Test Booklet Code & Serial No.

A
CHEMICAL SCIENCE
Signature and Name of Invigilator Seat No.
1. (Signature) ......................................... (In figures as in Admit Card)
(Name) ................................................ Seat No. ..............................................................
2. (Signature) ......................................... (In words)

(Name) ................................................ OMR Sheet No.

MAR - 33223 (To be filled by the Candidate)
Time Allowed : 2 Hours] [Maximum Marks : 200
Number of Pages in this Booklet : 40 Number of Questions in this Booklet : 100
Instructions for the Candidates
1. Write your Seat No. and OMR Sheet No. in the space provided 1.
on the top of this page.
2. This paper consists of 100 objective type questions. Each question
will carry two marks. All questions of Paper II will be compulsory. 2.
3. At the commencement of examination, the question booklet
will be given to the student. In the first 5 minutes, you are 3.
requested to open the booklet and compulsorily examine it as
follows :
(i) To have access to the Question Booklet, tear off the
paper seal on the edge of this cover page. Do not accept (i)
a booklet without sticker-seal or open booklet.
(ii) Tally the number of pages and number of questions in
the booklet with the information printed on the cover (ii)
page. Faulty booklets due to missing pages/questions
or questions repeated or not in serial order or any
other discrepancy should not be accepted and correct
booklet should be obtained from the invigilator within
the period of 5 minutes. Afterwards, neither the Question
Booklet will be replaced nor any extra time will be
given. The same may please be noted.
(iii) After this verification is over, the OMR Sheet Number
(iii)
should be entered on this Test Booklet.
4. Each question has four alternative responses marked (A), (B),
(C) and (D). You have to darken the circle as indicated below on 4. (A), (B), (C) (D)
the correct response against each item.
Example : where (C) is the correct response.

A B D (C)
5. Your responses to the items are to be indicated in the OMR A B D
Sheet given inside the Booklet only. If you mark at any place
other than in the circle in the OMR Sheet, it will not be evaluated. 5.
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7. Rough Work is to be done at the end of this booklet. 6.
8. If you write your Name, Seat Number, Phone Number or put 7.
any mark on any part of the OMR Sheet, except for the space
8.
allotted for the relevant entries, which may disclose your
identity, or use abusive language or employ any other unfair
means, you will render yourself liable to disqualification.
9. You have to return original OMR Sheet to the invigilator at the
end of the examination compulsorily and must not carry it with 9.
you outside the Examination Hall. You are, however, allowed
to carry the Test Booklet and duplicate copy of OMR Sheet on
conclusion of examination.
10.
10. Use only Blue/Black Ball point pen.
11.
11. Use of any calculator or log table, etc., is prohibited.
12. There is no negative marking for incorrect answers. 12.
 MAR- 33223/II—A

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Chemical Science
Paper II
Time Allowed : 120 Minutes] [Maximum Marks : 200
Note : This Paper contains Hundred (100) multiple choice questions. Each question
carrying Two (2) marks. Attempt All questions.

1. The complex [FeF 6]3– is colorless, whereas [CoF 6]3– is colored; this is

because :

(A) Both are high spin complexes

(B) Spin forbidden transitions in [FeF6]3– and spin allowed transitions in

[CoF6]3–

(C) Spin-allowed transitions in [FeF6]3– and spin-forbidden transitions in

[CoF6]3–

(D) [FeF6]3– is low spin complex, and [CoF6]3– is high spin complex

2. The species with the lowest Valence Electron (VE) count is :

(A) [V (CO)6 ]– (B) [Cu (MA 3 )6 ]2

(C) [AuCl4 ]– (D) [ Zn (en)3 ]2

3. The Wade’s rules can be applied to the naked clusters of p-block elements.
2–
According to Wade’s rules, the number of skeletal electrons in Pb57 cluster

is :

(A) 18 (B) 22

(C) 8 (D) 12

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4. In an axially symmetric field, NQR transition/s expected for nuclear spin quantum

number I = 7/2 is/are :

(A) 1 (B) 2

(C) 3 (D) 4

31 1
5. P– H spectrum of diamagnetic complex mer–RhCl3 (PEt3)3 would show

(103Rh, 31P; I = 1 2 )

(A) a doublet

(B) a triplet

(C) doublet of doublet and doublet of triplet

(D) triplet of doublet and doublet of doublet

6. Based on Pauling’s electronegativity scale hydrogen can oxidize :

(A) Boron (B) Carbon

(C) Nitrogen (D) Oxygen

7. The following reaction

3CH3Li + SbCl3 (CH3)3Sb + 3LiCl

is an example of :

(A) Oxidative addition (B) Reductive elimination

(C) Metal-halogen exchange (D) Metathesis reaction

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8. Consider the given Frost diagram for chlorine species in acidic (solid line) and
basic (dashed line) media. The INCORRECT statement about their reactivities
is :

(A) ClO2– is more susceptible to disproportionation in acidic than in basic medium

(B) All species disproportionate in acidic medium

(C) ClO4– is a stronger oxidizing agent in basic than in acidic medium

(D) Except Cl–, other chlorine species are strongly oxidizing in acidic than
in basic medium

9. The radionuclide 135Te undergoes four successive – emission to give the stable
isotope :

(A) 135 I (B) 135Xe

(C) 135Cs (D) 135Ba

10. The molecule which does not have Td symmetry :

(A) SiF 4 (B) CH4

(C) P 4 (D) XeF4

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11. Historically, oxygen was prepared by the decomposition of metal oxides. The
correct set of oxides that give dioxygen on heating is :
(A) HgO, CaO, BaO (B) KO2, BaO2, Na2O
(C) Na2O, CaO, BaO (D) HgO, KO2, BaO2
12. The PKa of coordinated water is lowest for :
(A) [Fe(H2O)6] Cl2 (B) [Fe(H2O)6] Cl3
(C) [Zn(H2O)6] Cl2 (D) [Ru(H2O)6] Cl3
13. The results of a copper analysis are found to give 42.50% of metal as compared
to true value of 42.92%. The relative error of analysis is :
(A) –0.97% (B) +0.97%
(C) –0.42% (D) +0.42%
14. The set of compounds that show autoionization is :
(A) Cl2O6, POCl3, HF
(B) IF3, HF, POCl3
(C) HF, IF3, Cl2O6
(D) POCl3, IF3, Cl2O6

22
15. The radionuclide Na decays by a positron emission. The ratio of the atomic
11
mass and atomic number of the resulting nuclide is given by :

22 22
(A) (B)
10 11

21 21
(C) (D)
10 11
16. R-S terms possible for a first-row transition metal complex in a weak field of
ligands are 2H, 2G, 4F, 2F, 2D, 2D and 2P. The ground term of this complex
is/are :
(A) 2H (B) 4 P
(C) 4P and 4F (D) 4 F

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17. Lanthanides and actinides are not known to form neutral carbonyl complexes because :
(A) They lack electrons in d orbitals
(B) Their d orbitals do not overlap with orbitals of CO
(C) They tend to hydrate CO under ambient conditions
(D) Their large metal atoms cannot interact with smaller diatomic ligands
18. Concurrent bond formation between metal and the entering group and bond
cleavage between metal and the leaving group is observed in a/an :
(A) Associative reaction (B) Dissociative reaction
(C) Interchange reaction (D) Reductive elimination reaction
19. Hemocyanin is an oxygen transport protein in arthropodes. The mode of oxygen
binding to copper in hemocyanin is :
1 1
(A) µ : O2–
2 (B) µ 2
: 2
O22–

1 1
(C) µ : O2– (D) µ 2
: 2
O2–

20. The observed magnetic moment for the complex Cs 2[CoCl4] is 4.59 B.M. The
magnetic moment can be best explained by :

(A) The spin only value

(B) Spin-orbit coupling

(C) Orbital contribution to the magnetic moment

(D) Temperature independent paramagnetism

21. Biological nitrification is identified by :

(A) 2[NO3]–+ 12H+ + 10e– N2 + 6H2O

(B) [NH4]+ + 2O2 [NO3]– + H2O + 2H+

(C) N2 + 10H+ + 8e– 2[NH4]+ + H2

(D) N2 + 3H2 2NH3

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22. The Pairing Energy (P) contribution to the CFSE of a high spin d7 ion in
an octahedral geometry is :

(A) O (B) P

(C) 2P (D) 3P

23. The number of EPR lines observed in the p-dinitro benzene radical anion will
be (I for 14N = 1 and 16O = 0) :

(A) 5 (B) 25

(C) 30 (D) 10

24. Zinc is present at the active site of many hydrolytic enzymes where at least
one water molecule is coordinated to zinc. The activation of this zinc-bound
water to form [Zn-OH]+ depends on the ligand environment around zinc. In
which of the following, the formation of [Zn–OH]+ is more facile ?

(A) (B)

(C) (D)

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25. Crystal field splitting parameter ( ) decreases in the order :

(A) [CoF6]3– > [CoF6]4– > [Co(H2O)6]2+
(B) [Co(H2O)6]2+ > [CoF6]4– > [CoCl6]4–
(C) [CoCl6]4– > [CoCl4]2– > [CoF6]3–
(D) [CoF6]3– > [CoCl6]4– > [CoF6]4–
26. R-S term symbol of Eu2+ (At. No. = 63) is :
(A) 8S7/2 (B) 7F 6
(C) 6H5/2 (D) 7F 0
27. The most widely used flame in Atomic Absorption Spectroscopy is :
(A) Air-coal gas (B) Air-acetylene
(C) Air-LPG (D) N2-acetylene
28. When crystals of Al2O3 are grown from a solution containing a low concentration
of V3+, the vanadium ions occupy octahedral aluminum sites. The crystal has
absorption bands at 17400, 25200 and 34500 cm –1 . The o of this
complex is :
(A) 17400 (B) 25200
(C) 21750 (D) 14500
29. The monomeric complex, Fe (Pyridine)4 Cl2, is tetragonally distorted, trans-
octahedral complex. The 57Fe Mössbauer spectrum of this complex at 297 K
shows doublet with isomer shift, =1.06 mm s–1, and quadrupole splitting,
= 3.08 mm s–1. The spin state of this complex is :
(A) High spin, s = 2
(B) Low spin, s = 0
(C) High spin, s = 5/2

1
(D) Low spin, s =
2
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30. SrF2 solid adopts a fluorite structure. The coordination number of cation and
anion in this structure is :
(A) 6, 6 (B) 6, 4
(C) 8, 4 (D) 4, 2
31. E factor is calculated by kg of waste producted per kg of product. The E factor
for the following conversion is :
2 C6H5I + Cu C6H5 – C6H5 + CuI2
The reaction gave 100% conversion :
(A) 2.0 (B) 4.0
(C) 1.0 (D) 8.3
32. When (R)-Citronellal is treated with anhydrous ZnBr2 the major product formed
is :

(A) (B)

(C) (D)

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33. The major products (P & Q) of the following reactions are :

P Q

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

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34. The major product of the following reaction is :

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

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35. Predict the major product of the following reaction :

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

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36. Predict the major product of the following reaction :

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

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37. The major product of the following reaction is :

(A) (B)

(C) (D)

38. The major products formed in the following reaction is :

(A) M = N =

(B) M = N =

(C) M = N =

(D) M = N =

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39. The correct starting compound for the following conversion is :

i
?
ii
iii

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

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40. The major product of the following reaction is :

(A) (B)

(C) (D)

41. Predict the major product of the following reactions :

(A) I = (B) I =

II = II =

(C) I & II = (D) I & II =

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 MAR- 33223/II—A

42. The major product of the following reaction is :

(A) (B)

(C) (D)

43. Predict the major product of the following reaction :

(A) (B)

(C) (D)

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44. Predict the major product of the following reaction :

(A) (B)

(C) (D)

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45. Which of the following will produce chiral product on treatment with :
(i) O3, MeOH; (ii) H2O2; (iii) Heat (–CO2)

(A) (B)

(C) (D)

46. The correct order for carbonyl stretching frequencies in IR-spectra of the following
compounds is :

(A) III > I > II (B) I > II > III

(C) II > III > I (D) I > III > II

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47. The correct match of compounds given in Column I with spectral data given
in column II is :
Column I Column II
(a) 1, 2-Dichloroethane (i) max 220 nm
(b) 1, 4-Dibromobenzene (ii) Only one singlet at 3.7 in
1H – NMR spectrum

(c) 2-Methyl-1,3-butadiene (iii) Peaks at 234, 236, 238 m/e with

intensity (1 : 2 : 1) in MS-spectrum
(d) Cyclopropane (iv) Absorption at 1815 cm–1 in IR
spectrum
(A) (a–iii), (b–ii), (c–i), (d–iv)
(B) (a–ii), (b–iii), (c–i), (d–iv)
(C) (a–iv), (b–i), (c–ii), (d–iii)
(D) (a–i), (b–iv), (c–iii), (d–ii)
48. The major product of the following reaction is :

(A) (B)

(C) (D)

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49. The major product of the following reaction is :

(A) (B)

(C) (D)

50. Suggest most suitable reagent/condition for the following conversion :

(A) MnO2; CH2Cl2

(B) TEMPO (2.0%); NaOCl (1.25 eq), CH2Cl2

(C) Pyridinium dichromate (PDC); CH2Cl2

(D) Dimethyldioxirane (DMDO); CH2Cl2

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51. The correct reagents for the following conversion are :

(A) Vinyllithium; CuI, THF; (B) Vinyllithium;

(C) Vinylmagnesium; (D) Vinylmagnesium; CoCl2;

52. The major product of the following reaction is :

(A) (B)

(C) (D)

53. Rank the following molecules in decreasing order of basicity :

(A) I > II > III > IV (B) III > IV > II > I
(C) I > III > II > IV (D) III > II > IV > I

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54. Arrange the following intermediates into increasing order of stability :

(A) IV < III < II < I (B) IV < III < I < II
(C) III < IV < II < I (D) I < IV < III < II
55. Identify antiaromatic compound from the following :

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

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56. Which statement is correct for the following four molecules ?

(A) I and II are chiral (B) II and IV are chiral

(C) I, II, III and IV are chiral (D) I and IV are chiral

57. How many geometrical isomers are possible for the following molecule :

(A) 2 (B) 3
(C) 4 (D) 6

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 MAR- 33223/II—A
58. The major product of the following reaction is :

(A) (B)

(C) (D)

59. What is the relationship between Ha and Hb in the product P formed in the
following reaction ?

(A) Diastereotopic (B) Enantiotopic

(C) Homotopic (D) Vicinal

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60. The IUPAC name of the following compound is :

(A) 3-Ethyl-2, 4, 5-trimethyl heptane

(B) 5-Ethyl-3, 4, 6-trimethyl heptane

(C) 3-isopropyl-4, 5-dimethyl heptane

(D) 5-isopropyl-3, 4-dimethyl heptane

61. Which one is the correct expression for zeroth order reaction ?

[A ]t t [A ]t t

(A) – d [A] K 0 dt (B) – d [A] dt

[ A]o o [A ]o o

[A ]t t

(C) – d [A] K 0 (D) – d [A] K 0 dt

[A ]o o

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62. Mechanism for ionic reaction in the light of activated complex theory is written as :

A Z1 + BZ2 (AB) Z1 +Z2

P
and corresponding rate law
d[P] A B K 2 K1
[A] [B]
dt K–1
Activity coefficients
If we hypothetically ‘‘Put-off’’ the charges on reactants, then the portion of
equation,

A. B A B
(A) 1 (B) 0

K 2 K1 K 2 K1
(C) (D) 0
K–1 K–1
63. Which of the following energy surface (diagram) most appropriately represents
gist of activated complex theory ?

(A) A (B) A and C

(C) B (D) D
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64. Collision theory based bimolecular rate constant is given as :

8 kB T
K = NA . d2 e–Ea/RT
µ

Applying this theory to the following gases state reaction,

K1
(1) 2NOCl 2NO + 2Cl

K2
(2) 2ClO Cl2 + O2

The rate constants, K1 and K2 should be in the order of :

(A) K1 > K2 (B) K2 < K1

(C) K1 K2 (D) K1 > K2

65. Concept of electrochemical potential (EMF) is associated to :

(A) half cell

(B) Complete electrochemical cell

(C) Electrochemical reaction at equilibrium

(D) Potential difference of cell

66. Consider the cell

Cd(s)/Cd2+ (1.0M) || Cu2+ (1.0M) | Cu(s)

Voltage of the cell can be raised by :

(A) Raising [Cu2+] or/and decreasing (Cd2+)

(B) Raising [Cu2+] and [Cd2+]

(C) Raising [Cd2+]

(D) Decreasing [Cu2+]

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 MAR- 33223/II—A

67. For the calomel half cell,

Hg(s)/Hg2Cl2 (s)/Cl– (aq.)
Change in electrode potential w.r.t. [Cl–] would look like :

(A) = (A) (B) = (B)

(C) = (C) (D) = (D)
68. Average value of distance of an electron from nucleus in hydrogen atom in
its lowest energy is expressed as :

1 r3 e –2r / a0 dr
(A) <r> = 3 –
a 0

1 *
(B) <r> = r 3 e– r / a0 e – r / a0 dr
3
a 0
2
1 r 3 e–2 r / a0 dr * sin d * d
(C) <r> = 3
a 0 0 0

5
(D) <r> = a
2 o

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2 1 1 d2 z2
69. – + . = E could be a Schrödinger equation
2 me mh dx 2 4 r
for :

(A) A particle in 1-D box problem

(B) Two particles in 2D box problem

(C) Simple harmonic motion between two particles

(D) Two charged particles in 1-D box problem

70. The following function is acceptable as state function over the range (– to + ) :

2
(A) e– x (B) tan x

2
(C) cot x (D) xe– x

71. Apart from X-ray crystallography, the most important method to estimate protein
structure with atomic resolution :

(A) 2-D NMR spectroscopy (B) LC-MS-MS

(C) Circular Dichroism (D) Fluorescence spectroscopy

72. 0.1 Mol of NaOH is added into 250 ml buffer solution. Change in pH is noted
to be 0-2 units. The buffer capacity of buffer(s) is :

(A) = 1 (B) = 2

(C) = 3 (D) = 4

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73. The drift speed of bovine serumalbumin under the electric field is measured
at various pH :

pH 4.1 4.6 5.0 5.7 6.4 7.1

Speed
0.50 0.25 –0.25 –0.7 –0.9 –1.5
µm/s

The isoelectric point of the protein should be, approximately in the range :

(A) 4.1 (B) 5.2

(C) 4.8 (D) 7.0

74. pH of 0.05 M (NH4)2SO4 is (Given : Kb(NH) = 10–5) :

(A) pH = 5 (B) pH = 4

(C) pH = 6 (D) pH = 3

75. Which of the following equations for the pressure of a gas is correct ?

2RT R –RT R
(A) dP = 2 dV + dT (B) dP = 2 dV + dT
(V–b) (V–b) (V–b) (V–b)

2RT R –RT R
(C) dP = 2
dV + 2
dT (D) dP = 2
dV + dT
(V–b) (V–b) (V–b) (V–b)2
76. Which of the following statements is correct regarding standard free energy
change and the equilibrium constant for a mixture of ideal gases ?
(A) Standard free energy change and equilibrium constant are independent
of total pressure and temperature
(B) Both properties depend on total pressure and temperature
(C) Both properties are independent of temperature but depend on total pressure
(D) Both properties depend on temperature but independent of total pressure

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77. Consider an ideal solution of two liquids A and B. If partial vapour pressures
of both liquids are same, then total pressure of the solution is :

PAo PBo 2PAo PBo

(A) (B)
PAo PBo PAo PBo

PAo 2PBo
(C) (D)
PAo PBo PAo PBo

78. For a non-linear triatomic gas, the molar heat capacity is :

(A) 5R (B) 7R

9
(C) 6R (D) R
2

79. For a system with non-degenerate zero energy state and doubly degenerate
upper state (with energy E), the partition function is :

(A) 2e–E/kT (B) 2 e –E/kT

(C) 3e–E/kT (D) 1 2e–E/kT

80. At low temperature, heat capacity of solids at constant volume is proportional

to :

3
1
(A) T3 (B)
T

2
R
(C) (RT)2 (D)
T

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81. The variation of intensities of spectral lines shown in the figure corresponds
to :

(A) (B)

(C) (D)

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82. The selection rule for vibrational Raman spectra is :

(A) v = ±1, ±2, .............. (B) v = 0, ±1, ±2, .............

(C) v = ±1, ±2, ............... (D) v = ±2

83. In rotational fine structure of vibration-electronic transitions of a diatomic

molecule, the band head will appear in R-branch if :

(A) B' < B" (B) B' = B"

(C) B' > B" (D) B' = –B"

84. In electronic spectra of molecules, the vibrational quantum number leading

to convergence of vibrational spectral lines is given by :

1 1
(A) –1 (B) –1
xe we

1 1
(C) –1 (D) –1
2 xe we xe

85. The excess population of nuclear spins in lower state is given by :

nlower nlower nupper

(A) nlower nupper (B) nlower – nupper

nupper – nlower nlower – nupper

(C) nupper nlower (D) nlower nupper

86. Calculate the wavelength of an electron accelerated through a potential of

16 V :

kg.m
(Given : (2 me)½ = 5.4 × 10–25 )
S.V ½
(A) 0.307 nm (B) 0.123 nm
(C) 0.0123 nm (D) 3.07 nm

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87. The first order correction term to the ground state energy of hydrogen like
atom is :
(A) Positive (B) Negative
(C) Zero (D) Can be positive or negative
88. The slater determinant of helium atom is :
1S(2) (2) 1S(1) (1)
1
(A) (1,2) =
2! 1S(2) (2) 1S(1) (1)

1S(1) (1) 1S(2) (2)

1
(B) (1,2) =
2! 1S(1) (1) 1S(2) (2)

1S(1) (1) 1S(2) (2)

–1
(C) (1,2) =
2! 1S(1) (1) 1S(2) (2)

1S(1) (1) 1S(2) (1)

1
(D) (1,2) =
2 1S(1) (2) 1S(2) (2)

89. In the study of solution of a polymer, the plot of versus ‘C’ results into
C
the information of :
(A) Mn as reciprocal of intercept and polymer-solvent interaction constant as
slope
(B) Mn as an intercept and concentration as slope
(C) Mn as the slope and polymer-solvent interaction constant as an intercept
(D) Only Mn as ratio intercept and slope
90. According to Langmuir model :
(I) All adsorption sites are equivalent
(II) Adsorption and desorption are cooperative processes
(III) Probability of adsorption is not affected by occupancy state of adsorption
site
(IV) Only monolayer adsorption
(A) (I), (II) and (III) (B) (I) and (IV)
(C) (II) and (III) (D) (II) and (IV)
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91. Systematic change in max with size in case of semiconductor nanoparticles

is due to the phenomenon :
(A) Surface plasmon resonance (B) Size quantization effect
(C) Nano-effect (D) Band theory
92. The following UV-vis spectra recorded on various sizes of semiconductor
nanoparticles :

The blue shift in the spectra is correlated to :

(A) decrease in size of nanoparticles (B) Increase in size of nanoparticles
(C) Surface plasmon resonance (D) Nothing to do with size
93. According to variation theorem, energy eigenvalue obtained from an approximate
wave function is :
(A) Always equal to Eo (B) Upper bound to Eo
(C) Lower bound to Eo (D) Always positive

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94. The adsorbent which has higher adsorptive power in column chromatography
is :

(A) SiO2 (B) MgO

(C) CaCO 3 (D) Al2O3

95. [BrF4]– has :

(A) Shape similar to SF4 (B) sp3d hybridization

(C) sp3 hybridization (D) sp3d2 hybridization

96. The number of significant figures in the answer of addition (0.6540 + 6.54 +
65.4 + 654) is :

(A) 725 (B) 3

(C) 4 (D) 8

97. The EPR lines predicted for • radical will be (12C; I = O, F, H; I = ½)

(A) 6 (B) 0

(C) 3 (D) 2

98. Drug metabolism occurs mainly in :

(A) Liver (B) Brain
(C) Spleen (D) Kidney
99. Catalytic converters are used in reduction and oxidation on reactions to reduce
harmful emissions. The oxidation of CO and hydrocarbons was carried out by
catalyst consisting the following metals :
(A) Pt, Rh (B) Pt, Pd
(C) Co, Rh (D) Co, Ni
100. Which one of the following molecules is an anti-fungal agent ?
(A) Sulfa drug (B) Amphotericin-B
(C) Oseltamivir (Tamiflu) (D) Remdesivir

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