FREE STUDY MATERIAL FOR

JUDICIARY
RAJASTHAN TRIAL MOCK

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Free Study Material for Judiciary
Rajasthan Trial Mock

1- Under section 167 of the Evidence Act, the improper admission or rejection of
evidence:

1) may be ground of itself for a new trial or reversal of any decision in any case
2) shall not be ground of itself for a new trial or reversal of any decision in any case
3) shall not be ground of itself for a new trial but may be a reversal of any decision
in any case
4) may not be a ground of itself for a new trial but may be a reversal of any decision
in any case

2- A is accused of a crime committed by him in Calcutta. He produces a letter written by

himself and dated at Lahore on that day, bearing the Lahore postmark of that day.
Applying Section 21 of the Evidence Act which of the following can be true?

1) The statement in the date of letter is admissible, because if A were dead, it would
be admissible under section 27 clause 2
2) The statement in the date of letter is admissible, because if A were dead, it would
be admissible under section 29 clause 2
3) The statement in the date of letter is admissible, because if A were dead, it would
be admissible under section 34 clause 2
4) The statement in the date of letter is admissible, because if A were dead, it would
be admissible under section 32 clause 2

3- As per Section 146 of IEA, what is the objective of the questions asked in
cross-examination 1. To test the veracity of the witness 2. To shake his credit by injuring
his character. 3. To discover who he is and what his condition is in life. Select the correct
option -

1) Only 2
2) 1 & 3
3) 1, 2 & 3
4) None of the above

4- Consider the following :-

Statement 1: A prosecutes B for theft, and wishes the Court to believe that B admitted
the theft to C.
Statement 2: B wishes the Court to believe that, at the time in question, he was
elsewhere. Decide, on whom does the burden of proof lie and what has to be proved -

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1) The burden of proof lies only on B and he has to prove that he did not make the
admission to C.
2) A must prove the admission and B must prove that he was elsewhere.
3) The burden of proof lies only on A and he has to prove that B was in town, at the
time in question.
4) A must prove the admission and B must prove that he did not admit the theft to
C

5- A school teacher, for the purpose of enforcing discipline, inflicts moderate

punishment upon a pupil aged about 11 years. In this situation, the school teacher is:

1) Entitled to claim defence under Section 87

2) Entitled to claim defence under Section 89
3) Entitled to claim defence under Section 90
4) Guilty of the offence as defined under Section 319 (Simple hurt) read with
Section 339 (Wrongful restraint)

6- B abets the commission of a robbery by A, a police-officer, whose duty it is to prevent

that offence. The robbery be not committed.Here:-

1) B is liable to the longest term of imprisonment provided for the offence of

robbery, and also to fine
2) B is liable to one-half of the longest term of imprisonment provided for the
offence of robbery
3) B is liable to one-half of the longest term of imprisonment provided for the
offence of robbery, and also to fine.
4) B is liable to the longest term of imprisonment provided for the offence of
robbery

7- What is the age of the child against whom an act done by another person amounts to
an offence by virtue of Section 369 of the Indian Penal Code?

1) Under 6 years
2) Under 10 years
3) Under 12 years
4) Under 18 years

8- Select the elements or components that, in accordance with Section 425 of the Indian
Penal Code, constitute an offence from the list below.:

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(i) Complete destruction of property

(ii) Property is affected injuriously
(iii) Value of property is diminished
(iv) Utility of property is diminished

1) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv) are correct

2) (i),(ii),(iii),(iv) are correct
3) (ii),(iii),(iv) are correct
4) (i),(ii),(iii) are correct

9- What is the maximum amount of fine that can be levied on a person who does
misconduct in public after consuming liquor?

1) Ten rupees
2) Fifty rupees
3) One hundred rupees
4) Two hundred rupees

10- Under what circumstances can an act be considered an "attempt" to commit an

offence under the Indian Penal Code?

1) The act must be fully completed but fail to achieve the intended result.
2) The act must demonstrate a clear intention to commit the offence, coupled with
a substantial step towards its commission.
3) The act must result in harm or injury to another person.
4) The act must involve the use of force or violence.

11- In respect to an offender, when does the statute of limitations under section 469
CrPC begin?

1) on the date of the offence

2) the first day on which such offence comes to the knowledge of a person
3) both 1 &2
4) Neither 1 nor 2

12- Which of the following is required to be stated in a judgement passed under section
334 of the Criminal Procedure Code 1973?

1) The finding shall state the amount of fine to be paid.

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2) The finding shall state whether the offence was committed by the accused or
not.
3) The finding shall specifically state the amount of compensation.
4) The finding on the cause of action and relevant facts taken into account

13- Under the Code of Criminal Procedure, a person may apply for anticipatory bail
when he:

1) Believe he may be arrested on an accusation of a non-bailable Offence.

2) is being investigated for a bailable offence.
3) Have been charged with a capital offence.
4) Have been arrested for a non-bailable offence.

14- In which of the following cases was it observed by the Hon'ble Supreme Court that
'High Courts can grant bail even in a writ petition under Article 226 of the Constitution in
appropriate case'?

1) Ankita Kailash Khandelwal v State of Maharashtra, (2020) 10 SCC 670.

2) Arnab Manoranjan Goswami v State of Maharashtra (2020) 14 SCC 12.
3) Union of India v. Padam Narain (2008) 13 SCC 305.
4) Both 1 & 3

15- How should a magistrate or court proceed under the Code of Criminal Procedure if
they determine that there is a prima facie case against the accused and that he cannot
enter a defence due to mental retardation?

1) The court shall not hold the trial and order the accused to be released on bail
pending the investigation or trial
2) The court shall hold the trial and order the accused to be sent to judicial custody.
3) The court shall discharge the accused.
4) The court shall directly proceed with trial but cannot order the accused to be
released on bail.

16- In which of the following cases was it held by the Hon'ble Supreme Court that
"Anticipatory bail cannot be granted as a matter of right"?

1) Channi v State of U.P. 2006 CrLJ 4068 (SC)

2) Gargi v State of Haryana (2019) 9 SCC 738.
3) Prithviraj Chauhan v Union of India (2020) 5 SCC 421.
4) State v H. Srinivas (2018) 7 SCC 572.

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17- Which of the following statement is incorrect:-

1) A is accused of the theft of a certain thing at a certain time and place. The charge
need not set out the manner in which the theft was effected.
2) A is accused of cheating at a certain time and place. The charge must set out the
manner in which A cheated B.
3) A is accused of giving false evidence at a given time and place. The charge must
reveal that portion of evidence given by A which is alleged to be false
4) A is accused of murder of B at a given time and place. The charge must state the
manner in which A murdered B.

18- A engages B as clerk to collect money for him. B fails to account for some of his
receipts, and A in consequence calls upon him to furnish security for his duly
accounting. C gives his guarantee for B’s duly accounting. A does not acquaint C with B’s
previous conduct. B afterwards makes default. Choose the correct option herein

1) The guarantee is invalid.

2) The guarantee is valid.
3) The guarantee cannot be invalid.
4) None of the above

19- Which of the following is correct with respect to the sub-agent's responsibility?

1) The sub-agent is only responsible to the principal.

2) The sub-agent is responsible to both principal and agent in all cases
3) The sub-agent is responsible for his acts to the agent, but not to the principal,
except in cases of fraud or wilful wrong.
4) all of the above are correct

20- Match List-I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below-
List I A. Section 10 of the Indian Contract Act B.Section 27 of the Indian Contract Act C.
Section 64 of the Indian Contract Act D. Section 23 of the Indian Contract Act List II
1.Agreement in restraint of trade 2.Essentials of valid contract 3. Unlawful Consideration
and Object 4. Consequences of rescinding a voidable contract

1) A-2, B-4, C-1, D-3

2) A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3
3) A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4
4) A-3, B-1, C-4, D-2

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21- Can advocates retain the files and documents of their clients as lien under Section
171 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872?

1) No- As held in R.D. Saxena v. Balram Prasad DATE OF JUDGEMENT:22/08/2000

2) Yes- As held in R.D. Saxena v. Balram Prasad DATE OF JUDGEMENT:22/08/2000
3) No- As held in Lalman Shukla v. Gauri Dutt 1913 40 ALJ 489
4) Yes- As held in Lalman Shukla v. Gauri Dutt 1913 40 ALJ 489

22- Finder of a lost thing which is commonly the subject of sale, may sell it when the
lawful charges of the finder, in respect of the thing found amount:-

1) One-fourth
2) Half
3) One-third
4) two third

23- In which of the following cases can perpetual injunction be granted by the Court?
a. where the defendant is trustee of the property for the plaintiff
b. where there exists no standard for ascertaining the actual damage caused, or likely to
be
caused, by the invasion;
c. where the invasion is such that compensation in money would not afford adequate
relief;
d. where the injunction is necessary to prevent a multiplicity of judicial proceedings.

1) a and b only
2) a and c only
3) a b and d only
4) all of the above

24- No substituted performance of contract under sub-section (1) of Section 20, shall be
undertaken unless the party who suffers such breach has given a notice in writing, of
not less than _______, to the party in breach calling upon him to perform the contract
within such time as specified in the notice, and on his refusal or failure to do so, he may
get the same performed by a third party or by his own agency.

1) fifteen days
2) thirty days
3) forty five days

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4) sixty days

25- In which of the following judgements, has the Supreme Court held that "Specific
performance is no longer a discretionary relief"?

1) PM Aravindan v KP Udayakumar 2021 Latest Caselaw 12907 Ker

2) Sughar Singh v Hari Singh 2021 LawSuit(SC) 662
3) K. Karuppu Raj v M Ganesan CA 6014-6015 OF 2021
4) Adhiraj Singh v State W.P.: (Crl) 152/2019

26- The Commissioner appointed for the purposes of recording evidence under the
provisions of Order XVIII of the Code of Civil Procedure cannot -

1) Re-examine a witness
2) Decide objections raised during the recording of evidence
3) Both 1 and 2
4) Neither 1 not 2

27- For which of the following purposes the court cannot issue a commission?

1) For framing of issues

2) To make local investigation
3) Partition
4) To perform any ministerial act

28- A decree is said to be nullity in the Civil Procedure Code under what circumstances?

1) If it is a voidable decree
2) If there is an error while filing it
3) If court without inherent jurisdiction passes it
4) None of the above

29- The court may order arrest before the judgement in a suit pending before it, on
which of the following grounds?

1) if the cause action of the plaintiff is found valid

2) if the accused is about to run away from the court's jurisdiction
3) if the court presumes an act as guilty
4) if matter is under investigation and the evidences are against the accused

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30- The delay in applying for leave to defend -

1) can be condoned generally

2) can be condoned on a sufficient cause being shown
3) cannot be condoned under any circumstances
4) either (a) or (b)

31- For instituting a suit against the Government or against a Public Officer in an official
capacity, what is the notice period under section 80 of CPC?

1) 90 days
2) 60 days
3) 30 days
4) 15 days

32- As given under Order 32 of Civil Procedure code a 'Minor' means a person who has
not attained his majority within the meaning of ______

1) Juvenile Justice Act

2) Civil Procedure Code
3) Indian Majority Act
4) Hindu Minority and Guardianship Act

33- Which of the following comes under the meaning of "family" as per Order XXXII A
Rule 6 ?

1) a man and his wife living together

2) any child or children, being issue of theirs; or of such man or such wife
3) any child or children being maintained by such man and wife
4) (1), (2) and (3)

34- The principle of constructive res judicata was explained by the Hon'ble Supreme
Court in which of the following cases?

1) Harjyot Singh V/s Manpreet Kaur 18 November, 2019

2) State of U.P. V/s Nawab Hussain 1977 AIR 1680, 1977 SCR (3) 428
3) Manish Kumar V/s Union of India (2021) 5 SCC 1
4) Prabha Surana V/s Jaideep Halwasiya GA 2 of 2021 in CS 52 of 2021 decided on
22.06.2021

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35- As given under Section 87A of the Civil Procedure Code, "Foreign State" means:

1) any State outside India

2) any State outside India recognized by Central Government
3) any State outside India recognised by State government
4) All of the above

36- Which of these is/are NOT an ingredient of Section 14 of the limitation Act ?

1) Party should not be prosecuting another civil proceedings.

2) Prosecution should be in good faith.
3) It is necessary to establish due diligence
4) It is necessary to establish good faith.

37- What shall be the period of limitation under Article 122 of the Limitation Act, to
restore a suit for review or revision dismissed for default of appearance?

1) 90 days
2) 60 days
3) 30 days
4) 1 year

38- The period of limitation for filing a suit, by a surety, against a principal debtor, would
be 3 years from the date on which:

1) The amount became payable to the creditor

2) The amount was paid by the surety to the creditor
3) The refusal, by the principal debtor, to pay the amount on notice being given by
surety.
4) The date of demand, by the creditor, for payment thereof, to the debtor, or the
surety, whichever is earlier.

39- Section 2(j) of the Limitation Act describes the term "Period of Limitation", as:

1) Period of limitation prescribed for a specific suit or application by the schedule.

2) Period of limitation prescribed for any suit, appeal or application by the
Schedule.
3) Period of limitation computed in accordance with the provisions of the Limitation
Act.

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4) Period of limitation prescribed for a specific suit, appeal or application by the

schedule.

40- Section 135 deals with the assignment of rights under:

1) Fire insurance policies

2) Marine insurance policies
3) All types of insurance policies
4) Both 1 and 2

41- A executed a bond in favour of B under circumstances entitling the former to have it
delivered up and cancelled. B assigns the bond to C for value and without notice of such
circumstances.Here:-

1) C can enforce the bond against A

2) C cannot enforce the bond against A
3) A do not have any liability against both C and B
4) C can enforce the bond against B

42- A lets a house to B for five years. B underlets the house to C at a monthly rent of Rs.
100. The five years
expire, but C continues in possession of the house and pays the rent to A.Here:-

1) C's lease is renewed from month to month

2) C's lease is renewed from year to year
3) C's lease is not renewable
4) C's lease is void and not maintainable

43- According to section 113, a notice to quit given under Section 111(h) can be waived:

1) Only with the express consent of the person to whom it is given

2) Only with the implied consent of the person to whom it is given
3) With either express or implied consent of the person to whom it is given
4) Without requiring any consent

44- Given below are two statements:

Statement I: 8 Judges bench sitting for deciding any case involving a substantial question
of law as to the interpretation of the Constitution of India is a Constitution Bench.
Statement II: An appeal shall lie to the Supreme Court from any judgement, final order
or sentence in a criminal proceeding of High Court in the territory of India if the High

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Court has an appeal reversed an order on acquittal of an accused person and

sentenced him for life imprudent.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the
options given below:

1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

2) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
4) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

45- The Right to Freedom of Speech and expression implicitly covers which of the
following rights?

1. Right against pre-censorship on newspapers and movies

2. Freedom of the Press
3. Freedom of silence
4. Right to demonstration or picketing and strike
Select the correct answer using code given below.

1) 1, 2 and 4 only
2) 3 and 4 only
3) 2 and 3 only
4) 1, 2, 3 and 4

46- In a Parliamentary form of government, which of the following cannot be considered

to be an essential element?

1) The presence of a nominal executive head of the State who acts exclusively on
the advice of Cabinet
2) The Cabinet, which is the real executive, consists of leaders of a party, who have
the support of the majority in the legislature
3) The responsibility of the Cabinet is collective
4) The President appoints ministers and assigns to them their offices

47- Why is it important to determine whether an entity falls within the definition of
"State" under Article 12?

1) It determines the enforceability of fundamental rights against that entity.

2) It determines the jurisdiction of the Supreme Court over that entity.
3) It determines the tax liabilities of that entity.

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4) It determines the appointment procedure of public officials in that entity.

48- Identify the correct statements on High Courts of India:-

A. Article 215 of the Constitution provides that every High Court shall be a court of
record and shall have all the powers of such Court, including the power to punish for
contempt of itself.
B. Article 226 provides for the appellate jurisdiction of High Court.
C. Article 214 declares that the provisions of clauses (4) and (5) of Article 124 of the
Constitution relating to the procedure for the removal of a Judge of the Supreme Court
shall be made applicable in relation to the High Court.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:-

1) Statement A, B and C
2) Statement A
3) Statement B
4) Statement C

49- Which concept refers to the division of powers between the Union and the states in
India?

1) Federalism
2) Parliamentary sovereignty
3) Judicial review
4) Secularism

50- Which of the following options is correct about an ordinance promulgated under
Article 123?

1) Has the same effect as an Act of Parliament

2) Is valid for an unlimited duration
3) Cannot be challenged in court
4) Can only be issued by the President on the advice of the Prime Minister

51- Under Article 152 of the Constitution of India, the Governor has the power
to....................

1) Grant pardons and reprieves

2) Grant pardons, reprieves, and remissions of punishment
3) Grant pardons, reprieves, remissions of punishment, and suspend, remit, or
commute sentences

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4) Grant pardons, reprieves, remissions of punishment, and suspend, remit, or

commute sentences, subject to the advice of the Chief Minister

52- Which amendment of the Indian Constitution lowered the voting age from 21 to 18?

1) 61st Amendment
2) 44th Amendment
3) 73rd Amendment
4) 42nd Amendment

53- Sexual Harassment of Women at Workplace Act - Where the employer fails to
constitute an Internal Committee as provided under Sexual Harassment of Women at
Workplace (Prevention, Prohibition, and Redressal) Act 2013, he/she shall be punishable
with fine which may extend to?

1) 25,000 Rupees
2) 50,000 Rupees
3) 1 Lakh rupees
4) 2 Lakh rupees

54- Match the following: List I - 1. Committee to submit annual report 2.Appropriate
Government to take measures to publicise the Act 3. Act not in derogation of any other
law 4. Power of appropriate Government to make rules List II - A.Section 24 B. Section
29 C. Section 21 D. Section 28

1) A4, B1, C3, D2

2) A2, B4, C1, D3
3) A3, B4, C2, D1
4) A1, B2, C3, D4

55- What are the requirements for the application of section 4 of the Probation of
Offenders Act?
1. To apply section 4 of the Probation of Offenders Act, the offence should be such for
which the punishment is not the death penalty or imprisonment for life. 2. The Court
has to consider the circumstances of the case including the nature of the offence and
character of the offender. 3. Probation officer’s report is not compulsory to enforce this
rule, but if the information is required on record, the Court shall take into account the
probation officer’s information before granting a probation order for good behaviour.
Select the Correct Option:-

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1) Only 1
2) Only 2 and 3
3) 1, 2 and 3
4) Only 1 and 2

56- When may an offender be released by the court after admonition, following his
conviction?

1) Where any is offence punishable with imprisonment for not more than three
years, or with fine, or with both, under the Indian Penal Code, or any other law
2) When the offender has only ever committed one prior offence.
3) None of the above
4) All of the above

57- The protection of women from Domestic Violence Act - For the purposes of the
Protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act, 2005 "aggrieved person" means any
woman.............

1) Who is, or has been, in a domestic relationship with the respondent

2) Who alleges to have been subjected to any act of domestic violence by the
respondent
3) Both (a) and (b) above
4) None of the above

58- Notwithstanding anything contained in the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973, the
Court trying
an offence under section 138 may order the drawer of the cheque to pay interim
compensation
to the complainant in which of these cases?

1) in a summons case, where he pleads not guilty to the accusation made in the
complaint
2) in a summary trial where he pleads not guilty to the accusation made in the
complaint
3) in any other case, upon framing of charge
4) all of the above

59- Who, as a drawer of cheque, can be prosecuted for non-payment of the cheque due
to insufficient funds under Section 138 of Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881?

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1) Only a firm
2) Only a human being
3) Only a body corporate
4) All of the above

60- What shall be the procedure for recording the statement of a child, under the
Protection of Children from Sexual Offences Act?
1. The statement shall be recorded at the residence of the child and it should preferably
be done by a woman police officer, not below the rank of sub-inspector.
2. The officer may be in uniform while recording the statement.
3. In case the victim is a girl child then the medical examination shall be done by a
female doctor.
4. Only 4 hours of questioning to be done, with frequent breaks for the child, by the
officer.
5. Child should not be called repeatedly to testify.

1) Only 2, 4 and 5
2) Only 1, 2 and 4
3) Only 1, 3 and 5
4) All - 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

61- Under the Protection of Children from Sexual Offences Act, which of the following is
the power of a Special Court?

1) The Special Court under the Protection of Children from sexual Violence Act has
the power to conceal the identity of the child.
2) The Special Court shall have the powers of the Court of session.
3) The Special Court may order the payment of compensation to the child for any
bodily or emotional suffering inflicted to him, as well as his prompt
rehabilitation.
4) All of the above

62- Which among the following is true of Section 107 of the Juvenile Justice Act, 2015 ?

1) For the creation of the Juvenile Justice Board.

2) It provides provisions for Corporal punishments.
3) provides for foster care services.
4) It provides for the creation of Special Juvenile Police Unit,

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63- Penalty for non - registration of child care institutions is -

1) Fine of Rs 5 lakhs rupees.

2) Fine of 50,000 rupees
3) Fine of 1 lakh rupees
4) Fine of 10 lakh rupees.

64- Match List I with List II

LIST I
A. Disabling statute
B.Prohibitory statute
C. Declaratory statute
D. Consolidating statute
LIST II
I. It restricts a right conferred by common law.
II. it removes doubts either in the common law or in the statutory law
III. it forbids the doing of certain things.
IV. it collects all statutory enactments on a specific subject and gives them the shape of
one statute with minor amendments.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1) A-I, B - III C-II, D-IV

2) A-II, B - I C-III, D-IV
3) A-IV, B - III C-II, D-I
4) A-I, B - II C-IV, D-I

65- In which of the following cases was it held by the apex court that words in
judgement are not be used as if they are the words in the Act of Parliament?

1) Harran Nurani v Asst. Charity Commissioner AIR 1967 SC 1742

2) M/S Gammon India Ltd. v Spl. Chief Secretary, 2006 (SC)
3) State of Orissa v M.D. Ilias (2006) 1 SCC 275
4) All of the above

66- Any person who contravenes the provisions of section 3 or section 4 shall be
punishable on first conviction under the Indecent Representation of
Women(Prohibition) Act -

1) Imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to two years,
and with fine which may extend two thousand rupees

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2) Imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to three years,
and with fine which may extend five thousand rupees
3) Imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to four years,
and with fine which may extend five thousand rupees
4) Imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to six months,
and with fine which may extend five hundred rupees

67- Prohibition of advertisements containing indecent representation of women is

provided under ____of the Indecent Representation of Women(Prohibition) Act -

1) Section 5
2) Section 8
3) Section 4
4) Section 3

68- The repealment of the Rajasthan Premises (Control of Rent and Eviction) Act. 1950
("Act of 1950" by Section 3211) of The Rajasthan Rent Control Act. 2001 affected which
of the following?

1) To anything duly done or suffered under the Act of 1950.

2) To any right acquired under the Act of 1950.
3) To any fine incurred under the provisions of the Act of 1950.
4) None of the above options.

69- Under Rajasthan Rent Control Act, 2001, an application made under section 23
disposed of by Rent Authority within _______________from the date of presentation of the
application.

1) 120 days
2) 90 days
3) 60 days
4) 30 days

70- On application under section 22-E of The Rajasthan Rent Control Act, 2001, Court fee
shall be payable:

1) Rs. 50/-
2) Rs.100/-
3) Rs. 250/-
4) Ad valorem

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71- निम्न में से कर्मवाच्य का उदाहरण है :

1) अब आप गाना गाएँ।
2) मजदरू ों ने सड़क बना दी है ।
3) किसान खेत में खाद डालते हैं।
4) छात्रों द्वारा पाठ याद कर लिया गया है ।

72- निम्न में से भाववाच्य का उदाहरण नहीं है :

1) बच्चों से शांत नहीं रहा जाता।

2) अब चलते हैं।
3) हमसे हं सा नहीं जाता।
4) चलो, अब सोया जाए।

73- अध्यापक ने लड़के को पीटा। वाक्य में क्रिया है -

1) सकर्मक क्रिया
2) अकर्मक क्रिया
3) एककर्मक क्रिया
4) नामधातु क्रिया

74- श्याम अपने भाई के साथ टीवी दे ख रहा है । वाक्य में प्रयक्
ु त क्रिया है -

1) अकर्मक क्रिया
2) सकर्मक क्रिया
3) द्विकर्मक क्रिया
4) एककर्मक क्रिया

75- महाराणा प्रताप एक शरू वीर योद्धा थे। रे खांकित शब्द है -

1) सार्वनामिक विशेषण
2) परिमाणवाचक विशेषण
3) गण
ु वाचक विशेषण
4) कोई नहीं

76- अविकारी शब्द है :

1) संज्ञा
2) क्रिया
3) विशेषण

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4) क्रिया-विशेषण

77- निम्नलिखित किस शब्द में उपसर्ग नहीं है :

1) कुलीन
2) कुपत
ू
3) कुपात्र
4) कुचाल

78- अध्यवसाय' शब्द में उपसर्ग है :

1) अध्य
2) अधि
3) अधी
4) अध ्

79- निम्नलिखित में किस शब्द में 'वि' उपसर्ग नहीं है :

1) विप्रवर
2) विमर्श
3) विदे श
4) विपक्ष

80- अनिच्छा' में उपसर्ग है :

1) अनि
2) अ
3) अन
4) अन ्

81- दस्
ु साहस' शब्द में उपसर्ग है :

1) द:ु
2) दस
ु
3) दस
ु ्
4) कोई नहीं

82- लेखक' में प्रत्यय है :

1) क

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2) अक्
3) अक
4) ख्क

83- चनि
ु न्दा' शब्द में प्रत्यय है ।

1) निन्दा
2) इन्दा
3) दा
4) नन्दा

84- घम
ु क्कड़' शब्द में प्रत्यय है

1) अड़
2) कड़
3) अक्कड़
4) कोई नहीं

85- उच्चतम' शब्द में प्रत्यय है :

1) उच्च
2) उ
3) तम ्
4) तम

86- Choose the verb in agreement with the subject: '' How long had you ___________ on
that painting?''

1) Work
2) Works
3) Working
4) Worked

87- In the following sentence, identify the word where personification is used: ''The
Rolls-Royce Phantom personifies everything about luxury motoring.''

1) Motors
2) Luxury
3) Rolls-Royce
4) both 2 and 3

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88- Find a synonym of the word: Augmentation

1) Slicing
2) Reduction
3) Sealing
4) Increase

89- Find the antonym of the word: Relinquish

1) Retain
2) Respond
3) Rectify
4) Resurrect

90- What does Thalassophobia mean?

1) Fear of sharp pointed objects

2) Fear of flying
3) Fear of holes
4) Fear of the ocean

91- "The boy was brought to book for his misconduct."

1) Charged
2) bring the book
3) Caught
4) Hired

92- Psephology is the branch of work concerned with-

1) Autumn
2) Flowers
3) Elixirs
4) Elections

93- What would this phrase be described as: bittersweet

1) A simile
2) A hyperbole

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3) An oxymoron
4) A Euphemism

94- Fill in the blank: She thought that the egg ____ never hatch.

1) Will
2) Would
3) Shall
4) wouldn't

95- From the given options, choose the correct spelling:

1) Organisation
2) Orgenisation
3) Organisetion
4) none of these

96- Complete the following blanks with the most appropriate option: The flight__________
before we reach the airport

1) would take off

2) will have taken off
3) is taken off
4) was taken off

97- From the given options, choose the correct spelling:

1) Unparalleled
2) Unparallelled
3) Unparallelledd
4) none of these

98- Find the antonym of the word: Impenitent

1) Repentant
2) Unwanted
3) full of belief
4) none of these

99- Find the antonym of the word: Impair

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1) Receive
2) Understand
3) Revive
4) Intercept

100- From the given options, choose the correct spelling:

1) Hainous
2) Heinous
3) Heinuos
4) Hienous

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ANSWER KEY

Question Correct Question Correct Question Correct Question Correct

Option Option Option Option

Q1 2 Q26 2 Q51 3 Q76

4

Q2 4 Q27 1 Q52 1 Q77

1

Q3 3 Q28 3 Q53 2 Q78

2

Q4 2 Q29 2 Q54 2 Q79

1

Q5 2 Q30 2 Q55 3 Q80

4

Q6 3 Q31 2 Q56 3 Q81

1

Q7 2 Q32 3 Q57 3 Q82

3

Q8 2 Q33 4 Q58 4 Q83

2

Q9 1 Q34 2 Q59 4 Q84

3

Q10 2 Q35 2 Q60 3 Q85

4

Q11 1 Q36 1 Q61 4 Q86

4

Q12 2 Q37 3 Q62 4 Q87

3

Q13 1 Q38 2 Q63 3 Q88

4

Q14 2 Q39 2 Q64 1 Q89

1

Q15 1 Q40 1 Q65 3 Q90

4

Q16 3 Q41 2 Q66 1 Q91

1

Q17 4 Q42 1 Q67 4 Q92

4

Q18 1 Q43 3 Q68 4 Q93

3

Q19 3 Q44 1 Q69 3 Q94

2

Q20 2 Q45 3 Q70 Q95

2 1

Q21 2 Q46 4 Q71 Q96

4 1

Q22 4 Q47 1 Q72 Q97

2 1

Q23 4 Q48 2 Q73 Q98

1 1

Q24 2 Q49 1 Q74 Q99

3 3

Q25 2 Q50 1 Q75 Q100

3 2

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