produced. 178. The site for r-RNA synthesis is
(4) Anti-histamine, adrenalin & steroids quickly (1) Nuclear matrix (2) Nucleus
reduce the symptoms of allergy.
(3) Nucleolus (4) Perinuclear speace
171. Which pair of organs shows analogy ?
(1) Mouth parts of insects 179. Which bond is formed by dehydration?
(2) Potato and Ginger (1) Glycosidic bond (2) Peptide bond
(3) Eye of the octopus and mammals (3) Phosphodiester bond (4) All of the above
(4) Radish and Turnip
180. Which of the following is the most abundant
172. Which of the following is the common ancestor
protein in animal world?
of ferns, conifers and Ginkgos?
(1) Chlorophyte (2) Rhynia-type (1) Elastin (2) Albumin
(3) Tracheophyte (4) Psilophyton (3) Collagen (4) Globulin
173. Which is incorrect match from given columns-I 181. The experimental manipulation of DNA of different
and II ? species, producing recombinant DNA is known as :
Column-I Column-II
(1) Electrophoresis
1. Australopithecus 2-million years ago (2) Recombinant DNA technology
2. Homo habilis First human being like (3) Transformation
3. Homo erectus Probably ate meat (4) Somatic hybridization
Lived in east 182. Which of the following is the correct sequence
4. Neanderthal man of PCR or polymerase chain reaction ?
African grassland
(1) Denaturation - Annealing - Extension
174. What will be the amount of DNA in meiosis II (2) Extension - Denaturation - Annealing
Product if meiocyte contain 30pg DNA in G1 phase : (3) Annealing - Extension - Denaturation
(1) 30 pg (2) 60 pg (3) 15 pg (4) 120 pg (4) Denaturation - Extension - Annealing
175. A pair of synapsed homologous chromosomes is 183. Since DNA has.................charge, it moves towards
known as the.................electrode of the electrophoretic chamber :
(1) Bivalent (2) Chiasmata (1) Positive (2) Positive, negative
(3) Monad (4) Monovalent
(3) Negative, positive (4) Natural, neutral
176. Recombination between homologous chromosomes
is completed by the end of 184. Genetically modified plant provide alternative
resources to the industry in the form of
(1) Pachytene (2) Metaphase I
(1) Starch (2) Fuel
(3) Zygotene (4) Diakinesis
(3) Pharmaceutical (4) All
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185. Statement-A : The Indian Parliament has recently 190. Assertion (A) : Sympathetic nerves can increase
cleared the fifth amendment of the Indian Patents Bill. strength of ventricular contraction.
Statement-B : Transgenic mice are being developed Reason (R) : Fibers of sympathetic nerves
release adrenaline, which is stimulatory for heart
for use in testing the safety of vaccines before they are
used on humans. (1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not
the correct explanation of (A)
(1) Both A and B are correct (2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(2) Only A is correct (3) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct
(3) Only B is correct (4) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is the
correct explanation of (A)
(4) Both A and B are incorrect 191. Which of the following function is performed by insulin?
SECTION - B ( ZOOLOGY ) (1) Increase glycogenesis
(2) Increase glycogenolysis
186. Which of the following statements are correct (3) Increases gluconeogenesis
regarding the process of RNA interference? (4) Breakdown of Protein
(a) It is a novel strategy to produce pest resistant
192. In the given graph A and B are pituitary hormones
plants. while C and D are ovarian hormones. Select the
(b) This method involves silencing of specific tRNA option, which correctly identifies them :
due to complementary dsDNA molecule.
(c) RNAi takes place in all eukaryotic and
prokaryotic organism as a method of cellular defense.
Choose the correct answer from the options given
below :
(1) a,b (2) a,c
A B C D
(3) only a (4) a, b and c
(1) FSH LH Estrogen Progesterone
187. Aurelia is also known as :
(2) LH FSH Estrogen Progesterone
(1) Star-fish (2) Silver-fish
(3) FSH LH Progesterone Estrogen
(3) Jelly-fish (4) Cuttle-fish
(4) LH FSH Progesterone Estrogen
188. In the given examples, how many animals are
viviparous ? 193. Which of the following is a copper releasing IUD?
Corvus, Columba, Macropus, Pteropus, Calotes, (1) Lippes loop (2) Multiload 375
Hemidactylus, Psittacula, Struthio and Macaca (3) Progestasert (4) LNG-20
(1) Three (2) Four (3) Five (4) Six 194. Statement-I : Virus infected cells secrete proteins
called cytokine which protect non-infected cells
189. Pressure in aorta is at its lowest : from further viral infection.
Statement-II : Acquired immunity is pathogen
(1) Just before AV valves open non specific.
(2) Just before the semilunar valves closed (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
(3) At the time of second heart sound (2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(4) Just before the semilunar valves open (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
PHASE - MEA,PS,B,C,D,F,G,H,I,K,L,M,N,P,Q,R & MEX
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195. Industrial melanism support : 198. Primary structure of proteins is due to the presence of
(1) Natural selection (2) Genetic drift (1) Peptide bonds
(2) Disulphide (S—S) linkages
(3) Stabilizing selection (4) Gene migration (3) Hydrogen bonds
196. Statement-I :- Eukaryotic ribosome are 70s (4) Ionic bonds.
while prokaryotic ribosomes are 80s. 199. Enzymes necessary for recombinant DNA technology
Statement-II :- Ribosomes are composed of are
RNA, protein and membrane. (1) Endonucleases and polymerases
(1) Both statement I and II are correct (2) Restriction endonucleases and ligases
(2) Both statement I and II are incorrect (3) Peptidases and ligases
(3) Statement I is correct while II is incorrect
(4) Restriction endonucleaes and topoisomerases
(4) Statement I is incorrect while II is correct
197. What is not true about cell cycle. 200. Column-I Column-II
a. During G1 phase their is active synthesis of RNA I. Primers A. PCR
and proteins but no change in its DNA content. Separation and purification
b. In synthesis or S phase, each chromosome II. B. C2H5OH
of products
carries a duplicate set of genes. Uptake of foreign
c. During G2 phase, a cell contains double the III. Precipitation of DNA C.
DNA by bacterium
amount (4C) of DNA present in the original diploid
Down stream pro-
cell (2C) IV. Transformation D.
cessing
d. In S-phase a cell doubles the original diploid (2n)
chromosome number. (1) I - A, II - D, III - B, IV - C
(2) I - C, II - A, III - D, IV - B
(1) c and d (2) b and c
(3) I - B, II - A, III - C, IV - D
(3) d only (4) b, c and d (4) I - D, II - B, III - A, IV - C

PHASE - MEA,PS,B,C,D,F,G,H,I,K,L,M,N,P,Q,R & MEX

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SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

PHASE - MEA,PS,B,C,D,F,G,H,I,K,L,M,N,P,Q,R & MEX

27-01-2024 1001CMD303029230092
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