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The document outlines the instructions for candidates taking the Chemical Sciences Paper-II examination, including guidelines for filling out the OMR sheet, verifying the question booklet, and rules against unfair practices. It consists of 100 multiple-choice questions, each carrying two marks, and emphasizes the importance of using a black ballpoint pen while prohibiting electronic devices. Candidates must return the original OMR sheet and are allowed to keep the question booklet and a duplicate OMR sheet after the exam.

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0% found this document useful (0 votes)
50 views28 pages

Set Paper

The document outlines the instructions for candidates taking the Chemical Sciences Paper-II examination, including guidelines for filling out the OMR sheet, verifying the question booklet, and rules against unfair practices. It consists of 100 multiple-choice questions, each carrying two marks, and emphasizes the importance of using a black ballpoint pen while prohibiting electronic devices. Candidates must return the original OMR sheet and are allowed to keep the question booklet and a duplicate OMR sheet after the exam.

Uploaded by

Asim Mushtaq
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
Download as PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd
You are on page 1/ 28

26/2024

Roll No.
(Write Roll Number from left side
exactly as in the Admit Card) Signature of Invigilator

Question Booklet Series X


PAPER–II Question Booklet No.

Subject Code : 12

CHEMICAL SCIENCES
Time : 2 Hours Maximum Marks: 200
Instructions for the Candidates

1. Write your Roll Number in the space provided on the top of this page as well as on the OMR Sheet provided.
2. At the commencement of the examination, the Question Booklet will be given to you. In the first 5 minutes,
you are requested to open the booklet and verify it:
(i) To have access to the Question Booklet, tear off the paper seal on the edge of this cover page.
(ii) Faulty booklet, if detected, should be got replaced immediately by a correct booklet from the invigilator
within the period of 5 (five) minutes. Afterwards, neither the Question Booklet will be replaced nor any
extra time will be given.
(iii) Verify whether the Question Booklet Number is identical with OMR Sheet Number; if not, the full set
is to be replaced.
(iv) After this verification is over, the Question Booklet Series and Question Booklet Number should be
entered on the OMR Sheet.
3. This paper consists of One Hundred (100) multiple-choice type questions. All the questions are compulsory.
Each question carries two marks.
4. Each Question has four alternative responses marked: A B C D . You have to darken the circle as
indicated below on the correct response against each question.
Example: A B C D , where C is the correct response.
5. Your responses to the questions are to be indicated correctly in the OMR Sheet. If you mark your response
at any place other than in the circle in the OMR Sheet, it will not be evaluated.
6. Rough work is to be done at the end of this booklet.
7. If you write your Name, Phone Number or put any mark on any part of the OMR Sheet, except in the space
allotted for the relevant entries, which may disclose your identity, or use abusive language or employ any other
unfair means, such as change of response by scratching or using white fluid, you will render yourself liable
to disqualification.
8. Do not tamper or fold the OMR Sheet in any way. If you do so, your OMR Sheet will not be evaluated.
9. You have to return the Original OMR Sheet to the invigilator at the end of the examination compulsorily and
must not carry it with you outside the Examination Hall. You are, however, allowed to carry question booklet
and duplicate copy of OMR Sheet after completion of examination.
10. Use only Black Ball point pen.
11. Use of any calculator, mobile phone, electronic devices/gadgets etc. is strictly prohibited.
12. There is no negative marks for incorrect answer.
32940 [ Please Turn Over ]
The Question Booklet
is encrypted with
QR code for
security purpose.
X–3 12

CHEMICAL SCIENCES
1. A Fe(II) compound which undergoes spin- 4. The exchange capacity increases with
crossover on varying the temperature, increase of pH of
is studied by Mossbauer spectroscopy. (A) cation exchange resin
Which of the following statements is (B) anion exchange resin
(C) both cation exchange resin and anion
correct for this study?
exchange resin
(A) It shows six-line spectra below the (D) exchange capacity does not depend
spin-transition temperature on pH
(B) It shows one-line spectra above the
transition temperature
(C) It shows temperature dependent two
5. Which of the following statements are
line spectra below the transition
correct?
temperature
(D) It shows temperature dependent two (i) The 3rd ionization energy of Eu is
line spectra above the transition less than that of Gd.
temperature (ii) Ce can exist both in 3+ and 4+
oxidation states.
2. The results of analysis of a substance (iii) Yb can exist both in 3+ and 4+
X by two persons are given below: oxidation states.
Person 1 : 4·10, 4·12, 4·09 (% of X) (iv) Most stable oxidation state of U is 6+.
Person 2 : 4·08, 4·20, 4·24 (% of X)
(A) (i) and (iv)
Considering the data given above, which of
the following Statements is correct? Content of X (B) (i) and (ii)
is known to be 4·18% (C) (iii) and (iv)
(A) Result of person 1 is more accurate (D) (ii) and (iv)
but less precise compared to person 2
(B) Result of person 1 is more accurate 6. For which of the following pairs of
and more precise compared to lanthanide, the metallic radii are considerably
person 2 higher than the others?
(C) Result of person 1 is less accurate but (A) Eu, Yb
more precise compared to person 2 (B) Eu, Gd
(D) Result of person 1 is less accurate and (C) Ce, Eu
less precise compared to person 2
(D) Ce, Yb

3. In cyclic voltammetry, for a


7. Decomposition temperature of CaCO3 in
reversible reaction, the relationship between peak
thermogravimetric analysis will be highest in
current (ip) and scan rate (ν) is:
dynamic atmosphere of
(A) ip α ν
2 (A) N2
(B) ip α ν
(B) CO2
(C) i p α ν (C) air
(D) ip is independent ν (D) O2

[ Please Turn Over ]


12 X–4

8. Which of the following statements are true 10. Rate constants for base hydrolysis of some
for Lanthanide? octahedral complexes follow the order:
(i) The observed magnetic moment of 2+ 2+
(A) [Co(NH3)5 NO3] > [Co(NH3)5I] >
Sm3+ is higher than that calculated 2+ 2+
[Co(NH3)5 Cl] > [Co(NH3)5F]
from spin-orbit coupling
2+ 2+
(ii) The observed magnetic moment of (B) [Co(NH 3) 5 F] > [Co(NH3) 5 Cl] >
2+ 2+
Gd 3+ is nearly equal to the [Co(NH3)5I] > [Co(NH3)5NO3]
calculated spin-only value 2+
(C) [Co(NH3)5Cl] > [Co(NH3)5F] >
2+

2+ 2+
(iii) The observed magnetic moment of [Co(NH3)5I] > [Co(NH3)5NO3]
Eu3+ at room temperature is lower 2+ 2+
(D) [Co(NH3)5NO3] > [Co(NH3)5F] >
than that calculated from spin-orbit 2+ 2+
[Co(NH3)5Cl] > [Co(NH3)5 I]
coupling
(iv) The observed magnetic moment of
Ce3+ is nearly equal to the calculated
spin-only value (a) (b) (c)
11. The formal charges on N , N and N in
(A) (i) and (iv)
(a) (b) (c)
(B) (ii) and (iii) the azide anion, [N = N = N] are respectively
(C) (i), (ii) and (iv)
(A) –1, –1, +1
(D) (i) and (ii)
(B) +1, –1, –1
(C) –1, +1, –1
(D) +1, –2, 0

12. Pyrosilicates contain the discrete


silicate ion:
9. Which of the following is/are true about 2n–
ferrocene? (A) (SiO3)n
6–
(i) It is diamagnetic (B) Si2 O7
6–
(ii) Its dipole moment is zero (C) Si3 O9
6–
(iii) Kealy and Pauson synthesised (D) Si4 O11
ferrocene from C5H5 MgBr and
FeCl3
(iv) Kealy and Pauson synthesised
13. Number of isomeric derivatives possible
ferrocene from C6H6 and freshly
for the neutral closo-carborane, C2 B10 H12 are:
reduced Fe at 300°C.
(A) 2
(A) (iii) & (iv)
(B) (i), (ii) & (iv) (B) 3
(C) (i), (iii) & (iv) (C) 4
(D) (ii), (iii) & (iv) (D) 5
X–5 12

14. Select the correct statement(s) related to 17. The number of EPR lines observed for
nuclear reactor: napthalene radical and napthalene negative radical
(1) In fast reactors, the moderator is are respectively:
efficient and needs no enriched fuel (A) 8, 25
(2) Neutrons in PHWR (B) 128, 128
(Pressurised Heavy Water Reactor) (C) 25, 128
needs no enriched fuel (D) 128, 25
(3) Water at high pressure is very often
used as coolant
(4) No moderator is used as the fission of
239
Pu goes on by both the fast and slow
neutrons 18. Which of the following pairs is not isolobal?
(A) only (4)
(A) Mn(CO)5 , O
(B) only (1), (2) & (3)
(B) Mn(CO)5 , Cl
(C) only (2), (3) & (4)
(C) Fe(CO)4 , O
(D) only (3) & (4)
(D) Mn(CO)5 , CH3

15. The 19F NMR spectrum of ClF3 at 19. IUPAC name of


low temperature is observed as
⎣ 4 4 5 5 4 ⎣ {
⎡ Fe Cu ( C H ) ⎡( CH ) N ⎤ C H
3 2 ⎦ 5 4 } 4
⎤ is

(A) a doublet
(A) t e t r a k i s [ ( d i m e t h y l a m i n o )
(B) a singlet
cyclopentadienyl]tetrakis
(C) a doublet and a triplet (cyclopentadyenyl) tetra iron tetra
(D) a doublet of doublet and a doublet of copper
triplet (B) tetrakis [(dimethyl amino) cyclo
penta dienyl] tetrakis
(cyclopentadyenyl) tetra copper
16. In principle, how many 1H NMR singals tetra iron
you can expect from the mer-isomer of CoL3?
(C) tetrakis (cyclopentadyenyl) tetrakis
Where LH = NO
[(dimethyl amino)
OH
cyclopentadyenyl] tetra copper
tetra iron
(D) tetrakis (cyclopentadyenyl) tetrakis
(A) 6 [(dimethyl amino)
cyclopentadyenyl] tetra iron tetra
(B) 7
copper
(C) 18
(D) 21

[ Please Turn Over ]


12 X–6

20. Regarding the agostic interaction, 24. In which of the following species, sulphur
C—H -----Ir observed in [Ir (Ph3P)3 Cl], following is not sp3 hybridised?
observations are recorded — (A) SO4
2–

(1) Increased acid character of C—H


(B) H2S
(2) νC–H in IR spectrum shifts to higher
(C) SF4
wave number
(3) Upfield shift of C—H proton in (D) SF2
1
H NMR
Which of the observation(s) given
above is/are correct?
25. The correct order of enthalpy of
(A) (1) & (2) hydration for the fomation of following hexa-
(B) (2) & (3) hydrate species is
2+ 2+
(C) (1) & (3) (A) [V(H 2 O) 6 ] > [Cr(H 2 O) 6 ] >
2+
(D) (3) only [Mn(H2O)6]
2+ 2+
(B) [Mn(H 2 O) 6 ] > [V(H 2 O) 6 ] >
2+
21. Which of the following species containing [Cr(H2O)6]
mercury is most toxic? 2+
(C) [V(H 2 O) 6 ] > [Mn(H 2 O) 6 ]
2+
>
2+
(A) Hg-metal [Cr(H2O)6]
2+ 2+
(B) Hg2 Cl2 (D) [Mn(H 2 O) 6 ] > [Cr(H 2 O) 6 ] >
2+
(C) HgCl2 [V(H2O)6]

(D) CH3 Hg+

26. The correct electronic


22. The ground state term symbol of Mn4+ ion 2+
configuration of Gd is (Atomic number of
is
4 Gd = 64)
(A) F9/2
6 1 1
4 (A) [Xe] 4f 5d 6s
(B) D9/2
7 1
4
(C) F3/2 (B) [Xe] 4f 5d
4 7 1
(D) F5/2 (C) [Xe] 4f 6s
6 2
(D) [Xe] 4f 6s
– +
23. The ionic radii of Y and X are
2·35Å and 1.27Å, respectively. The coordination 27. Example of an inverse spinel among the
+
number of X in the ionic compound XY is following is
(A) 4 (A) Mg Al2 O4
(B) 3 (B) Zn Fe2 O4
(C) 8 (C) NiFe2 O4
(D) 6 (D) Mn Cr2 O4
X–7 12

28. If M is a transition metal, the correct order 32. Lewis acidity of the following compounds
of CO stretching frequency is follows the order:
(A) C O > [ M ( C O ) 6 ] > [ ( M e 3 N ) 3 (A) Me3 SnF < Me3 SnCl < Me3 SnBr

M (CO)3] > M (CO)6] (B) Me3 SnCl < Me3 SnF < Me3 SnBr
(B) C O > [ ( M e 3 N ) 3 M ( C O ) 3 ] > (C) Me3 SnBr < Me3 SnCl < Me3 SnF

[M (CO)6] > [M (CO)6]
(D) Me3 SnBr < Me3 SnF < Me3 SnCl
(C) C O < [ ( M e 3 N ) 3 M ( C O ) 3 ] <

[M (CO)6] < [M (CO)6] 33. A penta-coordinated complex of
(D) C O > [ ( M e 3 N ) 3 M ( C O ) 3 ] > Cu(II) has trigonal bipyramidal

[M (CO)6] > [M (CO)6] geometry. The orbital that has an
unpaired electron is
(A) d x 2 − y 2
29. The metal ions involved in the nitrogenases (B) d xz
are
(C) d yz
(A) Mg and Mn
(B) Fe and Cu (D) d z 2

(C) Fe and Mo + +
34. The shapes of Br3 and I5 are
(D) Fe and Zn (A) linear and square pyramidal,
respectively.
(B) bent and square planar,
30. The reaction respectively.
165°C
(dppe)Pt(CH3)4 ⎯⎯⎯→ (dppe)Pt(CH3)2 + C2H6 (C) trigonal planar and tetrahedral,
respectively.
is an example of
(D) angular and see saw, respectively.
(A) reductive elimination
(B) insertion 35. Plot of kinetic energy of ejected electrons
as a function of the wavelength of the incident
(C) oxidative coupling
radiation for the photoelectric effect for sodium
(D) oxidative elimination metal gives a straight line with slope and intercept
respectively as
(A) work function of the metal and
31. The pH at which Mg(OH)2 will be Planck’s constant.
–4
precipitated from a 10 M solution of Mg (ClO4)2
–12 (B) Planck’s constant and wrok
is [given, KSp of Mg(OH)2 = 9×10 ] closest to
function of the metal.
(A) 13·5
(C) threshold frequency of the metal
(B) 6·5 and Planck’s constant.
(C) 10·5 (D) inverse of Planck’s constant and
(D) 4·5 work function of the metal.

[ Please Turn Over ]


12 X–8

39. A compound Ax By has a cubic structure


⎡d ⎤
36. Commutator ⎢ , x ⎥ is equal to with A atoms occupying all corners of the cube as
⎣ dx ⎦ well as all the face centre positions. B atoms
occupy all the tetrahedral voids. The value of x and
d
(A) (1 − x ) y respectively
dx
(A) 4, 4
d d
(B) +x (B) 4, 8
dx dx
(C) 8, 4
d (D) 4, 2
(C)
dx
(D) 1

40. The molecular partition function for a


system in which the energy levels are equispaced
by ∈, is
37. Molecular Orbital Theoretic and 1
Valence Bond Theoretic picture of H2 (A) βε
1+ e
molecule describes H2 respectively as
1
(A) 50-50 ionic and covalent; fully (B) βε
covalent 1− e
(B) fully ionic; 50-50 ionic and covalent 1
(C)
(C) fully covalent; 50-50 ionic and 1 + e− βε
covalent 1
(D) 50-50 ionic and covalent; fully ionic (D)
1 − e − βε

41. The following statement about a potential


38. Lattice parameter of an element,
energy curve (PEC) for an electronic state of a
stabilized in a FCC structure is a.
molecule is WRONG.
The atomic radius of the element is
(A) PEC results from Born-
(A) a / 2
Oppenheimer approximation.
(B) a / 2
(B) Potential in PEC is the potential
(C) 2a under which the nuclei move.
(C) Potential in PEC is for electrons.
(
(D) a / 2 2 ) (D) PECs may cross.
X–9 12

42. A particular reaction may take place with or 45. Following two figures give the sketches for
without catalyst. In comparison to the uncatalysed changes in two thermodynamic properties for
reaction, for the catalysed reaction at phase transitions at temperature T = Tt :
the same temperature μ (i) V (ii)
(A) the value of equilibrium constant
(Keq) increases
(B) the values of both the forward rate
constant (kf) and the backward rate
Tt T Tt T
constant (k–f) increase but (kf/k–f)
remains unchanged Choose the correct option—
(C) the value of keq decreases (A) Both of (i) and (ii) are for 1st order
(D) the values of both kf and k–f increase, phase transition
and (kf/k–f) changes (B) Both of (i) and (ii) are 2nd order phase
transition
(C) (i) is for 1st order and (ii) is for 2nd
order phase transition
43. A carnot engine operating between (D) (i) is for 2nd order and (ii) is for 1st
two reservoirs at 27°C and 127°C, for order phase transition
every 1000 J of heat absorbed from the
reservoir will produce work to the extent of 46. For the consecutive first order reaction
(A) –500 J k
→ B ⎯⎯→ C , if k' >> k
k′
A ⎯⎯
(B) –1000 J
the concentration of C at any time, t can
(C) –250 J
be written as (‘A 0’ is the initial
(D) –330 J concentration of ‘A’)
–k't
(A) Ao [1–exp ]
–k't
(B) Ao exp
–kt
(C) Ao exp
–kt
(D) Ao [1–exp ]
44. When 50 ml of ethanol is mixed with 50 ml
of water 47. A solution of K3 [Fe(C2 O4)3] in which Fe3+
(A) the entropy of the solution increases is reduced and the oxalate ion is oxidited
but the volume contracts photochemically at 313 nm with a quantum yield of
(B) the entropy of the solution increases 2, the intensity, Io needed to produce
3+
and the volume expands 1·2 × 10–5 mol of Fe over a period of 20 min is
–7 –1
(C) the entropy of the solution decreases (A) 1 × 10 mol s
–8 –1
and the volume contracts (B) 5 × 10 mol s
–5 –1
(D) the entropy of the solution decreases (C) 1 × 10 mol s
–7 –1
but the volume expands (D) 5 × 10 mol s

[ Please Turn Over ]


12 X–10

48. The rate constant for a reaction is found to 51. Characters of one of the irreducible
decrease with increase in temperature. Such a representations (Γi) of Td cubic group is given
reaction below:
(A) is impossible. Td E 8C3 3C2 6S4 6σd
(B) is an elementary reaction. Ti 3 0 –1 1 –1
(C) demonstrates inadequacy of Dimension of the Γi representation is
Arrhenius rate law.
(A) 1
(D) is a multistep reaction. (B) 5
(C) 3
(D) 2

49. Coordinates of a general point (P) of a 52. Character table of C3v point group is given
molecule is [x1, y1, z1]. σ d operation transforms P below, along with characters of Γ reducible
representation:
into P' ( σ d is a dihedral plane of symmetry which
contains Z axis and bisects second and fourth C3v E 2C3 3σv
quadrants). The coordinates of P' is A1 1 1 1 Z
(A) [–x1, –y1, –z1] A2 1 1 –1 Rz
E 2 –1 0 (x, y) (Rx, Ry)
(B) [–y1, –x1, z1]
Γ 7 1 –3
(C) [x1, –z1, y1]
Number of times the A 1 irreducible
(D) [x1, z1, –y1]
representation appears in Γ reducible
representation is
(A) 0
(B) 3
50. C n (Z) σ (xy) = σ (xy) C n (Z) (C) 2
Above equality holds because, (D) 1

(A) Cn(Z) transforms coordinates of the


general point in xy plane but σ(xy) 53. The ground state term symbol of the
transforms along Z axis diatomic molecule with electronic configuration,
(B) σ(xy) transforms coordinates of
(1σ g ) (1σ u )2 ( 2 σ g ) ( 2σ u )2 (1π u )1 (1π u )1 , is
2 2

the general point in yz plane and


1
Cn(Z) transforms along Z axis +
(A) Σg
(C) σ(xy) transforms coordinates of the
3 –
general point in xy plane and Cn(Z) (B) Σg
transforms along Y axis 1 –
(D) Cn(Z) transforms coordinates of the
(C) Σg
general point along Z axis and σ(xy) 3 +
transforms in xy plane (D) Σg
X–11 12

54. In a typical Raman spectra of a molecule 57. Consider the following equiliberium for
both stokes and anti-stokes lines are seen generally. water:
(A) Stokes lines appear at lower ZZX H + +OH –
H 2 O YZZ
frequencies with higher intensities –14
compared to anti-stokes lines If ionic product of water is 1·0 × 10 , what
is the value of the equilibrium constant of the
(B) Stokes lines appear at higher
above process?
frequencies with lower intensities –14
compared to anti-stokes lines (A) 1·0 × 10
–16
(C) Anti-stokes lines appear at lower (B) 1·8 × 10
–7
frequencies with lower intensities (C) 1·8 × 10
compared to stokes lines (D) 1·0 × 10
–16

(D) Anti-stokes lines appear at higher


frequencies with higher intensities
compared to stokes lines

58. The Langmuir theory of unimolecular


55. In ethyl iodide the coupling constant adsorption of a gas on solid surface is valid at
between protons of CH3 and CH2 is (A) low pressures and low temperatures
7·5 Hz. The chemical shifts of CH3 and CH2 are
(B) low pressures and high
183 Hz and 110 Hz respectively. These values are
temperatures
obtained when recorded in a 60 MHz NMR
spectrometer. The coupling constant and the (C) high pressures and low
chemical shifts when measured in a 100 MHz temperatures
spectrometer will respectively, be (D) high pressures and high
(A) 7·5 Hz, 183 Hz, 110 Hz temperatures

(B) 7·5 Hz, 305 Hz, 183 Hz


(C) 12·5 Hz, 305 Hz, 183 Hz
59. The observed optical rotation value, when
(D) 12·5 Hz, 183 Hz, 110 Hz plane polarized sodium D light passes through a
solution of an optically active compound in

15 13
56. O and N are produced in air
chloroform ([α ]
T
λ )
= +37·5° containing 15g per

when γ-ray from lightening knocks off 100 ml, placed in a polarimeter cell of length 10 cm
(A) a proton from both O and
16 14
N. is:

(B) a neutron from both O and


16 14
N. (A) 5·6°

(C) an electron from both O and


16 14
N. (B) 56°
16
(D) a proton from O and a neutron from (C) 28°
14
N. (D) 11·2°

[ Please Turn Over ]


12 X–12

60. For ideally dilute solution 63. The selection rule for a rotational transition
(A) both the solute and solvent obey in a symmetric top molecule is
Henry’s law (A) Δ J = 0, ± 1, Δ M = ± 1, Δ K = 0
(B) both the solute and solvent obey (B) Δ J = ± 1, Δ M = 0, ± 1, Δ K = 0
Raoult’s law (C) Δ J = 0, ± 1, Δ M = 0, ± 1, Δ K = 1
(C) the solute obeys Raoult’s law and the (D) Δ J = ± 1, Δ M = ± 1, Δ K = 1
solvent obeys Henry’s law
(D) the solute obeys Henry’s law and the
64. The potential difference between
solvent obeys Raoult’s law
two hydrogen electrodes of the
following cell is 0.056V at 25°C. Pt | H 2
+ +
( 1 a t m ) , H (m = 0·01) || H
(m = 0·1) | H2 (1 atm) | pt
The activity coefficient (γ) of 0·01 m HCl
is 0·9. The γ for 0·1m HCl is
61. Variationally optimized ground state wave
(Given, 56/59 = log 8·89)
function and the corresponding energy are such
that (A) 0·8
(B) 1·0
(A) their accuracy is to the same extent
(C) 0·7
(B) the wave function is more accurate (D) 1·1
in comparison to the energy
(C) the energy is more accurate in
65. C2v E C2 σv (xz) σv'(yz)
comparison to the wave function
A1 1 1 1 1 Z
(D) the energy is as accurate as the
other properties A2 1 1 –1 –1 Rz
B1 1 –1 1 –1 x, Ry
B2 1 –1 –1 1 y, Rx
The ground state of NO2 is of A1 Symmetry.
The component of transition dipolemoment integral
will not vanish if following conditions prevail.
62. ICN dissociates at 306 nm with a Identify the WRONG statement:
quantum yield of 0.1. If 1% of the (A) x polarized light causes transition
incident light is absorbed by the gas to B1 state
14
and the number of photons incident is 2 × 10 , the
(B) y polarized light causes transition
number of ICN molecules dissociated will be
to B2 state
10
(A) 2 × 10
(C) z polarized light causes transition
12
(B) 2 × 10 to A1 state
11
(C) 2 × 10 (D) Unpolarized light causes transition
13
(D) 2 × 10 to A2 state
X–13 12

66. The critical micelle concentration (CMC) 68. The major product formed in the following
of a surfactant, cetyltrimethyl ammonium bromide reaction sequence is
(CTAB) in aqueous medium is 0·80
mM at 25°C. What will be the MeO
concentrations of cetyltrimethyl
i) mCPBA, CH2Cl2 , 0°C
ammonium ions (CTA+) and bromide ions in
ii) NaOH
solution if CTAB concentration is increased to iii) H3 O+
1·60 mM at same temperature?
+ –
O
(A) CTA : 1·6 mM; Br : 1·6 mM
+ –
(B) CTA : < 1·6 mM; Br : < 0·8 mM OH
+ –
(C) CTA : > 0·8 mM; Br : > 0·8 mM
+ – OMe
(D) CTA : 0·8 mM; Br : > 0·8 mM (A)

CO2 H

CO2 H

OMe
(B)

OH

MeO
O
(C)

67. For the reaction C(s) + MeO


CO2(g) → 2CO(g) given ΔH = 200 kJ
–1 –1 –1
mol , ΔS = 200 Jk mol , is this (D)
reaction spontaneous at 300 K? What is the value
of free energy change?
O
–1 O
(A) yes, – 140 kJ mol
–1
(B) no, 140 kJ mol
–1
(C) no, 0 kJ mol
–1
(D) yes, –400 kJ mol

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12 X–14

69. The major product of the following reaction 71. The absolute configuration at the two chiral
sequence is centres of (–) Camphor is
H
Me

i) 9-BBN (1 equiv)
ii) H2O2 /NaOH 1

O
H
H
4
Me
(A) (A) 1R, 4R
OH
(B) 1R, 4S
H
H (C) 1S, 4R
(D) 1S, 4S
Me
(B)

H OH 72. The major product of the following reaction


H Me sequence is
O
OMe
(C) OH i) NaNH2/benzene
O ii) H2O, HCl

H CO2 Me
H Me HO

OH
(D)
(A)
CO2Me
H

70. Increasing order of acidity of the marked


‘H’ of the following compound is
(B)
H CO2Me

H
H
(I) (II) (III) (C)
O O
(A) III > II > I (B) I > III > II
(C) II > III > I (D) II > I > III
(D)
X–15 12

73. The major product formed in the following 76. The major product of the following
reaction is photochemical reaction is

N2H4, O2 O O
Cu(II)


Ph N

(A) (B) CO2Et

Ph
OH

(C) (D) (A)

O N

74. The two benzylic hydrogens HA and HB in CO2Et

the Compounds I and II are


Ph
HA HA OH
HB HB

N N
Ph Ph (B)
CO2Et
O N
I II

(A) diastereotopic in I and enantiotopic in II. O


OH
(B) enantiotopic in I and diastereotopic in II.
(C) diastereotopic in both I and II. (C) N
Ph
(D) enantiotopic in both I and II.

CO2 Et

75. The major product of the following O


OH
photochemical reaction is:
Me
(D)
Me
hν Ph N
CO2Et
Me
Ph
Me Ph
Me
Me Me
Me
(A) (B) Ph
Me Me Ph
Ph Me Me
Ph
Me Ph Ph
Me

(C) Me Me
Ph (D) Me
Me
Me Me
Ph

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12 X–16

77. The major product of the following reaction 78. An organic compound with molecular
is formula C9H11NO2 exhibits the following spectral
data:
Cl IR (cm–1): 1708
Bu 3SnH 1
H NMR (CDCl 3 ): δ 7·42 (dt,1H),
N O AlBN, Toluene
reflux 7·35 (dd, 1H), 7·19 (t, 1H), 6·84 (dd, 1H), 4·30
Ph (q, 2H), 3·80 (bs, 2H), 1·41 (t, 3H)
13
C NMR (CDCl3): δ 167, 147, 131, 129,
120, 119, 116, 61, 14
(A) The structure of the compound is

O O
N O

Ph NH2
(A)
(B)

N
O O
Ph

(C) (B)

N O
NH2
Ph

(D) O NH2
O
(C)

Ph
O

O NH2

(D)
O
X–17 12

79. The correct product of the following reaction 81. The major product of the following reaction
is is
SiMe 3
SnCl4 O
MeO
Rh (PPh3)3 Cl
H2, benzene
OMe

(A) (B)

O O
OMe OMe
(A) (B)

(C) (D)

OMe
MeO
OMe
O OH

(C) (D)

80. The product of the following reaction


sequence is OH

i) CH2I2 /Zn
ii) CrO3
iii) Li/NH3

R(+)-Cyclohexenol

O O

CH3
(A) (B)
CH3 H

H
O O

(C) (D) H

H CH3

CH3

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12 X–18

82. The outcome (Y) of the followig reaction 83. The major product of the following reaction
sequence is sequence is

CO2Me i) Ni (OTf)
+ Ph 2
NH CO Me ii) hν
2

NHMe Ph
O
2 equiv. BuLi Ph
[X] [Y]
THF/TMEDA (A)
OMe N
Ph
O

CO2Me
CO2Me
(A) O

Ph Ph
MeO (B) CO2 Me
N
Ph
CO2Me
Ph O
Ph
O
MeO2C CO2Me

(B)
(C)
N
Ph
OMe

O
Ph

(C) O
(D)
MeO N

Ph Ph CO2Me
MeO2C
O
MeO

(D) O

Ph Ph
X–19 12

84. The product [Y] of the followig reaction 85. The major product formed in the following
sequence is reaction is
O

O
+
– S DMSO H+
+ Ph2 X Y
25°C

O
(A) (A) H
O

(B) H

(B)

O (C)

(D)

(C)
O

(D) O

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12 X–20

86. The correct structure of the product in the 87. The product formed in more than 50% in
following reaction sequence is the following reaction is
CO2Me
Ph CO2H
i. Zn LiAlH4
Br ii. PhCHO
Ph

O OH
(A) Ph

(A)
Ph
Ph
O

Ph OH
(B) O
(B)
Ph

Ph
O Ph

(C)
O Ph
(C)
Ph
Ph
O (D)
Ph

O
(D)

Ph
X–21 12

88. The reaction of ‘X’ with diazomethane 89. The relative rates of acetolysis of the
produces the major product: following norbornane derivatives are
HO OH H OTs H OTs TsO H

HO O
O
I II III
[X]
HO
(A) III < II < I
HO OMe (B) II < I < III
(C) III < I < II
(A) HO O (D) I < III < II
O

HO

HO OH

(B) HO O
O

MeO

MeO OMe

(C) HO O
O

HO

MeO OH

HO O
O

(D)
HO

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12 X–22

90. The major product formed in the following 91. The correct order of reactivity of the
reaction is substrates in the following reaction is
CN
Me Me O
Cl Me
O
Me
OMe
OH
AgBF 4 O

HCl

O
CN
R R

(A) I : R=H
II : R = OMe
III : R = NO2

(A) I > II > III


CN
(B) III > II > I
O
(C) I > III > II
(B) (D) II > I > III

CN
O

(C)

O
CN

(D)
X–23 12

92. The major product in the following reaction 93. The symmetry point group of the following
is molecule is

Co 2(CO)8
Δ

R (A) D8d (B) D4h


(C) D8h (D) S4

(A) O

94. The product [Y] formed in the following


R
reaction sequence is
HO
Me
(B) O
O Heat [Y]
[X]
Hg (OAc)2
O ref lux
R H
CH2CHO
Me
Me

(C) O
(A)
O
H
R
CH2CHO
Me
Me
(D) O
(B)
O
R
H

Me
CH2CHO

(C)
O
H
CH2CHO
Me

(D)
O
H

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12 X–24

95. The following molecule is chiral due to the 97. The requisite condition to accomplish the
presence of (CH2)8 following transformation is

CH2 CH2
Cl

CH3 CH3 CH3 CH3


O O
(A) i. Light (B) i. Heat
ii. Heat ii. Light
Cl (C) Only Light (D) Only heat
(A) Chiral centre (B) Chiral axis
(C) Chiral plane (D) helicity

96. The major product [Y] formed in the


following reaction sequence is
98. The actual product formed in the following
Me OTf
Me H cycloaddition reaction is
Me3Sn SiMe3 BF . OEt2
[X] 3 [Y]
Pd (PPh 3)4/CO Toluene, rt
Δ
+ O
Me

Me O
Me
H H

(A)
(A) O

Me H
Me O
Me
H H
O
(B)
(B)

Me H

Me O
Me
H

(C)

(C)
Me
O
Me O
Me
H H
(D)
O
(D)
Me H
X–25 12

99. The major product formed in the following 100. In the following reaction, the scrambling of
epoxidation reaction is deuterium occurs due to
H
D D
D 230°C
D
OH D D
H

VO (acac)2 (A) [1, 3] – Sigmatropic shift


CO2Me t
BuOOH (B) [1, 5] – Sigmatropic shift

OH
(C) both [1, 3]- and [1, 5] – Sigmatropic
shift
(D) [1, 7] – Sigmatropic shift
CO2Me
(A)

OH

CO2Me
(B)

OH

CO2Me
(C)
O

OH

CO2Me
(D)
O

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12 X–26

Space for Rough Work


X–27 12

Space for Rough Work

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12 X–28

Space for Rough Work

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