1. What causes surface winds to blow across isobars at an angle rather than parallel.

Surface
friction.
2. Absolute instability is said to exist whenever the environmental lapse rate. Exceeds the dry
adiabatic lapse rate.
3. BKN002 indicates. 5-7 oktas of cloud cover at 200 ft AGL.
4. A Polar maritime air mass is. Cold and unstable at its source.
5. XXX on a Significant Weather Chart means. Height is indicated on another chart.
6. Which of the following atmospheric characteristics remains unchanged to a high height
above the earth’s surface. The composition of atmospheric gases.
7. The weather of the western interior of South Africa is mainly as. Being a low rainfall area.
8. Which form of precipitation is commonly associated with a Cumulonimbus cloud. Rain
showers and hail.
9. By what recommended minimum distance should an aircraft flying below 20000 ft when the
weather radar echo displays sharp edges or strong intensity. At least 20 nm from the echo.
10. Which of the statements is true concerning squall lines. For severe squall lines a SIGMET is
issued.
11. Which is true regarding moderate to severe airframe icing. It is likely to occur in
Nimbostratus cloud.
12. At 3000 ft above the sea in the Northern Hemisphere the gradient wind is 350/24. At the
same position the surface wind would approximate. 340/20.
13. RVR will only be reported when the horizontal visibility is: 1500 m or less.
14. The conditions necessary for advection fog to form over the sea are, amongst others. A
surface colder than the air mass and winds less than approximately 20 knots.
15. Statement is correct. The Bergeron-Findeisen process is mainly based on the difference of
maximum vapour pressure over water and over ice of the same temperature.
16. Freezing precipitation occurs. Mainly in the form of freezing rain or freezing drizzle.
17. What is the lowest visibility forecast for Geneva (ETA 1200 UTC). TAF LSGG 020900Z 021019
18007KT 9999 SCT020 BKN100 BECMG 1114 8000 PROB30 TEMPO 1018 VRB10G25KT TSRA
SCT005 BKN015CB=. 8 km.
18. The weather of the Cape Mediterranean climate in South Africa is characterised as a.
Winter rainfall area.
19. Convective clouds are generally of the type. Cumuliform.
20. When comparing the visibility at low levels associated with a depression to the of an anti-
cyclone. Visibility will be greater in the depression.
21. If you are flying at FL100 in an air mass that is 10° C warmer than the standard atmosphere.
Actual temperature will be. +5° C.
22. Is likely to lead to the formation of radiation fog. Heat loss from the ground on clear nights.
23. When the environmental lapse rate is greater than the saturated adiabatic lapse rate and
less than the dry adiabatic lapse rate in the lower levels of the atmosphere, the air mass is
described as being. Conditionally unstable.
24. The maximum vapour pressure over a flat supercooled water surface and the maximum
vapour pressure over a flat ice surface of the same temperature are compared. The
maximum vapour pressure is.
25. Which of the following conditions will result in the highest QNH value. Assume a lapse rate
of 1 hPa = 30 ft. QFE = 995 hPa, elevation = 1600 ft.
26. The presence of altocumulus castellanus indicates. Instability in the middle troposphere.
27. An aircraft is flying over the sea at FL120 with a true altitude of 12000 ft, local QNH is 1013
hPa. What assumption, if any, can be made about the air mass in which the aircraft is flying.
Its average temperature is the same as ISA.
28. In a METAR message, the wind group is 23010MPS. This means. Wind from 230° true at 20
knots.
29. HAZE is mostly caused by. Smoke, dust or sand particles.
30. FALA TAF TX28/2712ZTN11/2804Z= The forecast minimum temperature is. 11°C.
31. You are flying from east to west in the northern hemisphere at the 500 hPa pressure level.
The following statement is correct. If the wind is from the north you are gaining altitude.
32. At a coastal airfield with its runway perpendicular to the coast, landings during t6he night
will be. Away from the sea because of a land breeze.
33. An aircraft flying in the southern hemisphere at 2000 ft has to turn right in order to
maintain the required track. Relative to the track of the aircraft, the centre of a low pressure
is. In front.
34. Which of the following types of clouds are evidence of unstable air conditions. Cu, Cb.
35. Flight from Bordeaux to Amsterdam. ETA 2100 UTC. What is the minimum visibility forecast.
TAF EHAM 281500Z 281601 14010 KT 6000 –RA SCT025 BECMG 1618 12015G25KT
TEMPO 1823 3000 RA BKN005 OVC010 BECMG 2301 25020KT 8000 NSW BKN020=. 3 km.
36. A low pressure system is also known as a. Cyclone.
37. TEMPO indicates. Temporary fluctuations to last less than one hour and in total cover less
than half the time frame of the forecast.
38. Using the density altitude formulae, calculate the approximate density altitude
corresponding to an altitude of 15000 ft, and a temperature of ISA +5°C (30ft/ hPa and 120
ft / 1°C ). 15600 ft.
39. Which of the following is not associated with typical South African thunderstorms. Warm
fronts.
40. An aircraft is on an ILS approach with a decision height of 200 ft. The airfield QNH is 1010
hPa, the pilot has the altimeter set at 1013 hPa. When the altimeter indicates, an altitude
that is 200 ft above the airfield elevation, the aircraft will be (Assume 30 ft/hPa). 90 ft below
the decision height.
41. How does the height of the tropopause normally vary with latitude in the northern
hemisphere. It decreases from south to north.
42. Poor visibility due to haze is normally associated with. An anticyclone.
43. In the northern hemisphere, a pilot flying at 1000 ft/AGL directly towards the centre of a
low pressure area, will find the wind blowing from. Left and behind
44. At the same latitude, the geostrophic wind is less than the gradient wind around an
anticyclone because the. Centrifugal force is added to the pressure gradient.
45. Which cloud type is least likely to produce precipitation. Ci.
46. Which clouds are classified as medium level in temperate regions. As and Ac.
47. When no condensation is present and visibility is reduced to 3000 m, the condition is
referred to as. Haze.
48. Clear ice can NOT be expected when flying. Through a thick layer of stratus cloud.
49. Best describes the south westerly buster. The wind which blows to the rear of a coastal low.
50. Wind that flows parallel to straight isobars is called a. Geostrophic wind.
51. When comparing a katabatic wind to an anabatic wind in the same location, which is
normally stronger. The katabatic wind because the anabatic wind has to oppose gravity.
52. At what speed does a cold front normally approach. The geostrophic wind speed.
53. At what speed does a warm front normally approach. 2/3 of the geostrophic wind speed.
54. Which types of cloud is snow not normally associated with. Cirrus and thick altocumulus.
55. QFF at an airfield located at 1300 ft above sea level is 1016 hPa. The air temperature is 10°C
higher than the standard atmosphere. What is the QNH. More than 1016 hPa.
56. An air mass is stable when. Lifted air returns to its original level.
57. 3 142 16 6 is seen on an upper wind chart. The wind at 3000 ft is. 142°T at 16 kts.
58. Areas of sinking air are generally cloudless because as air sinks it. Is heated by compression.
59. Orographic clouds are formed by. Air being forced to rise due to a mountain.
60. If the QFE, QNH and QFF of an airport have the same value. The airport must be at MSL.
61. Absolute stability is said to exist whenever the environmental lapse rate. Is less than the
saturated adiabatic lapse rate.
62. With identical pressure gradient, it would have the higher wind speed. A high pressure
system.
63. The effect of surface friction on a wind over the ocean (when compared to a wind over a
land surface). The wind speed is higher and the angle of deflection is less.
64. What trade winds converging cause. Shallow Cu clouds and the rainfall at the ITCZ.
65. Which weather phenomena are typical for the northern side of the Alps with strong winds
from the south (Foehn wind). Good visibility, turbulence.
66. Which weather report is a warning of conditions that could be potentially hazardous to
aircraft in flight. SIGMET.
67. The wind in a METAR may be indicated as one of the following. Knots, miles per hour or
metres per second.
68. For the time of your landing you note TEMPO TS in the TAF. What is the maximum time this
deterioration in weather is expected to last in any one instance. Less than 60 minutes.
69. The suffix “nimbus” used in the name of a cloud refers to. Rain.
70. The term SPECI refers to an aviation weather report. Indicated important changes in
selected parameters which may include a trend forecast.
71. Does the following report make sense. METAR LSZH 182330Z VRB02KT 3000 MIFG 02/02
Q1015 NOSIG=. The report is possible, because shallow fog is defined as a thin layer of fog
below eye level.
72. What are the characteristics of the Bora. It is a cold very strong wind that blows mainly in
the winter from a table land downwards in the Adriatic. Nimbostratus clouds are likely to be
composed of. Water droplets.
73. In which region are large hailstones most likely to develop. Tropical regions.
74. The conditions necessary for thunderstorm development are. Trigger, water vapour and
unstable atmosphere.
75. When a given mass of air descends, what effect will it have on humidity. It decreases
76. In still air the temperature decreases by an average of 1.2°C per 100 m increase in altitude.
This temperature change is called. Environmental lapse rate.
77. Relative humidity. Changes when water vapour is added, even though the temperature of
the air remains constant.
78. Relative humidity at a given temperature is the relation between. Actual water vapour
content and saturated water vapour content.
79. Relative humidity depends on. Moisture content and temperature of the air.
80. How, if at all, is the relative humidity of an unsaturated air mass influenced by temperature
changes. It decreases with increasing temperature.
81. Weather conditions that favour the formation of radiation fog. Light wind, little or no cloud,
moist air.
82. Snow is occasionally associated with. Thick, low altocumulus clouds.
83. From the weather perspective, which is the most important constitute of the atmosphere.
Water vapour.
84. The weather code BCFG, used in a METAR means. Patches of fog.
85. What pressure is defined as QFE. The pressure at field elevation.
86. What does the term SIGMET signify. A SIGMET is a warning of dangerous meteorological
conditions.
87. Is a cause of stratus forming over flat land. Radiation during the night from the earth’s
surface in moderate wind.
88. Several physical processes contribute to atmospheric warming. The following contribute the
most. Convection and condensation.
89. In a layer air the decrease in temperature per 100 metres increase in height is more than
1°C. This layer can be described as being. Absolutely unstable.
90. Is a definition of relative humidity. Ratio between the actual mixing ratio and saturated
mixing ratio X 100.
91. Subsidence is. Vertical downwards motion of air.
92. What is the technical term for an increase in temperature with altitude. Inversion.
93. If in a 100 m thick layer the temperature at the bottom of the layer is 10°C and at the top of
the layer is 6°C, then the layer is. Absolutely unstable.
94. The decrease in temperature, per 100 metres, in an unsaturated rising parcel of air is. 1°C.
95. The dew point temperature. Can be equal to the air temperature.
96. The dew point temperature. Can be reached by cooling the air while keeping pressure
constant.
97. When water evaporates into unsaturated air. Heat is absorbed.
98. When the temperature and dew point are less than one degree apart the weather
conditions are most likely to be. Fog or low cloud.
99. On a clear summer day, turbulence caused by solar heating is most pronounced. During the
early afternoon.
100. When does frontal fog, also known as mixing fog occur. When very humid warm air meets
with very humid cold air. Likely to cause airframe icing. +FZRA.
101. Wind shear could be caused by. A change of wind velocity.
102. Some of the minimum criteria for wind shear alerts to be issued at airports are. A mean
surface wind speed of at least 20 kts, or thunderstorms within 5 nm of the aerodrome.
103. Smoke is most likely to affect ground visibility when. There is a low level inversion.
104. The temperature and relative humidity associated with a Tropical Continental air mass at
its source are typically. Warm temperatures and low relative humidity.
105. On a significant weather chart we see the following for the area where the flight will take
place. BKN CU SC 100___023. If the flight is planned at FL85, we can anticipate that. We will
probably have to divert around some cumulus tops.
106. What does the group BCFG BKN001 indicate. Patches of fog are present and cloud 5-7
octas at 100 ft AGL.
107. The wind direction in a METAR is measured relative to. True north.
108. What is the maximum distance that Cirrus clouds can appear ahead of an approaching
warm front. 600 nm.
109. What will be the effect on the reading of an altimeter of an aircraft parked on the ground
as an active cold front is passing. It will first increase and then decrease.
110. Which zone is most likely to produce little or no precipitation. The north side of the Alps
with a prevailing foehn wind from the south.
111. In South Africa, the surface wind at night compared to during the day generally. Veers and
decreases.
112. In which of the following areas of South Africa does the south westerly buster commonly
occur. The cape south coast, east coast and KwaZulu-Natal coast only.
113. The south westerly buster is. A warm, moist onshore wind that causes a sudden increase in
cloudiness.
114. In exceptional circumstances thunderstorms can occur in a warm front if. The warm air is
unstable.
115. The weather of the South African eastern coastlands and Lowveld of KwaZulu-Natal is
mainly characterised by. A tropical climate with warm humid areas on the coast in summer.
116. The namib coastal desert is normally associated with. Low rainfall for most of the year but
low temperature because of the cold Benguela ocean current.
117. In METAR messages, the pressure group represents the. QNH rounded down to the nearest
hPa.
118. SCT SC 080 Cloud tops are. 8000 ft AMSL.

055

119. The cloud base, reported in the METAR is the height above. Airfield level.
120. The temperature that corresponds to ISA +5°C at FL390 in the international standard
atmosphere. -51.5°C.
121. The temperature and relative humidity associated with tropical maritime air mass at the
source are typically. Warm temperature and high relative humidity.
122. In which cloud type can icing be virtually ruled out. Ci.
123. When is the RVR reported at most airports. When the visibility decreases below 1500 m.
124. How does the slope of an average cold front compare to that of an average warm front. It
is approximately 3 times steeper.
125. What effect does the geostrophic force have on air flowing from the equator to the poles
in the upper levels of the atmosphere. The air is deflected to the left in the southern
hemisphere.
126. What is the height of the lowest cloud forecast for Bangkok at 1400 UTC. TAF VTBO
271800Z 280024 VRB05KT 1200BR TEMPO 0002 4000 BECMG 0205 9999 SCT015 BKN100
TEMPO 1115 04010G20KT 5000 TSRA SCT009 BKN014 BCN018CB BECMG 2024 6000=. 900
ft.
127. Where can freezing rain be encountered. Ahead of a warm front in winter.
128. Which firm of precipitation from clouds containing only water is most likely to fall in mid-
latitudes. Drizzle.
129. Precipitation in the form of showers occur from. Convective clouds.
130. Steady precipitation, in contrast to showery precipitation falls from. Stratiform clouds with
little or no turbulence.
131. Supercooled droplets are always. At a temperature below freezing.
132. Supercooled droplets can occur in. Clouds, fog and precipitation.
133. Is described as precipitation at the time they are observed. +SHSN.
134. From what type of cloud does drizzle fall. Stratus.
135. Freezing precipitation occurs. Mainly in the form of freezing rain or freezing drizzle.
136. Fallstreaks or virga are. Water or ice particles falling out of a cloud that evaporate before
reaching the ground.
137. A small supercooled cloud droplet that collides with an aerofoil will most likely. Freeze
immediately and create rime ice.
138. A supercooled droplet is. A droplet still in liquid state at a temperature below 0°C.
139. With what type of cloud is +TSRA precipitation most commonly associated with. CB.
140. ISOL EMBD CB 320 What is the height of the cloud tops. FL320.

XXX

141. Which of the following is true concerning an aircraft that is at FL180 in the northern
hemisphere, where the wind is geostrophic and the altitude remains constant. There is no
cross wind.
142. A change of state from solid to a liquid is known as. Melting.
143. A threat associated with a layer of smoke or haze is that. Vertical visibility could be sufficient
to see the aerodrome from overhead but horizontal visibility will be reduced on approach.
144. If the pressure surfaces bulge upwards in all levels then the pressure system is a. Warm
high.
145. An aircraft is on a cross country flight where the local QNH is 1023 hPa and the highest
obstacle is 7500 AMSL. To over fly the obstacle by a height of 1000 ft with the altimeter set
to 1013 hPa. The altimeter must indicate a minimum of, (Assuming 30ft/hPa). 8800 ft.
146. What does the term “TEMPO” in a TAF indicate. Temporary fluctuations to last less than one
hour and in total less than half the period during which they are forecast to occur.
147. The environmental lapse rate in an actual atmosphere. Varies with time.
148. The typical weather associated with a tropical continental air mass, in an area such as South
Africa is. Hot and dry conditions.
149. A 0°C temperature is forecast for FL050. Assuming ISA conditions, at what FL would you
expect a temperature of -6°C. FL080.
150. On the significant weather chart, we see the following indications 100 SCT CU ___060. The
forecast charts for FL050 and FL100 both indicate a wind from 320°/15KT. In flight over an
area of plains (flat country) during the validity period of the significant weather chart. We
observe moderate turbulence. The turbulence is caused by. The instability of the air mass
between the surface and top of the cumulus clouds.
151. Which type of precipitation is commonly associated with cumulonimbus cloud. Rain showers
and hail.
152. The three stages of development of thunderstorms are. Growth, mature and dissipating.
153. R01/1000V1400U in a SPECI refers to. A mean RVR for runway 01 varying between 1000 m
and 1400 m for runway 01 with an upward trend.
154. When warm moist air, advected from the Indian ocean, reaches the KwaZulu-Natal
midlands, it forms. Upslope fog.
155. Calculate the approximate density altitude of an airport with an elevation of 4500 ft,
temperature +30°C and QNH 1030. Assuming 30ft/hPa and 120ft/1°C. 6750 ft.
156. Orographic clouds are formed by. Air being forced to rise above high ground.
157. During a descent from 2000 ft above the surface (no frontal passage, northern hemisphere)
the wind normally. Backs and decreases.
158. Following statement is true. QNH can be equal to QFE.
159. Convective clouds are generally of the type. Cumuliform.
160. TAF FQMA 270400Z 2706/2812 22010G20KT 9999 FEW020 SCT025 BECMG 2710/2712
16016KT SCT025 BKN030 TEMPO 4000 –RA SCT020 BKN025 BECMG 2718/2720 22010KT
PROB30 TEMPO 2720/2804 5000 –SHRA SCT020 BKN025 TX26/2712ZTN18/2704Z=. What
visibility could a pilot expect at Maputo at 0700 LMT (UTC+2) on the 28 th. 5000 m.
161. What does the term SIGMET signify. A SIGMET is a warning of dangerous meteorological
conditions.
162. The dry adiabatic lapse rate. Has a constant fixed value.
163. Thunderstorms can develop vertically up to. The tropopause and penetrate into the
stratosphere.
164. During which stage of thunderstorm development can you expect an anvil to form.
Dissipating stage.
165. Warm anticyclones systems are also known as. Subtropical highs.
166. The typical weather associated with a tropical continental air mass, in an area such as north
Africa is. Hot and dry conditions.
167. The isobars surrounding an anticyclone. Decrease in value away from the centre.
168. For a low pressure system to deepen, the following is a requirement. Upper air divergence
must overcompensate for surface convergence.
169. The greatest diurnal temperature variation as far as the type of surface is concerned, will
occur. Over desert areas.
170. Best describes the term “latent heat”. The heat that is released or absorbed by a substance
when it undergoes a change in state.
171. The wind direction in an ATIS broadcast is given in. Degrees magnetic.
173. The adverse effect of low air density on the trust produced by a jet engine. A lower total air
mass is accelerated backwards.
174. The effect that a temperature higher than standard would have on an aircraft’s climb
performance would be. To decrease the rate of climb.
175. Condition that would cause the altimeter to indicate a lower altitude than that actually
flown. Air temperature higher than standard.
176. Will have the greatest effect on the formation of the various types of ice on an aircraft.
Cloud temperature and droplet size.
177. Flight from Bordeaux to Amsterdam. ETA 2100 UTC. What is the lowest cloud base for
arrival at Amsterdam. TAF EHAM 281500Z 281601 14010 KT 6000 –RA SCT025 BECMG 1618
12015G25KT TEMPO 1823 3000 RA BKN005 OVC010 BECMG 2301 25020KT 8000 NSW
BKN020=. 500 ft.
178. Weather report could be, in accordance with the regulations, be abbreviated to “CAVOK”.
(MSA minus airport elevation LSZB 10000 ft). LSZB 28012KT 9999 OVC100 16/12 Q1012
BECMG 5000 –RA=.
179. Cloud type that can extend over the low, medium and high cloud levels. Cb.
180. In general, squall lines usually forms in the. Warm air mass ahead of a cold front.
181. In meteorology, convection is the. Vertical movement of air.
182. Use a lapse rate of 30 ft per hPa. For a given airfield the QFE is 980 hPa and the QNH is 1000
hPa. The approximate elevation of the airfield is. 600 ft.
183. What is the recommended distance above a thunderstorm cloud that should be maintained
if it must be overflown. At least 5000 ft above the cloud tops.
184. During the winter months in South Africa the weather is predominantly dry over the
interior. This caused by. The continental high pressure area centred over the interior.
185. What is the boundary between the troposphere and the stratosphere called. Tropopause.
186. In the northern hemisphere the wind at the surface blows. Counter clockwise around, and
towards the centre of, a low pressure area.
187. A cold front approaching an airfield causes the pressure to decrease. QFE and QNH
decreases.
188. Where can severe turbulence be experienced in or near a thunderstorm. Within, below and
above the cumulonimbus clouds.
189. An aircraft is on a cross country flight where the local QNH is 1008 hPa and the highest
obstacle is 2150 ft AMSL. To overfly the obstacle by a height of 1000 ft with the altimeter set
at 1013 hPa the altimeter must indicate a minimum of (30 ft/1hPa). 4300 ft.
190. A cumulonimbus cloud at mid-latitudes in summer contains. Ice crystals, water droplets and
supercooled water droplets.
191. Use FIG 1 on page 5 of the supplement. What is the flight level of the jet stream at 30S
10W. FL370, fluctuating between FL230 and FL450.
192. The term “smog” refers to. Smoke fog.
193. An aircraft is flying over the sea at FL90, the true altitude is 9100 ft, local QNH is 1013 hPa.
What assumption, if any, can be made about the air mass in which the aircraft is flying. It is
warmer than ISA.
194. The maximum vapour pressure over a flat supercooled water surface and the maximum
vapour pressure over a flat ice surface of the same temperature are compared. The
maximum vapour pressure is. Greater over the water surface.
195. USE FIG 4 (SIGWX CHART) on page 7 of the supplement. At position 23S 23E, the Ac cloud
base is at “130”, what does this reflect. 13000 feet AMSL.
196. In which of the following parts of South Africa is advection fog a common occurrence. The
Mpumalanga Highveld.
197. What will the effect be on radiation fog when the wind speed increases velocity. It will cause
the fog to lift and become low stratus cloud.
198. For an aircraft flying at a constant indicated altitude and altimeter setting, a decreasing
temperature will. Cause the aircraft to fly at a decreasing true altitude and decreasing safety
margin.
199. The temperature and relative humidity associated with a Tropical Maritime air mass are
typically. Warm temperature and high relative humidity.
200. The typical weather associated with a ridge is normally similar to that of. An anticyclone.
201. The SALR is assumed to be approximately. 1.5°C/1000 ft.
202. The pressure altitude is equal to the true altitude if. Standard atmospheric conditions occur.
203. The geostrophic wind depends on. Density, earth’s rotation, geographic latitude.
204. If you are flying at FL100 in an air mass that is 10°C warmer than a standard atmosphere, the
outside temperature likely to be. +5°C.
205. Using the density altitude formulae, calculate the approximate density altitude of an airport
with an elevation of 4500 ft, a temperature of +30°C and a QNH of 1030 hPa. Assume 30 ft/1
hPa and 120 ft/°C. 6750 ft.
206. In a METAR message, the wind group is 23010MPS. This means. Wind from 230° true at 20
knots..
207. What is the wind speed given in a METAR report based on. The average speed of the
previous 10 minutes.
208. Is true regarding moderate to severe airframe icing. It is likely to occur in nimbostratus
cloud.
209. At what speed does a cold front normally approach. The geostrophic wind speed.
210. At what speed does a warm front normally approach. 2/3 of the geostrophic wind speed.
211. Which type of cloud is snow not normally associated with. Cirrus and stratocumulus.
212. While approaching your destination aerodrome you receive the following. Runway 23 RVR
400 m. This information indicates the. Length of runway which a pilot in an aircraft on the
ground, at the threshold, can see along runway 23.
213. Are formed when a moist, stable air mass is blown against a mountain range. Stratified
clouds.
214. Are classified as medium level clouds in temperate regions. As, Ac.
215. Will cause the formation of ice on an aircraft. A cloud consisting of both supercooled water
droplets and ice crystals produces icing.
216. An air mass is stable when. Lifted air returns to it’s original level.
217. The greatest diurnal temperature variation occurs. Over land, with clear skies and no wind.
218. Phenomena should be described as precipitation at the time it is observed.
219. The type of fog that occurs at night with clear skies and little or no wind on the Highveld is.
Radiation fog.
220. The presence of Nimbostratus cloud is often an indication of. An approaching warm front.
221. The cloud base, reported in the METAR, is the height above. Airfield level.
222. The temperature which corresponds to ISA+5°C at FL390 in the International Standard
Atmosphere. -56.5°C.
223. Vertical extent of the friction layer depends primarily on. Stability, wind speed, roughness of
surface.
224. Frontal thunderstorms tend to form. In a line and are often accompanied by squall lines.
225. A cumulonimbus cloud in the vicinity of the aeroplane can cause this navigation system to
produce false indications. ADF.
226. A katabatic wind will be stronger in the following conditions. With clear skies and a snow
covered slope.
227. Why is the SALR normally less than the DALR in a particular air mass. Latent heat is released
during condensation.
228. 17/M08 in a METAR indicates. Observed air temperature is +17°C, dew point temperature is
-8°C.
229. Freezing fog consists of. Supercooled water droplets.
230. The temperature and relative humidity associated with a Polar Continental air mass at origin
are typically. Cold temperature and low relative humidity.
231. Stages of development of thunderstorms are. Growth, mature and dissipating.
232. In the situation with a weak pressure gradient and no thunderstorms around, what will the
indication of the aneroid altimeter of an aircraft parked on the ground do over a period of
about ten minutes. Apparently nothing, because any changes would be small.
233. A piston aircraft is flying a circuit pattern (1000 ft AGL) at an aerodrome where the QNH is
1028 hPa and has the altimeter set at 1020 hPa. What is the aircraft’s height above ground
level when the altimeter indicates correct circuit altitude. Assume a lapse rate of 309 ft/hPa.
1240 ft.
234. A microburst with its damaging winds at the surface. Has a diameter up to 4 km.
235. Large hail stones. Are typically associated with large thunderstorms.
236. The presence of altocumulus castellanus indicates. Instability in the middle troposphere.
237. FACT SPECI, RO1/1300VP2000D means. The RVR on runway 01 fluctuates between 1300 m
and more than 2000 m and has a decreasing tendency.
238. In aviation, wind direction obtained from the ATIS is normally given in degrees. Magnetic.
239. Use Figure 2 on page 5 of the supplement. What is the expected freezing level at 30S 25E.
13000 ft AMSL.
240. RVR as reported in a METAR, is always the. Value representative of the touchdown zone.
241. During which season would a frontal thunderstorm occur most frequently. Winter
242. In general, squall lines usually form in the. Warm air mass ahead of a cold front.
243. Typical summer weather associated with the Highveld of South Africa. Warm weather with
frequent rain.
244. Duration of a TAF is. Stated in the TAF.
245. Icing can NOT be expected when flying. Through cirriform cloud.
246. Radiation fog is most likely to occur. In winter in the early morning.
247. The term “smog” refers to. Smoke fog.