PAPER: AVIATION METEOROLOGY
MAXIMUM MARKS: 90 TIME ALLOWED: 90 MIN
INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES:
All questions are compulsory.
Each question carries 2 marks.
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on the answer sheet.
Rough work may be done on the blank pages provided in the question booklet.
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unauthorized material into the examination hall.
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1. The atmospheric layer where most weather phenomena occur is the:
Stratosphere (B) Troposphere (C) Mesosphere (D) Thermosphere
2. The ozone layer, which absorbs harmful ultraviolet radiation, is primarily found in the:
Troposphere (B) Stratosphere (C) Mesosphere (D) Thermosphere
3. The boundary between the troposphere and the stratosphere is known as the:
(A) Mesopause (B) Stratopause (C) Tropopause (D) Exosphere
4. As altitude increases in the troposphere, the temperature generally:
(A) Increases (B) Decreases (C) Remains constant (D) Fluctuates unpredictably
5. The International Standard Atmosphere (ISA) defines standard conditions at Mean Sea
Level (MSL) as:
(A) 15 DEG & 1000 hPa (B) 15 DEG and 1013.25 hPa (C) 0 DEG and 1013.25 hPa
(D) 20 DEG and 1000 hPa
6. The highest layer of the Earth's atmosphere, extending outwards into space, is the:
(A) Mesosphere (B) Stratosphere (C) Thermosphere (D) Exosphere
7. The atmospheric gas most abundant by volume is:
(A) Oxygen (B) Carbon Dioxide (C) Nitrogen (D) Argon
8. The instrument used to measure atmospheric pressure is a:
(A) Thermometer (B) Anemometer (C) Barometer (D) Hygrometer
9. An isobar is a line connecting points of equal:
(A) Temperature (B) Humidity (C) Pressure (D) Wind speed
10. A high-pressure system is generally associated with:
(A) Clear skies, stable air, light winds (B) Cloudy skies, unstable air, strong winds (C)
Precipitation, turbulent air (D) Thunderstorms
11. A low-pressure system is generally associated with:
A) Clear skies, stable air (B) Rising air, cloudiness, and possible precipitation (C)
Sinking air, good visibility (D) Strong, steady winds and calm conditions
12. The pressure datum to which an altimeter is set to indicate height above the airfield
elevation is: (A) QNH (B) QFE (C) QNE (D) QDM
13. When an altimeter is set to QNH, it indicates:
(A) Height above airport elevation (B) Altitude above Mean Sea Level (MSL) (C) Pressure
altitude (D) True altitude
14. The term "pressure altitude" refers to the altitude in the International Standard
Atmosphere (ISA) corresponding to a given:
(A) Density (B) Pressure (C) Temperature (D) Humidity
15. If an aircraft flies from an area of high pressure to an area of lower pressure, without
resetting its altimeter, the altimeter will indicate an altitude that is:
(A) Higher than the actual altitude (B) Lower than the actual altitude (C) The same as the
actual altitude (D) Unpredictable
16. The temperature at which a parcel of air becomes saturated and condensation begins is
called the:
(A) Absolute temperature (B) Wet bulb temperature (C) Dew point temperature (D) Dry bulb
temperature
17. A temperature inversion is an atmospheric layer where temperature:
(A) Decreases with increasing altitude (B) Increases with increasing altitude (C) Remains
constant with increasing altitude (D) Fluctuates randomly
18. An isotherm is a line on a weather map connecting points of equal:
(A) Pressure (B) Temperature (C) Humidity (D) Wind speed
19. The process of heat transfer through direct contact is called:
(A) Radiation (B) Convection (C) Advection (D) Conduction
20. The transfer of heat by the vertical movement of air is known as:
(A) Conduction (B) Radiation (C) Convection (D) Advection
The transfer of heat by the horizontal movement of air is known as:
(A) Conduction (B) Radiation (C) Convection (D) Advection
21. The Earth's surface cools most rapidly during the night under which conditions?
(A) Strong winds, cloudy skies (B) Light winds, cloudy skies (C) Clear skies, light winds (D)
Heavy precipitation
22. The primary force that causes wind is the:
(A) Coriolis force (B) Friction force (C) Pressure gradient force (D) Centrifugal force
23. Wind is always named for the direction:
(A) It is blowing towards (B) It is blowing from (C) Of its strongest gust (D) Of the associated
pressure system
24. The Coriolis force deflects moving air to the:
(A) Right in the Northern Hemisphere and left in the Southern Hemisphere (B) Left in the
Northern Hemisphere and right in the Southern Hemisphere (C) Right in both hemispheres
(D) Left in both hemispheres
25. Isobars that are closely spaced on a weather chart indicate:
(A) Light winds (B) Strong winds (C) Calm conditions (D) Decreasing temperature
26. The layer of the atmosphere where friction with the Earth's surface significantly affects
wind speed and direction is known as the:
(A) Tropopause (B) Stratosphere (C) Friction layer (or planetary boundary layer) (D) Free
atmosphere
27. In the Northern Hemisphere, surface winds around a high-pressure system flow:
(A) Inward and counter-clockwise (B) Inward and clockwise (C) Outward and counter-
clockwise (D) Outward and clockwise
28. In the Northern Hemisphere, surface winds around a low-pressure system flow:
(A) Inward and counter-clockwise (B) Inward and clockwise (C) Outward and counter-
clockwise (D) Outward and clockwise
29. A local wind blowing down a slope, typically at night due to cooling, is called a:
(A) Anabatic wind (B) Katabatic wind (C) Sea breeze (D) Land breeze
A "sea breeze" typically blows from: (A) Sea to land during the day (B) Land to sea during
the day (C) Sea to land during the night (D) Land to sea during the night
30. The cloud type associated with an unstable atmosphere and significant vertical
development is:
(A) Stratus (B) Cirrus (C) Cumulonimbus (D) Altocumulus
31. High-level clouds, composed almost entirely of ice crystals, are typically:
(A) Stratus (B) Cumulus (C) Cirrus (D) Nimbostratus
32. A layer of uniform grey cloud, often producing drizzle or light snow, covering a wide
area, is classified as:
(A) Cumulus (B) Altostratus (C) Nimbostratus (D) Cirrocumulus
33. The cloud type that often appears as thin, sheet-like, milky layers at high altitudes,
causing halos around the sun or moon, is:
(A) Cirrus (B) Cumulonimbus (C) Cirrostratus (D) Stratocumulus
34. Clouds with the prefix "Alto-" (e.g., Altocumulus, Altostratus) are generally found in the:
(A) Low levels (B) Mid levels (C) High levels (D) Very high levels (above 40,000 feet)
35. A cloud type characterized by individual, detached, puffy clouds with distinct flat bases,
indicating rising thermals, is:
(A) Stratus (B) Cumulus (C) Nimbostratus (D) Lenticular
36. Lenticular clouds are typically indicative of:
(A) Strong convection (B) A very stable atmosphere near the surface (C) Mountain waves or
strong winds aloft (D) Incoming frontal systems with widespread rain
37. The base of low clouds (e.g., Stratus, Stratocumulus) is generally found below:
(A) 10,000 feet AGL (B) 6,500 feet AGL (C) 20,000 feet AGL (D) 30,000 feet AGL
38. Which cloud type is often associated with the most significant turbulence and icing for
aircraft?
(A) Altostratus (B) Cirrocumulus (C) Cumulonimbus (D) Nimbostratus
39. Fog that forms when moist air moves over a colder surface is called:
(A) Radiation fog (B) Advection fog (C) Upslope fog (D) Steam fog
40. Radiation fog is most likely to occur under which conditions?
(A) Strong winds, cloudy skies, moist air (B) Light winds, clear skies, moist air (C) Strong
winds, clear skies, dry air (D) Light winds, cloudy skies, dry air
41. Fog that forms as stable, moist air is forced to rise up a gradual slope is called:
(A) Radiation fog (B) Advection fog (C) Upslope fog (D) Steam fog
42. Fog that forms when cold air moves over much warmer water is called:
(A) Advection fog (B) Radiation fog (C) Upslope fog (D) Steam fog
43. Frost is most likely to form when the surface temperature is:
(A) Above freezing and the dew point is below freezing. (B) Below freezing and the dew
point is above freezing. (C) Below freezing and the dew point is below freezing. (D) Above
freezing and the dew point is above freezing.
44. What is the meteorological term for precipitation that falls from a cloud but evaporates
before reaching the ground?
(A) Drizzle (B) Mist (C) Virga (D) Sleet
45. When the temperature and dew point spread is very small, the air is nearly:
(A) Dry (B) Saturated (C) Unstable (D) Freezing
46. The actual amount of water vapor present in a given volume of air is called:
(A) Relative humidity (B) Absolute humidity (C) Specific humidity (D) Mixing ratio
47. When the air temperature is equal to the dew point temperature, the relative humidity is:
(A) 0\% (B) 50\% (C) 75\% (D) 100\%
48. The amount of water vapour in the air compared to the maximum amount it can hold at
that specific temperature is called:
(A) Absolute humidity (B) Specific humidity (C) Mixing ratio (D) Relative humidity
49. As air temperature increases, its capacity to hold water vapour generally:
(A) Increases (B) Decreases (C) Remains constant (D) Becomes unpredictable
50. High humidity generally leads to:
(A) Improved aircraft performance (B) Reduced aircraft performance (due to lower air
density) (C) No significant effect on aircraft performance (D) Increased lift
51. Condensation is the process where water changes from:
(A) Liquid to gas (B) Gas to liquid (C) Solid to gas (D) Liquid to solid
52. The standard atmospheric density at MSL is highest when:
(A) Temperature is high, pressure is low (B) Temperature is low, pressure is low (C)
Temperature is low, pressure is high (D) Temperature is high, pressure is high
53. Density altitude is directly affected by:
(A) Only temperature (B) Only pressure (C) Temperature and pressure (or pressure altitude)
(D) Wind speed only
54. A high density altitude means:
(A) Reduced aircraft performance (B) Improved aircraft performance (C) No change in
aircraft performance (D) A more stable atmosphere
55. Air density generally decreases with an increase in:
(A) Temperature and humidity (B) Temperature and pressure (C) Humidity and pressure (D)
Temperature only
56. On a hot, humid day, an aircraft's take off distance will generally be:
(A) Shorter than on a cold, dry day (B) The same as on a cold, dry day (C) Longer than on a
cold, dry day (D) Unpredictable
57. An atmosphere is considered stable if a parcel of air, when lifted, tends to:
(A) Continue to rise (B) Return to its original position (C) Become warmer than its
surroundings (D) Condense rapidly
58. An unstable atmosphere is characterized by:
(A) Stratiform clouds, steady precipitation (B) Good visibility, smooth air (C) Cumuliform
clouds, showery precipitation, turbulence (D) Light winds, clear skies
59. If the environmental lapse rate (ELR) is less than the saturated adiabatic lapse rate
(SALR), the atmosphere is: (A) Unstable (B) Absolutely stable (C) Conditionally unstable (D)
Neutrally stable
When the environmental lapse rate (ELR) is greater than the dry adiabatic lapse rate
(DALR), the atmosphere is:
(A) Stable (B) Absolutely unstable (C) Conditionally unstable (D) Neutrally stable
60. An inversion layer promotes:
(A) Vertical air movement and convection (B) Atmospheric stability and trapping of pollutants
(C) Formation of cumulonimbus clouds (D) Rapid dissipation of fog
61. Conditional instability exists when the environmental lapse rate is:
(A) Between the dry adiabatic lapse rate and the saturated adiabatic lapse rate (B) Greater
than the dry adiabatic lapse rate (C) Less than the saturated adiabatic lapse rate (D) Equal
to the dry adiabatic lapse rate
62. Lifting an unsaturated parcel of air will cause its temperature to decrease at the: (A)
Saturated adiabatic lapse rate (B) Environmental lapse rate (C) Dry adiabatic lapse rate (D)
Standard lapse rate
63. What phenomenon is characterized by a hazy appearance caused by very fine dry
particles, typically in stable air masses, significantly reducing visibility?
(A) Fog (B) Rain (C) Dust (D) Haze
64. A "halo" observed around the sun or moon is typically caused by the refraction and
reflection of light through:
(A) Water droplets (B) Dust particles (C) Ice crystals (D) Pollen grains
65. A primary rainbow is formed when sunlight undergoes:
(A) Single reflection and refraction through water droplets (B) Double reflection and
refraction through water droplets (C) Diffraction by ice crystals (D) Scattering by aerosols
66. A "glory" is an optical phenomenon that appears as a series of colored rings seen
around the shadow of the observer's head, typically when looking into:
(A) A clear sky (B) A fog bank or cloud (C) A distant mountain range (D) The setting sun
67. The atmospheric condition most conducive to the formation of a "mirage" is:
(A) Uniform atmospheric temperature (B) A strong temperature inversion near the surface
(C) Presence of alto-stratus clouds (D) Extremely low humidity
68. "Crepuscular rays" are beams of sunlight that appear to radiate from a single point in the
sky, caused by:
(A) Reflection off a smooth water surface (B) Scattering by dust particles (C) Clouds or
terrain obstructing parts of the sun's rays (D) Refraction through ice crystals
69. A "corona" seen around the sun or moon, characterized by concentric colored rings
immediately surrounding the celestial body, is caused by:
(A) Refraction by ice crystals (B) Diffraction by uniform water droplets or ice crystals (C)
Total internal reflection in large raindrops (D) Scattering by atmospheric gases
70. The optical phenomenon where precipitation falls from a cloud but evaporates before
reaching the ground is known as:
(A) Fogbow (B) Dew (C) Frost (D) Virga
71. The phenomenon of "atmospheric reddening" of the sun or moon near the horizon is
primarily due to:
(A) Increased reflection of blue light by the atmosphere (B) Increased scattering of blue light
by the atmosphere, leaving more red light to pass through (C) Absorption of red light by
water vapor (D) Presence of volcanic ash
72. "Iridescent clouds" show patches of brilliant colors, most commonly observed in:
(A) Stratus clouds (B) Cumulonimbus clouds (C) Lenticular clouds or high-level thin clouds
(D) Radiation fog
73. The shimmering or distortion of objects seen through hot air rising from a surface is an
example of a type of:
(A) Halo (B) Corona (C) Inferior mirage (D) Sundog
74. Why is a secondary rainbow always fainter than a primary rainbow?
(A) It is formed by smaller droplets. (B) It involves two internal reflections, leading to more
light loss. (C) It is formed by ice crystals. (D) It occurs at a higher angle from the sun.
75. An airport has an elevation of 1200 ft. The QNH is 1018 hPa. What is the Pressure
Altitude?
76. An aircraft is flying at FL120 (12,000 ft Pressure Altitude). The local QNH is 1005 hPa.
What is the approximate True Altitude?
77. An aircraft is on the ground at an airport. The altimeter is set to QFE and reads 0 ft. If the
QNH is 1025 hPa, what is the approximate elevation of the airport?
78. If the altimeter is set to 1013 hPa and reads 3500 ft, what is the Pressure Altitude?
79. Convert 30∘C to Fahrenheit.
80. An airport has an elevation of 120 ft below sea level (-120 ft). The QNH is 1000 hPa.
Calculate the Pressure Altitude.
