BLEPP TEST BANK 2025 – KID ASUNCION

Abnormal Psychology stomachaches to avoid school. While this could be Separation

1. A highly successful CEO works 80 hours a week, is ruthless in Anxiety Disorder, what must be ruled out first?
business dealings, and has a strained family life. He feels his a) A normal, age-appropriate response to a recent family stressor.
demanding schedule is essential for his company's success and b) The presence of a genuine medical condition causing the
experiences significant anxiety when not working. While his stomachaches.
behavior clearly causes distress to his family, which of the "Four c) School-related issues like bullying or a learning disorder causing
D's" is most clinically significant for determining if his work habits the avoidance.
constitute a psychological disorder? d) All of the above.
a) Deviance, as his work hours are statistically rare. 10. A child is fully capable of speaking and speaks fluently at home with
b) Danger, as the stress could lead to health problems. family but consistently fails to speak in their kindergarten class. This
c) Dysfunction, as his behavior impairs his social and family behavior has lasted for the entire school year. The most likely
functioning despite occupational success. diagnosis is:
d) Distress, because his personal anxiety is the primary criterion for a) Autism Spectrum Disorder
any diagnosis. b) A Language Disorder
2. A brilliant painter is known for his reclusive lifestyle. He rarely leaves c) Selective Mutism
his home, has no friends, and works for days at a time without sleep, d) Social Anxiety Disorder
fueled by what he calls "artistic energy." His work is critically 11. A client survives a violent carjacking. For three weeks, they
acclaimed and sells for millions. While his behavior is deviant and experience intrusive memories, nightmares, emotional numbness,
causes him some personal distress, from a clinical perspective, and hypervigilance. They have not been able to return to work. The
which element of the "Four D's" is most debatable as being present most appropriate diagnosis at this time is:
in this case? a) Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder (PTSD)
a) Deviance b) Acute Stress Disorder (ASD)
b) Distress c) Adjustment Disorder with Anxiety
c) Danger d) Generalized Anxiety Disorder
d) Dysfunction 12. A 6-year-old child from a background of severe neglect actively
3. Which of the following scenarios best illustrates the concept of approaches and interacts with unfamiliar adults, showing a lack of
"danger" as a criterion for abnormality? appropriate reticence and a willingness to go off with strangers. This
a) A woman experiences intense anxiety and a racing heart when pattern of behavior is the hallmark of:
she thinks about giving a presentation. a) Attention-Deficit/Hyperactivity Disorder, Combined Type
b) A man's ritualistic hand-washing is so extensive that his skin is b) Oppositional Defiant Disorder
cracked and bleeding, posing a risk of infection. c) Reactive Attachment Disorder
c) A student's fear of failure is so profound that they avoid studying d) Disinhibited Social Engagement Disorder
altogether. 13. A man loses his job and, for the following two months, experiences
d) A person believes that government agents are listening to their low mood, insomnia, and a feeling of hopelessness that is impairing
thoughts, causing them significant fear. his ability to search for a new job. His symptoms do not meet the
4. A Japanese tourist in Manila avoids eye contact, speaks softly, and full criteria for a major depressive episode. The most fitting
is hesitant to express his personal needs to his hosts. An intern diagnosis is:
assessing him notes these as potential signs of social anxiety or a) Major Depressive Disorder
avoidant personality traits. A supervising psychologist would most b) Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder
likely advise the intern to first consider: c) Adjustment Disorder with Depressed Mood
a) The possibility of a co-morbid depressive disorder. d) Generalized Anxiety Disorder
b) The appropriateness of recommending immediate social skills 14. The key distinction between Reactive Attachment Disorder (RAD)
training. and Disinhibited Social Engagement Disorder (DSED) is that RAD
c) The role of cultural norms regarding interpersonal conduct and is characterized by ______ while DSED is characterized by ______
emotional expression. a) externalizing behaviors; internalizing behaviors
d) The necessity of a neurological exam to rule out organic causes. b) social disinhibition; emotional withdrawal
5. During a community assessment in a rural Filipino barangay, a c) cognitive deficits; emotional dysregulation
psychometrician observes that several bereaved individuals report d) aggression towards peers; aggression towards adults
"visitations" from their deceased loved ones in dreams and feel their 15. A client is preoccupied with intrusive thoughts that they might harm
presence nearby. These individuals deny distress and report feeling a family member, which they find abhorrent. To neutralize the
comforted. The most appropriate initial interpretation of these anxiety from these thoughts, they engage in a complex ritual of
experiences is: checking all the locks in their house multiple times. The thoughts
a) A high prevalence of shared psychotic disorder within the are the ______ and the checking is the ______
community. a) compulsion; obsession
b) A culturally syntonic grief response that should not be b) obsession; compulsion
pathologized. c) phobia; avoidance
c) Evidence of a community-wide post-traumatic stress reaction. d) delusion; ritual
d) A need for widespread screening for dissociative disorders. 16. A young woman spends 4-5 hours a day scrutinizing a barely visible
6. A client reports sudden, intense episodes of terror with a pounding scar on her chin, using makeup to cover it, and frequently seeking
heart, sweating, and a fear of dying. They also experience a reassurance about her appearance. She has avoided social events
constant, nagging worry about their health, job security, and because she is convinced everyone is staring at her "hideous flaw."
finances. They have started avoiding crowds for fear of triggering This presentation is most indicative of:
an episode. Which diagnosis provides the most complete picture? a) Social Anxiety Disorder
a) Generalized Anxiety Disorder (GAD), because of the persistent b) Body Dysmorphic Disorder
worry. c) Anorexia Nervosa
b) Illness Anxiety Disorder, because of the worry about health. d) Delusional Disorder, Somatic Type
c) Agoraphobia, because they are avoiding crowds. 17. An elderly man's home is filled with so many old newspapers,
d) Panic Disorder, as the core issue is the recurrent, unexpected broken appliances, and other items that his kitchen and bathroom
panic attacks and the anticipatory anxiety they create. are unusable. He becomes extremely agitated when his children try
7. A client is terrified of speaking in meetings, fearing they will say to discard anything. This is distinct from normal collecting due to
something foolish and be judged. They are comfortable in one-on- the:
one conversations with close friends but will call in sick to avoid a) Monetary value of the items.
presentations. This specific pattern of fear is most characteristic of: b) Sentimental attachment to the items.
a) Agoraphobia c) Resulting clutter that compromises the living space's intended
b) Specific Phobia, Situational Type use.
c) Social Anxiety Disorder (Social Phobia) d) Organized nature of the collection.
d) Avoidant Personality Disorder 18. What is the crucial difference between the preoccupations in
8. The primary factor that distinguishes a panic attack from a period of Obsessive-Compulsive Personality Disorder (OCPD) and the
intense anxiety is the: obsessions in Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder (OCD)?
a) Presence of cognitive symptoms like fear of losing control. a) OCPD traits are ego-syntonic, while OCD obsessions are ego-
b) Type of trigger that provokes the fear. dystonic.
c) Sudden onset and discrete, peak nature of the symptoms. b) OCD involves behavioral compulsions, whereas OCPD only
d) Duration of the emotional experience. involves mental rituals.
9. A 10-year-old child shows extreme distress when her parents leave c) OCPD is related to perfectionism, whereas OCD is related to
for work and constantly worries that something bad will happen to safety.
them. She refuses to attend sleepovers and complains of
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d) The thoughts in OCD are rational, whereas the preoccupations 29. A woman notes a predictable pattern where, in the week before her
in OCPD are not. period, she becomes extremely irritable, tearful, and overwhelmed,
19. A client presents with multiple, persistent physical complaints, to the point it affects her job performance. These symptoms resolve
including chronic fatigue and pain. They have a history of "doctor completely once her period begins. This is most likely:
shopping" and express extreme anxiety about their symptoms, a) Cyclothymic Disorder
spending hours researching them online. While medical tests are b) Premenstrual Dysphoric Disorder (PMDD)
negative, the central issue is not the symptoms themselves, but the c) Bipolar II Disorder
client's excessive and maladaptive response to them. This is d) Major Depressive Disorder with an anxious distress specifier
characteristic of: 30. A 9-year-old boy has a baseline mood of chronic irritability and
a) Illness Anxiety Disorder displays several severe temper outbursts per week at home and
b) Conversion Disorder school. These outbursts are verbal rages and physical aggression
c) Somatic Symptom Disorder that are grossly out of proportion to the situation. The most
d) Factitious Disorder appropriate diagnosis is:
20. A person has a deep-seated fear of having cancer. They have no a) Oppositional Defiant Disorder (ODD)
significant physical symptoms but are highly anxious about their b) Pediatric Bipolar Disorder
health, perform frequent self-examinations, and are not reassured c) Conduct Disorder
by negative test results. The most likely diagnosis is: d) Disruptive Mood Dysregulation Disorder (DMDD)
a) Somatic Symptom Disorder 31. A client experiences a one-week period where they are euphoric,
b) Illness Anxiety Disorder need very little sleep, talk incessantly, and invest their life savings
c) Generalized Anxiety Disorder in a risky scheme. They have no prior history of depression. The
d) Delusional Disorder, Somatic Type presence of this single episode is sufficient for a diagnosis of:
21. After witnessing a traumatic event, a patient suddenly loses their a) Bipolar II Disorder
vision. A thorough neurological examination, including a visual b) Cyclothymic Disorder
evoked potential test, finds no organic cause and reveals that the c) Bipolar I Disorder
visual pathways in the brain are intact. This clinical picture strongly d) Major Depressive Disorder with mixed features
suggests: 32. The defining feature of Anorexia Nervosa, which is not required for
a) Malingering a diagnosis of Bulimia Nervosa, is:
b) Conversion Disorder (Functional Neurological Symptom a) Binge eating
Disorder) b) Inappropriate compensatory behavior
c) Somatic Symptom Disorder c) A significantly low body weight
d) Dissociative Amnesia d) A distorted perception of body shape
22. A client describes feeling as though they are floating outside their 33. A client reports eating large amounts of food in secret, feeling a loss
body, watching their life unfold like a movie. The world around them of control, and experiencing significant shame. They engage in
feels "foggy" and unreal. They are aware that this is a strange these behaviors at least once a week but do not purge or engage
experience and fear they are "going crazy," but they have not lost in other compensatory actions. They are overweight. The most
their memory or identity. The best diagnosis is: likely diagnosis is:
a) Dissociative Identity Disorder a) Bulimia Nervosa
b) Schizophrenia, Prodromal Phase b) Anorexia Nervosa, binge-eating/purging type
c) Acute Stress Disorder c) Binge-Eating Disorder
d) Depersonalization/Derealization Disorder d) Other Specified Feeding or Eating Disorder
23. A soldier returns from a combat zone and cannot recall a two-day 34. An individual with Bulimia Nervosa must engage in recurrent
period during which their convoy was attacked. They can remember episodes of binge eating and:
events immediately before and after the attack. This specific type of a) Be significantly underweight.
memory loss is known as: b) Have a complete lack of concern about their weight.
a) Dissociative Fugue c) Engage in recurrent inappropriate compensatory behaviors to
b) Generalized Amnesia prevent weight gain.
c) Localized Amnesia d) Experience binges for at least six months before seeking
d) Selective Amnesia treatment.
24. In assessing a client who presents with distinct alternate identities, 35. A man is sexually aroused by the act of exposing his genitals to
what is the most critical feature a clinician must establish to unsuspecting strangers. He has acted on these urges multiple
differentiate Dissociative Identity Disorder (DID) from other times, causing significant distress to his victims. The factor that
conditions like Borderline Personality Disorder or Bipolar Disorder? makes this a paraphilic disorder rather than just a paraphilia is:
a) A history of severe childhood trauma. a) The fact that the interest is statistically rare.
b) The presence of recurrent gaps in the recall of everyday events b) The non-consensual nature of the act, causing harm to others.
or important personal information. c) The use of an inanimate object for arousal.
c) Rapidly shifting moods and impulsive behaviors. d) The presence of the fantasy alone.
d) A subjective feeling of identity confusion. 36. An individual assigned female at birth has, for as long as she can
25. A man is found in another city, living under a new name and working remember, had a strong and persistent internal sense of being
a new job. He has no memory of his previous life or identity. This male. This incongruence causes her clinically significant distress
phenomenon, known as dissociative fugue, is considered a and has impaired her social relationships. This presentation is the
specifier for which disorder? core of:
a) Dissociative Identity Disorder a) Transvestic Disorder
b) Depersonalization/Derealization Disorder b) Body Dysmorphic Disorder
c) Dissociative Amnesia c) Gender Dysphoria
d) Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder d) Ego-dystonic Sexual Orientation
26. When evaluating a client for a dissociative disorder versus 37. In Substance Use Disorder, "withdrawal" is defined as:
malingering, a key indicator of malingering is often: a) The need to use increasing amounts of a substance to achieve
a) The presence of genuine distress and impairment. the same effect.
b) Symptoms that are vague and inconsistent with known disorders. b) A maladaptive behavioral and physiological syndrome that
c) The client's eagerness to detail their symptoms and the presence occurs when substance use is reduced or stopped.
of a clear external incentive (e.g., avoiding criminal prosecution). c) The failure to fulfill major life roles due to substance use.
d) A reluctance to discuss the symptoms due to shame or d) A strong desire or urge to use the substance.
confusion. 38. The primary reason Gambling Disorder is classified alongside
27. To diagnose Major Depressive Disorder, the patient must Substance-Use Disorders in the DSM-5 is because:
experience a depressed mood or anhedonia for most of the day, a) It has similar neurobiological features, activating the brain's
nearly every day, for at least: reward system in a comparable way.
a) One week b) Most people who gamble also have a substance use disorder.
b) Two weeks c) It is a legally regulated activity, just like alcohol and tobacco.
c) One month d) Both can lead to significant financial problems.
d) Two months 39. A client reports an irresistible urge to set fires. They experience a
28. A key feature that differentiates Persistent Depressive Disorder build-up of tension before the act and a feeling of intense pleasure
(Dysthymia) from Major Depressive Disorder is that PDD is: and relief afterward. They are not motivated by money, revenge, or
a) More severe in its acute symptoms. political ideology. This is characteristic of:
b) Chronic in nature, lasting for at least two years. a) Arson
c) Always accompanied by psychotic features. b) Conduct Disorder
d) Characterized by manic episodes. c) Pyromania
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d) Intermittent Explosive Disorder three weeks before a full remission. Their functioning returns to
40. Intermittent Explosive Disorder is distinguished from other forms of normal. The most appropriate diagnosis is:
aggression by the fact that the aggressive outbursts are: a) Schizophreniform Disorder
a) Premeditated and goal-oriented. b) Brief Psychotic Disorder
b) Always directed toward objects and not people. c) Delusional Disorder
c) Impulsive, unplanned, and grossly out of proportion to the d) Schizophrenia
provocation. 51. A client has a 10-year history of schizophrenia symptoms. For the
d) Better explained by another mental disorder, such as Antisocial past five years, they have also experienced distinct periods of major
Personality Disorder. depression that are prominent and present for the majority of the
41. A woman is arrested for shoplifting for the fifth time. She steals total duration of the illness. The most accurate diagnosis is:
items she does not need and could easily afford, such as cheap a) Schizophrenia and Major Depressive Disorder
trinkets and office supplies. She reports feeling a sense of tension b) Schizoaffective Disorder
before stealing and relief afterward. This pattern suggests: c) Major Depressive Disorder with Psychotic Features
a) Antisocial Personality Disorder d) Bipolar I Disorder with Psychotic Features
b) Kleptomania 52. A key diagnostic criterion for Autism Spectrum Disorder (ASD) that
c) A manic episode helps differentiate it from Social (Pragmatic) Communication
d) A response to delusional beliefs Disorder is:
42. A client has a long-standing pattern of being socially inhibited and a) Deficits in using communication for social purposes.
feeling inadequate. They are hypersensitive to negative evaluation b) The presence of restricted, repetitive patterns of behavior,
and avoid social situations unless they are certain of being liked. interests, or activities.
However, they secretly desire connection with others. This clinical c) Difficulty in understanding non-literal language.
picture is most consistent with: d) Impairment in social relationships.
a) Schizoid Personality Disorder 53. A child has difficulty sustaining attention in class, often fails to finish
b) Schizotypal Personality Disorder schoolwork, is forgetful, and loses things. However, they are not
c) Avoidant Personality Disorder hyperactive or impulsive. The most likely ADHD presentation is:
d) Paranoid Personality Disorder a) Combined presentation
43. A 24-year-old client presents as a "loner." He has no interest in b) Predominantly inattentive presentation
forming relationships, is indifferent to praise or criticism, and derives c) Predominantly hyperactive/impulsive presentation
little pleasure from any activities. He works as a nighttime security d) Unspecified presentation
guard and has no close friends. This pattern is most indicative of: 54. A diagnosis of Intellectual Disability requires deficits in intellectual
a) Avoidant Personality Disorder functioning (e.g., reasoning, problem-solving) and what else?
b) Schizoid Personality Disorder a) The presence of a known genetic syndrome.
c) Asperger's Syndrome (now part of ASD) b) Onset of symptoms after age 18.
d) Major Depressive Disorder c) Deficits in adaptive functioning that result in failure to meet
44. A 24-year-old client reports a history of intense, chaotic developmental and sociocultural standards.
relationships that end abruptly. She describes feeling "empty" d) A co-occurring diagnosis of Autism Spectrum Disorder.
inside unless she is with her partner, often adopting their hobbies 55. An 80-year-old patient in the hospital following surgery develops a
and personality traits. When a recent breakup occurred, she fluctuating disturbance in attention and awareness. They are
impulsively spent all her savings on a trip and engaged in self- disoriented, and their speech is incoherent. These symptoms
harming behavior. She has episodes of intense anger but also developed over hours and are worse at night. This clinical picture is
periods of stable mood. Which diagnosis best captures this entire characteristic of:
clinical picture? a) Major Neurocognitive Disorder (Dementia)
a) Bipolar II Disorder b) Delirium
b) Histrionic Personality Disorder c) Dissociative Amnesia
c) Borderline Personality Disorder d) Acute Stress Disorder
d) Dependent Personality Disorder 56. The primary distinction between Major and Mild Neurocognitive
45. A corporate executive is described by his colleagues as arrogant Disorder is that in Major NCD, the cognitive deficits:
and exploitative. He believes he is uniquely brilliant, requires a) Are caused by a specific medical condition.
constant praise, and reacts with rage to any criticism. He lacks b) Are accompanied by mood disturbances.
empathy for subordinates, viewing them as tools for his own c) Interfere with capacity for independence in everyday activities.
success. The most likely personality disorder diagnosis is: d) Have a sudden onset and fluctuate in severity.
a) Antisocial Personality Disorder 57. A study finds that if a monozygotic (identical) twin has
b) Histrionic Personality Disorder schizophrenia, the other twin has a 48% chance of developing it.
c) Narcissistic Personality Disorder For dizygotic (fraternal) twins, the rate is 17%. The most accurate
d) Obsessive-Compulsive Personality Disorder conclusion from this data is that:
46. A manager is so preoccupied with rules, details, and schedules that a) Schizophrenia is caused solely by environmental factors.
they often miss project deadlines. They are inflexible about matters b) The family environment is the most critical factor in
of morality, are unable to delegate tasks, and have a miserly schizophrenia's etiology.
spending style. Their employees find them rigid and controlling. c) There is a strong genetic component to schizophrenia, but it is
This presentation is most consistent with: not purely genetic.
a) Narcissistic Personality Disorder d) The concordance rate for identical twins should be 100% if genes
b) Paranoid Personality Disorder were involved.
c) Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder (OCD) 58. A child is adopted at birth. The biological mother has Bipolar
d) Obsessive-Compulsive Personality Disorder (OCPD) Disorder, while the adoptive parents have no history of mental
47. A client with schizophrenia believes that the characters in a TV illness. If the child develops Bipolar Disorder, this provides the
show are insulting him and laughing at him. This is an example of a strongest evidence for:
delusion of: a) The influence of the adoptive environment.
a) Persecution b) Genetic transmission of vulnerability.
b) Grandeur c) A random, non-familial cause.
c) Reference d) The diathesis-stress model.
d) Control 59. The fact that disorders like depression or schizophrenia are likely
48. A "negative" symptom of schizophrenia, such as alogia, refers to: caused by the interaction of many different genes, rather than a
a) The presence of an abnormal behavior, like hallucinations. single "depression gene," is known as a ______ model.
b) A deficit or absence of a normal behavior, such as diminished a) Mendelian
speech output. b) Polygenic
c) A common but less severe symptom of the disorder. c) Recessive
d) A symptom that responds well to medication. d) Dominant
49. Disorganized speech, such as "word salad" or frequent derailment, 60. An individual's genetic makeup may increase the likelihood that
is considered a: they will seek out and experience stressful life events. For example,
a) Negative symptom a genetic predisposition for impulsivity might lead to choices that
b) Positive symptom create financial and relationship stress. This concept is known as:
c) Cognitive symptom a) Gene-environment interaction (GxE)
d) Mood symptom b) Gene-environment correlation (rGE)
50. A 22-year-old college student experiences the sudden onset of c) Epigenetics
delusions, hallucinations, and disorganized speech, which last for d) Genetic determinism

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61. The "dopamine hypothesis" of schizophrenia has been refined. It is a) specific gene linked to serotonin transport.
now believed that negative symptoms and cognitive deficits may be b) pessimistic attributional style developed in childhood.
related to ______ dopamine in the ______ cortex, while positive c) sudden job loss in adulthood.
symptoms are related to ______ dopamine in subcortical regions. d) lack of social support.
a) excess; prefrontal; deficient 74. A study finds that individuals with a certain genetic allele for
b) deficient; prefrontal; excess depression are no more likely to be depressed than the general
c) excess; temporal; deficient population- unless they experience multiple stressful life events.
d) deficient; temporal; excess This finding is a direct example of:
62. Antidepressant medications like SSRIs (Selective Serotonin a) Gene-environment correlation
Reuptake Inhibitors) primarily function by: b) Gene-environment interaction
a) Decreasing the amount of serotonin in the brain. c) Polygenic inheritance
b) Increasing the amount of time serotonin is available in the d) Heritability
synaptic cleft. 75. Epigenetics is the study of how:
c) Blocking dopamine receptors. a) Genes directly cause behavior.
d) Increasing the brain's production of norepinephrine. b) The environment can influence the expression of genes without
63. The HPA (Hypothalamic-Pituitary-Adrenal) axis is a hormonal changing the DNA sequence itself.
system closely linked to the body's stress response. Chronic over- c) Multiple genes contribute to a single disorder.
activation of this system, leading to elevated cortisol levels, is most d) Genetic mutations lead to psychological disorders.
strongly implicated in the etiology of: 76. In some East Asian cultures, psychological distress is often
a) Schizophrenia expressed through physical symptoms (somatization) rather than
b) Major Depression and Anxiety Disorders emotional language. A culturally incompetent clinician might
c) Specific Phobias misdiagnose a client from this background with a Somatic Symptom
d) Personality Disorders Disorder instead of recognizing:
64. A client with Panic Disorder has a hypersensitive fear network in a) Malingering
their brain. Which structure is likely playing a key role in this b) A culture-specific expression of a mood or anxiety disorder.
hypersensitivity by rapidly processing potential threats? c) A genuine, undiagnosed medical condition.
a) The Hippocampus d) A personality disorder.
b) The Prefrontal Cortex 77. A therapist helps a client identify their automatic negative thoughts,
c) The Cerebellum evaluate the evidence for and against these thoughts, and generate
d) The Amygdala more balanced alternative thoughts. This technique is the
65. A person develops a phobia of elevators after being trapped in one cornerstone of:
for an hour. From a classical conditioning perspective, the elevator, a) Psychoanalysis
which was once a neutral stimulus, has now become a(n): b) Gestalt Therapy
a) Unconditioned Stimulus c) Cognitive Therapy
b) Conditioned Stimulus d) Person-Centered Therapy
c) Unconditioned Response 78. A treatment for panic disorder that involves intentionally inducing
d) Conditioned Response the physical sensations of a panic attack (e.g., spinning in a chair
66. A person with social anxiety avoids parties. This avoidance to create dizziness) in a safe setting to dispute catastrophic beliefs
temporarily reduces their anxiety, making them more likely to avoid is known as:
parties in the future. B.F. Skinner would call this ______ a) Systematic Desensitization
a) Positive Reinforcement b) Aversion Therapy
b) Negative Reinforcement c) Interoceptive Exposure
c) Positive Punishment d) Flooding
d) Negative Punishment 79. A therapist using transference analysis, dream interpretation, and
67. A young boy watches his older brother, who is terrified of needles, free association is operating from which therapeutic perspective?
scream and cry while getting a vaccination. The young boy then a) Behavioral
develops a fear of needles himself without ever having a painful b) Humanistic
injection. This is an example of: c) Cognitive
a) Operant Conditioning d) Psychodynamic
b) Classical Conditioning 80. A therapist working with a client with depression helps them to
c) Vicarious Learning (Modeling) schedule activities that they used to enjoy but have stopped doing,
d) Latent Inhibition aiming to increase their contact with positive reinforcement. This
68. According to the behavioral model, compulsions in OCD are technique is called:
maintained because they: a) Cognitive Restructuring
a) Are positively reinforced by praise from others. b) Behavioral Activation
b) Are negatively reinforced by the reduction of anxiety. c) Exposure and Response Prevention
c) Symbolize an unconscious conflict. d) Social Skills Training
d) Are driven by biological urges. 81. The "gold standard" treatment for OCD, which involves confronting
69. According to Aaron Beck's cognitive model, a person who thinks, "I feared stimuli (e.g., touching a "contaminated" object) and
failed my exam, so I'm a complete idiot and will never succeed at refraining from the associated ritual (e.g., hand-washing), is:
anything," is exhibiting which cognitive distortion? a) Systematic Desensitization
a) Mind Reading b) Exposure and Response Prevention (ERP)
b) Personalization c) Aversion Therapy
c) Overgeneralization d) Psychodynamic Psychotherapy
d) Dichotomous Thinking 82. Dialectical Behavior Therapy (DBT), often used for Borderline
70. A central tenet of cognitive theory is that psychopathology stems Personality Disorder, uniquely integrates CBT techniques with core
not from events themselves, but from: concepts of:
a) The genetic predispositions of the individual. a) Free association and dream analysis.
b) The interpretation or appraisal of those events. b) Unconditional positive regard and empathy.
c) The social environment in which the events occur. c) Mindfulness, distress tolerance, and emotion regulation.
d) The physiological responses to those events. d) Token economies and behavioral contracting.
71. In the diathesis-stress model, the "diathesis" refers to a(n) ______ 83. A therapist provides a client with unconditional positive regard,
while the "stress" refers to a(n) ______ empathy, and genuineness, believing that this supportive
a) treatment, cause environment will allow the client to achieve their own potential. This
b) environmental trigger, underlying vulnerability approach is central to:
c) underlying vulnerability; environmental trigger a) Person-Centered Therapy
d) symptom; disorder b) Rational Emotive Behavior Therapy
72. A person has a genetic predisposition for anxiety (diathesis). They c) Interpersonal Therapy
remain symptom-free until they experience a traumatic robbery d) Gestalt Therapy
(stressor), after which they develop PTSD. This case best 84. In treating PTSD, a therapist asks the client to recount the traumatic
illustrates: event in detail, repeatedly, in a safe environment, to help process
a) The Biological Model the memory and reduce its emotional impact. This technique is a
b) The Cognitive Model form of:
c) The Diathesis-Stress Model a) Systematic Desensitization
d) The Psychodynamic Model b) Prolonged Exposure
73. A psychological diathesis for depression could be a(n): c) Stress Inoculation Training
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d) Contingency Management 95. The constant exposure to news coverage and social media feeds
85. Meta-analyses comparing the effectiveness of different forms of about the pandemic was a significant driver of what psychological
psychotherapy for depression generally conclude that: phenomenon?
a) Psychodynamic therapy is vastly superior to all other forms. a) Shared psychotic disorder
b) Cognitive-Behavioral Therapy is the only effective treatment. b) Mass hysteria
c) While several therapies are effective, the therapeutic relationship c) Vicarious traumatization and heightened anxiety
(common factors) is a crucial determinant of outcome. d) A decrease in health-related behaviors
d) No therapy is more effective than a placebo. 96. For frontline healthcare workers, a major moral and psychological
86. For treating specific phobias, such as a fear of spiders or flying, challenge during the pandemic was "moral injury," which refers to
which therapeutic technique has the most robust and consistent the distress caused by:
empirical support for its efficacy? a) The fear of contracting the virus themselves.
a) Psychoanalysis b) Being unable to provide the level of care they believed was right
b) Humanistic Therapy due to systemic constraints like a lack of resources.
c) Exposure Therapy c) The physical exhaustion from long working hours.
d) Pharmacotherapy d) The lack of financial compensation for their work.
87. A diagnostic assessment developed and standardized solely on an 97. The COVID-19 pandemic severely tested the implementation of RA
urban, Western population may lack ______ when used with a rural, 11036 (The Mental Health Act) by overwhelming the healthcare
indigenous population in the Philippines. system. This highlighted the law's emphasis on what crucial but
a) Inter-rater reliability underdeveloped area?
b) Test-retest reliability a) The need for more large-scale, centralized psychiatric
c) Construct validity institutions.
d) Content validity b) The importance of integrating mental health services at the
88. The tendency for some cultures to express psychological distress primary care and community level.
as physical complaints is known as somatization. A c) The development of more expensive, high-technology psychiatric
psychometrician who is not culturally aware may overlook a treatments.
potential mood disorder by: d) The rights of individuals to refuse mental health treatment.
a) Focusing too much on the client's reported emotional state. 98. A Local Government Unit (LGU) in a rural province receives a grant
b) Attributing all physical complaints to a genuine medical condition to enhance the implementation of RA 11036, citing lessons learned
without considering psychological factors. from the COVID-19 pandemic. Which of the following initiatives
c) Refusing to use standardized assessment tools. represents the MOST effective and sustainable application of the
d) Recommending a psychiatric consultation too early in the law's principle of integrated, community-based care?
process. a) Building a new, specialized psychiatric wing in the provincial
89. A psychometrician is asked by a school principal to administer an hospital.
IQ test to a student to "prove" the student is intellectually disabled b) Launching a province-wide subscription to a premium mental
and should be transferred. The psychometrician's most ethical health app for all citizens.
response is to: c) Funding a multi-year program to train and certify Barangay
a) Administer the test as requested, as the principal is an authority Health Workers (BHWs) in psychological first aid and mental health
figure. literacy.
b) Refuse to administer the test, as it is being used to stigmatize d) Purchasing a three-year supply of psychotropic medications for
rather than help the student. the provincial pharmacy.
c) Explain that a diagnosis of Intellectual Disability requires 99. An essential right guaranteed under RA 11036 is the right to receive
assessment of both IQ and adaptive functioning and cannot be evidence-based treatment. The pandemic crisis challenged this by:
based on a single test score used for one purpose. a) Forcing a rapid, often untested, pivot to tele-mental health
d) Administer the test but intentionally alter the score to protect the platforms.
student. b) Proving that traditional face-to-face therapy is ineffective.
90. Under the PAP Code of Ethics, a psychometrician has a primary c) Making all forms of therapy illegal during lockdowns.
responsibility to protect the client's right to confidentiality. This right d) Reducing the number of people seeking help.
may be breached without the client's consent only when: 100. Evaluating the state of mental healthcare in the Philippines post-
a) A family member requests the test results. pandemic, the most critical lesson for strengthening RA 11036 is
b) A school official demands the information for administrative the need to address:
purposes. a) The over-regulation of mental health professionals.
c) There is a clear and imminent danger to the client or to another b) The public's lack of interest in mental wellness.
person. c) The vast disparity in the availability and accessibility of mental
d) The results are being used for a research study. health services between urban centers and rural communities.
91. A psychometrician in the Philippines provides a full psychological d) The over-funding of community-based programs at the expense
report to a client's parents, which includes a formal diagnosis of of hospitals.
ADHD. This action is ethically problematic because:
a) The parents should not have access to their own child's report.
b) The formal act of diagnosing a psychological disorder is outside
the legally defined scope of practice for a psychometrician.
c) ADHD is not a real disorder and should not be included in a
report.
d) Only a psychiatrist can be involved in cases of ADHD.
92. The widespread shift to work-from-home arrangements during the
COVID-19 pandemic contributed to burnout primarily by:
a) Increasing the amount of social interaction with colleagues.
b) Erasing the physical and temporal boundaries between work life
and home life.
c) Reducing the technological demands on employees.
d) Providing employees with more leisure time.
93. The mental health impact of the COVID-19 pandemic on
adolescents was particularly acute due to the disruption of:
a) Access to online entertainment.
b) Their developing circadian rhythms.
c) Peer relationships and developmental milestones like
graduation.
d) Their relationship with their parents.
94. One of the most significant barriers to mental healthcare access
during the pandemic lockdowns was:
a) The sudden decrease in the prevalence of mental health
problems.
b) The digital divide, limiting access to tele-mental health services
for those without stable internet or technology.
c) The refusal of mental health professionals to work remotely.
d) A widespread belief that mental health was not a priority during
a physical health crisis.
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