SR EDUCATIONAL ACADAMEY

CHAPTER 18
BODY FLUIDS AND CIRCULATION
SECTION A: TOPICWISE QUESTIONS
TOPIC 1: Blood
Plasma and Formed Elements
1. Fill in the blanks:
a. Simple organisms like sponges and coelenterates circulate ...1... From their surroundings through their body
cavities to facilitate the cells to exchange of O2, CO2, nutrients and waste products
b. More complex organisms use special fluids within their bodies to transport such materials. The ...2... Is most
commonly used body fluid by most of the higher organisms including humans for this purpose?
c. Another body fluid ...3... Also helps in the transport of certain substances.
(A) 1—lymph, 2—water, 3—blood (B) 3—lymph, 1—water, 2—blood
(C) 2—lymph, 3—water, 1—blood (D) 2—lymph, 1—water, 3—blood
2. Read the following statements and find out the incorrect statements.
a. Blood is a loose connective tissue consisting of a fluid matrix, plasma and formed elements,
b. Plasma is a straw colored, viscous fluid constituting nearly 90-92 percent of the blood.
c. 55 percent of plasma is water and proteins contribute 6-8 per cent of it.
d. fibrinogen are needed for clotting or coagulation of blood.
e. factors for clotting of blood are present in the Plasma in an inactive form.
(A) a, b and c (B) b, c and d (C) c, d and e (D) a, b and e
3. Which of the following is not a constituent of formed elements?
(A) Erythrocytes (B) Leucocytes (C) Platelets (D) Plasma
4. Match the columns I and II, and choose the correct combination from the options given.
Column I (WBCs) Column II (Function)
a. Eosinophils 1. Involved in inflammatory reactions
b. Basophils 2. Allergic reactions
c. Neutrophils 3. Responsible for immune response
d. Lymphocytes 4. Phagocytic cells
e. Monocytes 5. Gas transport
(A) a—4, b—5, c—1, d—2, e—3 (B) a—2, b—1, c—4, d—3, e—5
(C) a—1, b—2, c—3, d—4, e—3 (D) a—2, b—1, c—4, d—3, e—4
5. Which of the following leucocytes destroy foreign organisms entering the body?
a. Eosinophils, b. Basophils, c. Neutrophils, d. Monocytes, e. Lymphocytes
(A) a and b (B) b and c (C) c and d (D) d and e
6. The most abundant and least abundant cells of the blood are
(A) RBCs and WBCs respectively (B) WBCs and RBCs respectively
(C) RBCs and platelets respectively (D) Platelets and RBCs respectively
7. Most abundant and least abundant WBCs are
(A) Lymphocytes and monocytes respectively (B) Neutrophils and basophils respectively
(C) Eosinophils and monocytes respectively (D) Neutrophils and eosinophils respectively
8. Platelets are also called
(A) Thromboplasts (B) Thromboblasts (C) Thrombocytes (D) Megakaryocytes
9. Platelets are the cell fragments produced from
(A) Thromboplasts (B) Thromboblasts (C) Thrombocytes (D) Megakaryocytes

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10. Recognise the figure and find out the correct matching.

(A) a—B lymphocyte, b—RBCs, c—monocyte, d— eosinophil

(B) a—RBC, b—platelets, c—T lymphocyte, d— eosinophil
(C) a—RBC, b—platelets, c—eosinophil, d— T lymphocyte
(D) a—RBC, b—platelets, c—neutrophil, d— B lymphocyte
11. Megakaryocytes are present in
(A) Blood (B) Liver (C) Bone (D) Bone marrow
12. A reduction in the number of platelets can lead to
(A) Blood coagulation inside vessels (B) Clotting disorders
(C) Excessive loss of blood from the body (D) Both B and C
13. Blood grouping which is/are widely used all over the world are
(A) ABO grouping (B) Rh grouping (C) Both A and B (D) None of the above
14. Match the columns I and II, and choose the correct combination from the options given.
Column I Column II
a. Eosinophils 1. 0.5—1%
b. Basophils 2. 2—3%
c. Neutrophils 3. 6—8%
d. Lymphocytes 4. 20—25%
e. Monocytes 5. 60—65%
(A) a—1, b—2, e—3, c—4, d—5 (B) b—1, a—2, e—3, d—4, c—5
(C) c—1, a—2, b—3, d—4, e—5 (D) b—1, c—2, d—3, c—4, e—5
15. Haemoglobin value for a healthy adult male is
(A) 10 g/100 ml (B) 11 g/100ml (C) 12 g/100 ml (D) 12-16 g/100 ml
16. The correct descending order of percentage proportion of leucocytes in human blood is
(A) Neutrophils —> Basophils —> Lymphocytes —> Acidophils —> monocytes
(B) Neutrophils —>Monocytes —> Lymphocytes —> Acidophils —> Basophils
(C) Neutrophils—> Lymphocytes —> Monocytes -> Acidophils —> Basophils
(D) Neutrophils —> Acidophils —> Basophils —> Lymphocytes —> Monocytes
17. Which leucocyte secretes both heparin and histamine?
(A) Acidophil (B) Monocyte (C) Basophil (D) Neutrophil
18. Cell fragments of megakaryocytes yield
(A) Erythrocytes (B) Granulocytes (C) Agranularcytes (D) Blood platelets
19. Which among the following statements are correct and which are wrong?
1. Plasma constitutes 45% of blood.
2. Albumin is plasma protein involved in osmotic balance.
3. Blood clotting factors are present in blood.
4. Plasma without clotting factors is serum.
5. Minerals are not found in blood
(A) 1-4 correct, 5 wrong (B) 1-2 correct, 3, 4, 5 wrong
(C) 2, 3, 4 correct, 1 and 5 wrong (D) 2 and 4 correct, 1, 3, 5 wrong
20. Allergic responses are regulated by
(A) Eosinophils (B) Neutrophils (C) Basophils (D) Monocytes

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21. Osmotic pressure is maintained by blood colloid
(A) Albumin (B) Thrombin (C) Fibrinogen (D) Globulin.
22. Kidney-shaped nucleus occurs in
(A) Neutrophil (B) Eosinophil (C) Monocyte (D) Lymphocyte
23. Mammalian RBCs are enucleated so that
(A) Nucleus is non-essential for RBC (B) RBCs cannot divide
(C) RBCs can carry more Hb (D) Nucleus does not show lathal effect
24. In leucopenia
(A) Leucocytes increase above 6000 (B) Leucocytes decrease below 5000
(C) Bone marrow is destroyed (D) Total number of lymphocytes decrease from 2% to 0.5%
25. Match the columns I and II, and choose the correct combination from the options given.
Column I Column II
(Formed elements) (Number)
a. Erythrocytes 1. 5-5.5 millions mm-3
b. Leucocytes 2. 6000-8000 mm-3
c. Platelets 3. 1,50,000-3,50,000 mm-3
(A) a—1, b—2, c—3 (B) a—2, b—1, c—3
(C) a—3, b—2, c—1 (D) a—1, b—3, c—2
26. Which ones of the following statements are wrong?
(a) Leucocytes disintegrate in spleen and liver.
(b) RBC, WBC and blood platelets are produced by bone marrow.
(c) Neutrophils bring about destruction and detoxification of toxins of protein origin.
(d) Important function of lymphocytes is to produce antibodies.
(A) a and b only (B) a and d only (C) a and c only (D) b and c only
27. Recognise the figure and find out the correct matching.

(A) a—basophil, c—neutrophil, d—B lymphocyte, b— monocyte

(B) c—basophil, d—neutrophil, a—B lymphocyte, b— monocyte
(C) b—basophil, a—neutrophil, c—B lymphocyte, d— monocyte
(D) c—basophil, d—neutrophil, b—B lymphocyte, a— monocyte
28. Abnormal fall in total count of WBCs in the human blood is called
(A) Anaemia (B) Polycythemia (C) Leucopenia (D) Leukaemia
29. Plasma proteins perform
(A) Nutritive function (B) Physicochemical function
(C) Transport function (D) All of the above
30. Which one secretes anticoagulant?
(A) Mast cells (B) Nerve cells (Q Adipose cells (D) Plasma cells
31. Largest corpuscles of mammalian blood are
(A) Lymphocytes (B) Basophils (C) Erythrocytes (D) Monocytes
32. The ratioof RBC to WBC in human is
(A) 6 : 1 (B) 60 : 1 (C) 600 : 1 (D) 6000 : 1
33. Which is correct about leucocytes?
(A) They are red coloured (B) They can cross capillaries

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(C) They are enucleate (D) Decrease in their number causes leukemia
34. A sample of blood shows clumping with antiserum A but not with antiserum B. The blood group would be
(A) O (B) A (C) B (D) AB
35. Match the columns I and II, and choose the correct combination from the options given.
Column I Column II
a. Eosinophils 1. Coagulation
b. RBC 2. Universal Recipient
c. AB group 3. Resist infection
d. Platelets 4. Contraction of Heart
e. Systole 5. Gas transport
(A) a—3, b—5, c—2, d—1, e—4 (B) a—5, b—1, c—3, d—4, e—2
(C) a—3, b—1, c—2, d—5, e—4 (D) a—3, b—5, c—2, d—4, e—1
36. Donor X and recipient Y belong to same blood group. Transfusion has led to RBC agglutination because
(A) X is Rh+, Y is Rh' (B) X is Rh", Y is Rh+
(C) Both are Rh+ (D) Both are Rh~
37. Thrombocytes have a life of
(A) 3-4 weeks (B) 4-5 weeks (C) 3-4 days (D) None of the above
38. pH of blood in arteries and veins is
(A) Higher in arteries and lower in veins (B) Higher in veins and lower in arteries
(C) Same in both (D) Variable in both
39. Cells forms in bone marrow include
(A) RBCs only (B) RBC and leucocytes (C) Leucocytes only (D) Lymphocytes only
TOPIC 2: Blood Groups
ABO Grouping and Rh Grouping
40. Chemicals that can induce immune response are called
(A) Antigen (B) Antibody (C) Antiserum (D) Antitoxin
41. Fill in the blanks:
Blood groups Antigens on RBCs Antibodies in plasma
A A …1…
B B …2…
AB …3… …4…
O …5… Anti –A,B
(A) 1—anti-A, 2—anti-B, 3—nil, A—anti-B, 5—A, B
(B) 1—anti-A, 2—anti-B, 3—A, B, A—nil, 5—nil
(C) 1—anti-B, 2—anti-A, 3—A, B, A—nil, 5—nil
(D) 1—anti-B, 2—anti-A, 3—nil, A—anti-B, 5—A, B
42. How many individuals are Rh positive (Rh +ve)?
(A) 80% (B) 20% (C) 33% (D) 67%
43. Which of the following is true for erythroblastosis foetalis?
(A) This could cause severe anaemia (B) This could cause jaundice
(C) This could be fatal to the foetus (D) All of the above
44. Erythroblastosis foetalis can be avoided by administering ...a... to the ...b... immediately after the delivery
of the ...c... child.
(A) a—Rh antibodies, b—child, c—first
(B) a—Rh antibodies, b—mother, c—second
(C) a—anti-Rh antibodies, b—mother, c—second
(D) a—anti-Rh antibodies, b—mother, c—first

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45. Rh (-ve) person donated blood to Rh (+ve) person for second time. Then
(A) Rh (-ve) blood starts reacting to Rh (-ve) blood (B) Rh (+ve) person will die
(C) Rh (-ve) person will die (D) Nothing happens to Rh (+ve) person
46. Rh factor is connected to species of monkey
(A) Macaca radiata (B) Presbytes rhesus (C) Macaca rhesus (D) Macaca mulatta
47. Rh factor occurs in
(A) All reptiles (B) Man and Rhesus Monkey
(C) All mammals (D) All vertebrates
48. Factors present on surface of RBC related to heredity are
(A) Blood groups (B) Antigens (C) Antibodies (D) Haemoglobin
49. For safe blood transfusion
(A) Donor’s RBC should not contain antibodies against recipient’s serum
(B) Recipient’s serum should not contain antigens against donor’s antibodies
(C) Recipient’s serum should not contain antibodies against RBC of donors
(D) Recipient’s RBC should not contain antibodies against donor’s antigens
50. Blood groups were discovered by
(A) Harvey (B) Landsteiner (C) Miller (D) Hippocrates
51. A doctor suggested to a couple not to have more than child because of
(A) Rh+ male and Rh" female (B) Rh+ male and Rh+ female
(C) Rh+ male and Rh+ female (D) Rh- male and Rh" female
52. Blood group is due to
(A) Specific antigens on the surface of WBC
(B) Specific antibodies on the surface of RBC
(C) Specific antigens on the surface of RBC
(D) Type of haemoglobin
53. Most common blood group in India and World is
(A) AB (B) A (C) B (D) O
54. Person with blood group A possesses
(A) Antigen A and antibodies b (B) Antigen A and antibodies a
(C) No antigen but antibodies a and b (D) Antigen A and B but no antibodies
55. A person with blood group A requires blood. The group which can be given is
(A) A and B (B) A and AB (C) A and O (D) A, B, AB and C
56. The disease erythroblastosis foetalis of human be due to
(A) Incompatibility of blood groups of the couple
(B) Incompatibility of blood groups of embryo an mother
(C) Maladjustment of Rh factor
(D) All of the above
57. Child death may occur in the marriage of
(A) Rh+ man and Rh- woman (B) Rh+ man and Rh+ woman
(C) Rh+ man and Rh+ woman (D) Rh- man and Rh- woman
58. An Rh- individual receives Rh+ blood. The re becomes
(A) Sterile (B) Dead (C) No reaction (D) Iso-immunised
59. Rh factor is named after
(A) Monkey (B) Drosophila (C) Rat (D) Man
TOPIC 3:
Coagulation of Blood and Tissue Fluid
60. A dark reddish brown scum formed at the site of cut or an injury over a period of time which is called

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(A) Clot (B) Scar (C) Coagulum (D) Both A and C
61. An enzyme complex which is formed by a series of linked enzymic reactions (cascade process) is called
(A) Thrombin (B) Prothrombin (C) Thrombokinase (D) Fibrinogen
62. Clot is formed mainly of a network of threads called
(A) Fibrinogen (B) Prothrombin (C) Thrombin (D) Fibrin
a
63. Prothrombin------ > Thrombin
b
Fibrinogen------ > Fibrin
Recognise a and b
(A) a—thrombokinase, b—thrombin (B) a—fibrin, b—thrombokinase
(C) a—thrombokinase, b—thrombinase (D) a—thrombinase, b—thrombokinase
64. Thromboplastin required for blood clotting at the place of injury is released by
(A) Blood platelets (B) Eosinophils (C) Neutrophils (D) Lymphocytes
65. Important function of lymph is
(A) Transport oxygen to brain (B) Transport CO2 to lungs
(C) Return RBCs to lymph nodes (D) Return interstitial fluid to blood
66. Murmur occurs due to defect in
(A) Heart valves (B) SAnode (C) AV node (D) Purkinje fibres
67. Normal blood level of calcium in adults is
(A) 20-30 mg/dl (B) 15.5-20.0 mg/dl (C) 8.5-10.5 mg/dl (D) 5 mg/dl
68. Which one of the following substances, if introduced in blood stream would cause coagulation of blood at
the site of its introduction?
(A) Prothrombin (B) Fibrinogen (C) Thromboplastin (D) Heparin
69. Which one has no role in blood coagulation?
(A) Fibrinogen (B) Calcium (C) Vitamin K (D) Vitamin D
70. Lymph consists of
(A) RBCs, WBCs and plasma (B) RBCs, proteins and platelets
(C) All components of blood except RBCs and some larger plasma proteins
(D) WBCs and serum
71. Blood protein which initiates blood coagulation is
(A) Prothrombin (B) Thrombin (C) Fibrinogen (D) Fibrin
72. Conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin is catalysed by
(A) Prothrombin (B) Thromboplastin (C) Thrombin (D) All of the above
73. Which one is the common anticoagulant used for preserving blood?
(A) Sodium hydroxide (B) Sodium chloride (C) Sodium oxalate (D) Sodium bicarbonate
74. During blood coagulation, vitamin K helps in
(A) Formation of prothrombin (B) Formation of thromoboplastin
(C) Conversion of fibrinogen into fibrin (D) Conversion of prothrombin to thrombin
TOPIC 4: Circulatory Pathways
Human Circulatory System, Cardiac Cycle and ECG
75. The circulatory pattern in which blood pumped by the heart passes through large vessels into open spaces
or body cavities (sinuses) is
(A) Open circulatory system (B) Closed circulatory system
(C) Incomplete circulatory system (D) Mixed circulatory system
76. In crocodiles, heart is
(A) Two-chambered (B) Three-chambered (C) Four-chambered (D) Thirteen-chambered

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77. In which of the following, heart pump mixed blood
(A) Single circulation (B) Incomplete double circulation
(C) Double circulation (D) Both A and B
78. Read the following statements and find out the incorrect statements.
a. Heart is situated in the thoracic cavity, is between the two lungs, slightly tilted to the right.
b. Heart has the size of a clenched fist.
c. Heart is protected by double walled membranous bag, pericardium, enclosed the pericardial fluid.
d. Human heart has four chambers, two relatively larger upper chambers called atria and two smaller lower
chambers called ventricles.
e. A thick muscular wall called the inter-atrial septum separates the right and the left atria, whereas a thin-
walled, the inter-ventricular septum, separates the left and right ventricles.
(A) a, d and e (B) b, c and d (C) b, c and e (D) a and d
79. The opening of the right and the left ventricles into the pulmonary artery and the aorta respectively are
provided with the
(A) Bicuspid valves (B) Tricuspid valves (C) Semilunar valves (D) Both A and B
80. Read the following statements and find out the incorrect statement.
(A) The entire heart is made of cardiac muscles.
(B) A specialised cardiac musculature called the nodal tissue is also distributed in the heart.
(C) The walls of ventricles are much thicker than that of the atria.
(D) None of the above.
81. Recognise the figure and find out the correct matching.

(A) a—SAN, b—AVN, c—Bundle of His, d—Chordae tendinae

(B) b—-SAN, a—AVN, c—Bundle of His, d—Chordae tendinae
(C) a—SAN, b—AVN, d—Bundle of His, c—Chordae tendinae
(D) b—SAN, a—AVN, d—Bundle of His, c—Chordae tendinae
82. The atrium and ventricle of same side are separated by a thick fibrous tissue called the
(A) Inter-atrial septum (B) Inter-ventricular septum
(C) Atrio-ventricular septum (D) Atrio-ventricular valve
83. Sino-atrial node (SAN) is a patch of nodal tissue is present in
(A) Right upper comer of right atrium (B) Left upper comer of right atrium
(C) Right lower comer of left atrium (D) Left lower comer of left atrium
84. Match the columns 1 and II, and choose the correct combination from the options given.
Column I (Organisms) Column II (Heart)

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a. Fishes 1. Two-chambered
b. Amphibians 2. Three-chambered
c. Reptiles 3. F our-chambered
d. Birds
e. Mammals
(A) a—l,b—l,c—2, d—2, e—3 (B) a—1, b—1, c—2, d—3, e—3
(C) a—1, b—2, c—2, d—3, e—3 (D) a—1, b—2, c—3, d—2, e—2
85. Another mass of nodal tissue called atrio-ventricular node (AVN) is present in
(A) Right upper comer of right atrium (B) Left upper comer of right atrium
(C) Right lower comer of left atrium (D) Left lower comer of right atrium
86. A bundle of nodal fibres, which continues from the AVN which passes through the atrio-ventricular
septa to emerge on the top of the inter-ventricular septum is called
(A) Right and left bundle (B) Atrio-ventricular bundle (AV bundle)
(C) Purkinje fibres (D) Bundle of His
87. On the top of inter-ventricular septum AV bundle immediately divides and form
(A) Right and left bundle (B) Purkinje fibres (C) Bundle of His (D) Both A and B
88. Right and left bundles give rise to minute fibres throughout the ventricular musculature to the
respective sides and called
(A) Bundle fibres (B) Purkinje fibres (C) Bundle of His (D) Both A and B
89. Purkinje fibre along with right and left bundles are known as
(A) Bundle branches (B) Bundle of His (C) Purkinje bundle (D) Both A and C
90. The maximum number of action potentials are generated by
(A) SAN (B) AVN (C) AV bundle (D) Bundle of His
91. Which is correct about joint diastole?
a. Bicuspid and tricuspid valves are open b. Bicuspid and tricuspid valves are closed
c. Semilunar valves are open d. Semilunar valves are closed
(A) a and c (B) b and d (C) a and d (D) b and c
92 In this figure, peak point (a) is represented by letter

(A) P (B) Q (C) R (D) S

93. The atrial systole increases the flow of blood into the ventricles by about
(A) 30% (B) 70% (C) 33% (D) 45%
94. What will happen during the ventricular systole?
a. Bicuspid and tricuspid valves are open
b. Bicuspid and tricuspid valves are closed c. Semilunar valves are open
d. Semilunar valves are closed
(A) aandc (B) bandd (C) aandd (D) bandc
95. During a cardiac cycle, each ventricle pump out blood which is called
(A) Stroke volume (B) Cardiac output (C) Beat volume (D) Both AandC
96. The body has ability to alter the
(A) Stroke volume (B) Heart rate (C) Cardiac output (D) All of the above
97. Match the columns I and II, and choose the correct combination from the options given.
Column I Column II
(Organisms) (Circulation)

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 a. Fishes 1. Single circulation
b. Amphibians 2. Incomplete double circulation
c. Reptiles 3. Double circulation
d. Birds
e. Mammals
(A) a—1, b—1, c—2, d—2, e—3 (B) a—1, b— 1, c—2, d—3, e—3
(C) a—1, b—2, c—2, d—3, e—3 (D) a—1, b—2, c—3, d—2, e—2
98. How many cardiac cycles performed per minute?
(A) 72 (B) 12-16 (C) 80-120 (D) 30
99. Number of beats per minute is called
(A) Beat number (B) Heart rate (C) Stroke rate (D) All of the above
100. The graphical representation of the electrical activity of the heart during a cardiac cycle is called
(A) Electrocardiogram (B) Electrocardiograph
(C) Electroencephalograph (D) Both A and B
101. The recording (ECG) of the heart activity is taken by the machine
(A) Electrocardiogram (B) Electrocardiograph
(C) Electroencephalograph (D) Both A and B
102. Read the following statements and find out the incorrect statement.
(A) For a detailed evaluation of the heart’s function, multiple leads are attached to the chest region.
(B) The end of the P-wave marks the end of systole.
(C) The ventricular contraction starts shortly after Q and marks the beginning of the systole.
(D) By counting the number of QRS complexes that occur in a given time period, one can determine the heart
beat rate of an individual.
103. Most probable cause of heart attack is
(A) Cardiac arrest (B) Systolic pressure of 120 mm Hg
(C) Arteriosclerosis (D) High level of HDL
104. ECG is employed for study of
(A) Lung ailments (B) Brain defects (C) Heart problems (D) Kidney defects
105. Amount of blood pumped by heart into body per minute is
(A) Atrial output (B) Ventricular output (C) Cardiac output (D) Stroke volume
106. Cardiac output is determined by
(A) Blood flow (B) Heart rate (C) Stroke volume (D) Both B and C
107. Value of cardiac output is
(A) Auricular volume x ventricular volume (B) Stroke volume x rate of heart beat
(C) Blood pumped in one minute (D) Both B and C
108. Mixing of oxygenated and deoxygenated blood occurs in the ventricle of
(A) Scoliodon (B) Frog (C) Rabbit (D) Pigeon
109. Recognise the figure and find out the correct matching.

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(A) b—pulmonary vein, a—vena cava, c—aorta, d— right atrium, e—left atrium
(B) c—pulmonary artery, b—vena cava, a—aorta, e— right atrium, d—left atrium
(C) a—pulmonary vein, c—vena cava, b—aorta, d— right atrium, e—left atrium
(D) c—pulmonary artery, a—vena cava, b—aorta, e— right atrium, d—left atrium
110. Bundle of His is
(A) Nervous tissue supplying ventricles (B) Nervous tissue supplying heart
(C) Muscular tissue supplying heart (D) Muscular tissue supplying ventricle
111. Which ones have open circulatory system?
1. Ascidia 2. Cockroach 3. Earthworm 4. Prawn
5. Silver Fish 6. Snail 7. Squid
(A) 2, 4, 6 (B) 1,2,4,6 (C) 3,4,5,7 (D) 2,4,5,6
112. Heart of heart is
(A) SA node (B) AV node (C) Bundle of His (D) Purkinje fibres
113. Mark the correct statement.
(A) Blood has WBC while lymph has RBC
(B) Blood has both RBC and WBC while lymph has none
(C) Blood has RBC while lymph has both RBC and WBC
(D) Blood has RBC and WBC while lymph has only WBC
114. Heart beats originate from
(A) Left atrium (B) Right ventricle (C) Cardiac muscles (D) Pacemaker
115. Bundle of His is a network of
(A) Muscle fibres distributed throughout heart walls
(B) Muscle fibres found only in ventricle wall
(C) Nerve fibres distributed in ventricles
(D) Nerve fibres found throughout the heart
116. Artificial pacemaker is usually implanted to correct the defect in
(A) AV node (B) SA node (C) Purkinje fibres (D) Mitral valve
117. Impulse originating from SA node is transmitted to
(A) Pacemaker (B) AV node (C) Bundle of HIS (D) Purkinje svstem

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 TOPIC 5: Double Circulation and Regulation of Cardiac Activity

118. The circulation which provides nutrients, O2 and essential substances to the tissue and takes CO 2
and other harmful substances away for elimination is
(A) Systemic circulation (B) Pulmonary circulation
(C) Double circulation (D) Systematic circulation
119. A unique vascular connection between the digestive tract and liver is called
(A) Hepatic portal system (B) Renal portal system
(C) Hypophyseal portal system (D) Coronary system
120. The vessel that carries blood from intestine to the liver is called
(A) Hepatic vein (B) Hepatic artery (C) Hepatic portal vein (D) Hepatic portal artery
121. A special system of blood vessel is present in our body exclusively for the circulation of blood to and
from the cardiac musculature is called
(A) Nodal system (B) Portal system (C) Coronary system (D) Bypass system
122. Neural signal through autonomic nervous system (ANS) can
a. Increase the heart beat rate b. Decrease the heart beat rate
c. Increase the strength of ventricular contraction
d. Decrease the speed of conduction of action potential
e. Increase cardiac output f. Decrease cardiac output
(A) b, c and e (B) a, d and f (C) b, d and f (D) a, c and e
123. A correct systemic circulation pathway is
(A) Right auricle —> Left ventricle — > Aorta —> Tissues I —> Veins
(B) Right ventricle —> Pulmonary' aorta —> Tissues Pulmonary veins —> Left auricle
(C) Left auricle —> Left ventricle —> Aorta —> Arteries —> Tissues —> Veins —> Right atrium
(D) Left auricle —> Left ventricle —> Pulmonary aortal —>Tissues —> Right auricle.
124. In the measurement of the blood pressure the denominator and numerator represents
(A) Resting and pumping pressure respectively
(B) Pumping and resting pressure respectively
(C) Systolic and diastolic pressure respectively (D) Both B and C
125. Recognise the figure and find out the correct matching

(A) a—artery, b—vein, c—capillary (B) c—artery, a—vein, b—capillary

(C) b—artery, c—vein, a—capillary (D) a—artery, c—vein, b—capillary
126. Circulatory system is absent in
(A) Annelids (B) Arthropods (C) Flatworms (D) Cephalopods
127. A portion of cardiovascular system that transport oxygen depleted blood from the heart to the
lungs and brings oxygenated blood back to heart is
(A) Pulmonary circulation (B) Coronary circulation
(C) Systemic circulation (D) Single circulation system
128. Which one is present in tunica media?
(A) Collagen fibres and smooth muscles (B) Yellow fibres and smooth muscles
(C) Yellow fibres and striated muscles (D) Squamous epithelium and striated muscles
129. Vagus nerve slows down heart beat due to secretion of
(A) Adrenaline (B) Acetylcholine (C) Norepinephrine (D) Dopamine

11
130. Neural signals through parasympathetic neural signals (another component of ANS) can
a. Increase the heart beat rate b. Decrease the heart beat rate
c. Increase the strength of ventricular contraction
d. Decrease the speed of conduction of action potential
e. Increase cardiac output f. Decrease cardiac output
(A) b, c and e (B) a, d and f (C) b, d and f (D) a, c and e
131. Blood passes from left ventricle to right atrium. It is
(A) Pulmonary circulation (B) Systemic circulation
(C) Coronary circulation (D) Arteriovenous circulation
132. The artery can be distinguished from the vein in having
(A) Thicker walls (B) Thinner walls (C) More plasma (D) Larger cavity
133. How many double circulations are normally completed by human heart in one minute?
(A) Eight (B) Sixteen (C) Thirty six (D) Seventy two
134. How many times a red blood corpuscle will have to pass through the heart in its journey from hepatic
artery?
(A) Once (B) Two times (C) Four times (D) Several times
135. Blood pressure is controlled by
(A) Thyroid gland (B) Adrenal gland (C) Thymus gland (D) Parathyroid gland
136. In ventricular systole, oxygenated blood is pumped into
(A) Pulmonary artery and deoxygenated into aorta
(B) Aorta and deoxygenated into pulmonary vein
(C) Pulmonary vein and deoxygenated into pulmonary artery
(D) Aorta and deoxygenated into pulmonary artery
137. Systemic heart refers to
(A) Heart that contract under stimulation from nervous system
(B) Left auricle and left ventricle in higher vertebrates
(C) Entire heart in lower vertebrates (D) The two ventricles together in humans
138. Recognise the figure and find out the correct matching.

(A) a—dorsal aorta, b—vena cava, c—pulmonary artery, d—pulmonary vein

(B) c—dorsal aorta, d—vena cava, b—pulmonary artery, a—pulmonary vein
(C) d—dorsal aorta, c—vena cava, a—pulmonary artery, b—pulmonary vein
(D) d—dorsal aorta, c—vena cava, b—pulmonary artery, a—pulmonary vein

12
139. Heart is neurogenic in
(A) Mussel (B) Frog (C) Limulus (D) Human
140. At the time of diastole, heart is filled with
(A) Mixed blood (B) Venous blood (C) Deoxygenated blood (D) Oxygenated blood
141. Human/mammalian/elephant heart is
(A) Myogenic (B) Neurogenic (C) Cardiogenic (D) Digenic
142. Which one represents pulmonary circulation?
(A) Left auricle (oxygenated blood) —> lungs (deoxygenated blood) —> Right auricle
(B) Left auricle (deoxygenated blood) —> lungs (oxygenated blood) —> Right auricle
(C) Left auricle (oxygenated blood) —> lungs (deoxygenated blood) —> Left auricle
(D) Right auricle (deoxygenated blood) —> lungs (oxygenated blood) —> Left auricle
143. Pulmonary artery drains deoxygenated blood from
(A) Right ventricle (B) Right atrium (C) Left atrium (D) Left ventricle
144. What is true about vein?
(A) All veins carry deoxygenated blood (B) All veins carry oxygenated blood
(C) They carry blood from organs towards heart
(D) They carry blood from heart towards the organs
145. Match the columns I and II, and choose the correct combination from the options given.

Column I Column II

a. Superior Vena Cava p. Carries deoxygenated blood to lungs

b. Inferior Vena Cava q. Carries oxygenated blood from lungs

c. Pulmonary Artery r. Brings deoxygenated blood from lower parts

of body to right atrium
d. Pulmonary Vein t. Brings deoxygenated blood from upper parts
of body into right atrium

(A) a—q, b—t, c—r, d—p (B) a—t, b—p, c—q, d—r
(C) a—t, b—r, c—p, d—q (D) a—t, b—p, c—r, d—q
146. All veins have deoxygenated blood except
(A) Renal artery (B) Hepatic vein (C) Hepatic portal vein (D) Pulmonary veins
147. Systematic circulation of oxygenated blood starts from
(A) Right atrium (B) Left atrium (C) Left ventricle (D) Right ventricle
148. Deoxygenated blood from wall of heart is carried by
(A) Coronary sinus (B) Inferior vena cava (C) Superior vena cava (D) Pulmonary artery
149. Hepatic portal system starts from
(A) Digestive system to liver (B) Kidney to liver (C) Liver to heart (D) Liver to kidney
TOPIC 6: Disorder of Circulatory System
150. Read the following statements and find out the incorrect statements.
a. All vertebrates and a few invertebrates have a closed circulatory system.
b. Hypertension leads to heart disease and also affects vital organs like brain and lungs.
c. CAD affects the vessels that supply blood to the skeletal muscles.
d. In angina, a symptom of chronic chest pain appears when no enough oxygen is reaching the heart muscle.

13
e. Heart attack means the state of heart when it is not pumping blood effectively enough to meet the needs of
the body.
(A) a and d (B) b, c and e (C) b, c and d (D) b, c, d and e
151. When the heart muscle is suddenly damaged by an inadequate blood supply, it is called
(A) Heart attack (B) Heart failure (C) Cardiac arrest (D) CAD
152. Read the following statements and find out the incorrect statement.
(A) Though the heart is autoexcitable, its functions can be moderated by neural and hormonal mechanisms.
(B) Angina pectoris can occur in men and women of any age but it is more common among the middle- aged
and elderly.
(C) Heart failure is same as cardiac arrest or heart attack.
(D) CAD is caused by deposits of calcium, fat, cholesterol and fibrous tissues, which makes the lumen
of arteries narrower.
153. When the heart stops beating, it is called
(A) Heart attack (B) Heart failure (C) Cardiac arrest (D) CAD
154. Angina occurs due to conditions that affects the
(A) Blood clotting (B) Blood flow (C) Closure of bicuspid and tricuspid valves
(D) Opening of the semilunar valves
155. Sphygmomanometer is an instrument used to record
(A) Systolic pressure (B) Diastolic pressure (C) Cardiac output (D) Both A and B
156. Most probable cause of heart attack is
(A) Vasomotion (B) Systolic pressure of 120 mm Hg
(C) Arteriosclerosis (D) High level of HDL
157. Continued consumption of diet rich in butter, red meat and eggs over long period may lead to
(A) Vitamin A toxicity (B) Kidney stones (C) Hypercholesterolemia (D) Urine laden with ketone bodies
158. Coronary heart disease is due to
(A) Weakening of heart valves (B) Insufficient blood supply to heart muscles
(C) Streptococci bacteria (D) Inflammation of pericardium
159. Which cranial nerve supplies heart?
(A) Vagus (B) Facial (C) Trochlear (D) Auditory
160. If vagus/parasympathetic nerve to heart is cut, the heart beat will
(A) Decrease (B) Increase (C) Remain normal (D) Stop
161. Erythropoiesis is assisted by
(A) Mg2+ (B) Ca2+ (C) Cu2+ (D) Fe2+
162. Which one of the following minerals controls heart?
(A) Sulphur (B) Sodium (C) Iron (D) Potassium
163. Neurogenic heart is characteristic of
(A) Humans (B) Lower invertebrates (C) Rat (D) Rabbit
164. In circulatory system, valves occur in
(A) Heart and blood vessels of both vertebrates and invertebrates as well as vertebrate lymphatics
(B) Both vertebrate and invertebrate hearts (C) Vertebrate heart only
(D) Both vertebrate and invertebrate hearts and their blood vessels

SECTION B: ASSERTION-REASONING QUESTIONS

Read the assertion and reason carefully to mark the correct option in question
(A) If both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(B) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(C) If assertion is true but reason is false.
(D) If both assertion and reason are false.

14
1. Assertion: Proteins that produced in response to antibodies are called antigens.
Reason: Antibodies are present on the surface of RBCs.
2. Assertion: Heart failure is sometimes called congestive heart failure.
Reason: Congestion of the lungs is one the main symptom of heart failure.
3. Assertion: SAN is also called pacemaker.
Reason: SAN sets the pace of the activities of the heart.
4. Assertion: Human heart is myogenic.
Reason: Normal activities of the heart are regulated intrinsically, i.e. auto regulated by specialised muscles
(nodal tissue).
5. Assertion: Leucocytes are also known as white blood cells (WBC).
Reason: Leucocytes are colourless due to lack of haemoglobin.
6. Assertion: The nodal musculature has the ability to generate action potentials without any external stimuli,
i.e. ii is auto-excitable.
Reason: The number of action potentials that could be generated in a minute vary at different parts of the
nodal system.
7. Assertion: Interstitial fluid or tissue fluid has the same mineral distribution as that in plasma.
Reason: Exchange of nutrients, gases, etc., between the blood and the cells always occurs through tissue
fluid (lymph).
8. Assertion: Lymph is a colourless fluid containing specialised lymphocytes which are responsible for the
immune response of the body
Reason: Lymph is an important carrier for nutrient, hormones, etc.
9. Assertion: Closed circulatory system is considered to be more advantageous as compared to open
circulatory system.
Reason: In closed circulatory system, the flow of fluid can be more precisely regulated.
10. Assertion: Each cardiac cycle consists of systole and diastole of both the atria and ventricles.
Reason: The cardiac output of an ordinary man will be much higher than that of an athlete.
11. Assertion: ECG is a graphical representation of the electrical activity of the heart during a cardiac cycle.
Reason: Each peak in the ECG is identified with the letter from P to Q that electrical activity of the heart.
12. Assertion: The valves of the heart (i.e., semilunar and atrio-ventricular valves) prevent any backward flow.
Reason: The valves in the heart allow the flow of blood only in one direction, i.e. from the atria to the
ventricles and from ventricles to the pulmonary artery or aorta.

SECTION C: PREVIOUS YEAR’S EXAMINATION QUESTIONS

NEET/AIPMT Questions
1. Maximum surface area of circulatory system is of
(A) Heart (B) Arterioles (C) Veins (D) Capillaries.
2. Largest number of white blood corpuscles are
(A) Eosinophils (B) Basophils (C) Neutrophils (D) Monocytes.
3. Haemoglobins of human foetus
(A) Has two protein subunits instead of four
(B) Has higher affinity of oxygen than that of the adult
(C) Has lower affinity of oxygen than that of the adult
(D) Its affinity for oxygen is the same as that of an adult
4. Find the matching pair.
(A) Lub-sharp closure of AV valves at beginning of ventricular systole
(B) Dub-sudden opening of semilunar valves at the beginning of ventricular systole

15
(C) Pulsation of radial artery-valves in blood vessels
(D) Initiation of heart beat—Purkinje fibres
5. Artificial pacemaker is implanted subcutaneously for correcting
(A) 90% blockage of coronary arteries (B) High blood pressure
(C) Arteriosclerosis (D) Irregularity of heart rhythm
6. . The lymph differs from the blood in having
(A) More RBC less WBC (B) Less RBC more WBC
(C) No RBC less WBC (D) No RBC more WBC
7. What is correct about ECG?
(A) P—depolarisation of atria (B) R—repolarisation of ventricles
(C) T—start of systole (D) T—end of diastole
8. Globulins contained in human blood plasma are primarily involved in
(A) Clotting of blood (B) Osmotic balance of body fluids
(C) Defence mechanism of body (D) Oxygen transport in blood
9. Blood group agglutinogen is
(A) Phosphoprotien (B) Glycoprotein (C) Haemoprotien (D) Phospholipid
10. Mature erythrocyte cannot utilise glucose because they lack
(A) Golgi complexes (B) Mitochondria (C) Enzymes (D) Nucleus
11. In order for the blood to flow from right ventricle to left ventricle in mammalian heart, it must flow
through
(A) Right ventricle, pulmonary arteries, lungs pulmonary veins, left atrium
(B) Right ventricle, pulmonary veins, lungs, pulmonary arteries, left atrium
(C) Right ventricle, right atrium, lungs, pulmonary veins, left atrium
(D) Right ventricle, systemic aorta, lungs, pulmonary veins, left atrium
12. Which one takes part in blood clotting?
(A) RBC (B) WBC (C) Thrombocytes (D) Lymphocytes
13. Fastest distribution of some injectable material/medicine and with no risk of any kind can be achieved by
injecting
(A) Artery (B) Vein (C) Muscle (D) Lymph vessel
14. Given below are four statements, a—d, regarding human § blood circulatory system. Find the correct one.
(a) Arteries are thick-walled and have narrow lumen as compared to veins
(b) Angina is acute chest pain when the blood circulation to brain is reduced
(c) Persons with blood group AB can donate blood to any person with any blood group under ABO system
(d) Calcium ions play a very important role in blood clotting
(A) a and b (B) a and d (C) b and c (D) c and d
15. If due to some injury, chordae tendinae of tricuspid valve 1 of the heart are partially non-functional, what
will be the immediate effect?
(A) The ‘Pacemaker’ will stop working (B) Blood will tend to flow back into left atrium
(C) Flow of blood into pulmonary artery will be reduced
(D) Flow of blood into aorta will be slowed down
16. The life of the erythrocytes in mammalian blood is about
(A) 120 days (B) 150 days (C) 190 days (D) 180 days
17.A blood group does not have any antigen but possesses m both a and b antibodies. It is
(A) A (B) O (C) B (D) AB
18. Cold blooded animal with a single circulation is
(A) Mammal (B) Amphibian (C) Reptile (D) Fish
19. Blood corpuscles containing both A and B antigens are mixed with another blood serum. The blood
corpuscles agglutinated. Blood serum belong to blood group

16
(A) A (B) B (C) AB (D) O
20. Systolic pressure is 120 mm Hg. Diastolic pressure is 80 mm Hg. Pulse pressure is
(A) 120 x 80 = 9600 mm Hg (B) 120 + 80 = 200 mm Hg
(C) 120-80 = 40 mm Hg (D) 120/80 = 1.5 mm Hg.
21. Which one functions as enzyme in blood clotting?
(A) Prothrombin (B) Calcium (C) Thrombin (D) Fibrin
22. Pulmonary trunk and aorta are attached by
(A) Chordae tendinae (B) Ligamentum arteriosus
(C) Coronary sulcus (D) Pericardium
23. Valve surrounding opening of coronary sinus is
(A) Thebesius valve (B) Eustachian valve (C) Mitral valve (D) Semilunar valve
24. Valves occur in
(A) Arteries, veins and auricles (B) Atria, ventricles and veins
(C) Arteries, veins and ventricles (D) SA node, AV node and veins
25. In case of emergency (e.g., serious accident with great blood loss) which blood group could be safely
transfused?
(A) AB Rh- (B) O Rh+ (C) AB Rh+ (D) O Rh-
26. Valves present between right auricle and right ventricle is
(A) Mitral valve (B) Tricuspid valve (C) Bicuspid valve (D) Semilunar valve
27. Congestion of lungs is one of the main symptoms in
(A) Hypertension (B) Angina (C) Heart failure (D) Coronary artery disease
28. In ECG, what does T wave represent?
(A) Diastole of atria (B) Systole of ventricles
(C) Systole of ventricles (D) Repolarisation of ventricles
29. The first heart sound is
(A) Lub during closure of semilunar valves (B) Dub during closure of semilunar valves
(C) Lub during closure of atrioventricular valves
(D) Dub during closure of atrioventricular valves.
30. Hypertension is not caused by
(A) Anaemia (B) Atheroclerosis (C) Obesity (D) Arteriosclerosis
31. QRS complex of a standard ECG represents
(A) Excitation or depolarisation of atria (B) Depolarisation of ventricles
(C) Repolarisation of ventricles (D) None of the above
32. Angina pectoris is a major symptom of
(A) Myocardial infraction (B) Cyanosis (C) High blood pressure (D) Low blood pressure
33. Volume of blood each ventricle pumps out during a cardiac cycle is about
(A) 70 ml (B) 51 ml (C) 40 ml (D) 1200 ml
34. To obtain a standard ECG, a patient is connected to the machine by three electrodes
(A) One to each wrist and to the left ankle (B) One to each ankle and to the left wrist
(C) One to each wrist and to the left wrist region
(D) One to each ankle and to the left chest region
35. Foramen ovale
(A) Connects the two atria in the foetal heart (B) Connects pulmonary trunk and aorta in foetus
(C) Is conditions in which heart valves do not completely close
(D) Is a shallow depression in the inter-ventricular septum?
36. What is correct regarding blood pressure?
(A) 105/50 mm Hg makes one very active.
(B) 100/55 mm Hg is considered an ideal blood pressure.

17
(C) 190/110 mm Hg may harm vital organs like brain and kidneys
(D) 130/90 mm Hg is considered as high and requires treatment
37. Which one of the following proteins is involved in the coagulation of blood?
(A) Globulin (B) Fibrinogen (C) Albumin (D) Serum amylase
38. Arteries are best defined as vessels which
(A) Break up into capillaries which reunite to form a vein
(B) Carry blood away from heart to different organs
(C) Supply oxygenated blood to different organs
(D) Carry blood from one visceral organ to another visceral organ
39. Given here is an ECG of a normal human. Which one of its components is correctly interpreted?

(A) QRS comples—one complete pulse (B) Peak T—initiation of total cardiac contraction
(C) Peaks P and R—systole and diastole blood pressure
(D) Peak T—initiation of left atrial contraction only
40. A vein starts from capillaries and ends in capillaries
(A) Phreinc (B) Coronary (C) Portal vein (D) Internal jugular
41. Universal Blood donor group is
(A) A (B) B (C) AB (D) O
42. Cardiac output is
(A) 4 litres/minutes (B) 5.3 litres/minutes
(C) 6.3 litres/minutes (D) 7.3 litres/minutes
43. Which one regulates heart beat?
(A) Purkinje fibres (B) Cardiac branch of vagus nerve
(C) S A node (D) AV node
44. Purkinje fibres are present in
(A) Heart (B) Cerebrum (C) Semicircular canals (D) Voluntary muscles
45. In ECG, P-wave refers to
(A) End of atrial contraction (B) Beginning of atrial contraction/depolarisation
(C) Beginning of ventricular contraction (D) None of the above
46. Chances of erythroblastosis foetalis occurring during second pregnancy when the baby is
(A) Rh+ and mother Rh- (B) Rh+ and mother Rh+
(C) Rh+ and mother is Rh+ (D) Rh+ and mother Rh+
47. In human beings, duration of cardiac cycle is
(A) 0.08 second (B) 0.8 second (C) 0.5 second (D) 8.0 second
48. Compared to those of humans, erythrocytes of Frog are
(A) With nucleus but without haemoglobin (B) Nucleated and with haemoglobin
(C) Smaller and fewer (D) Without nucleus but with haemoglobin
49. Blood vessel that supplies oxygenated blood to cardiac tissue is
(A) Coronary sinus (B) Coronary vein (C) Coronary artery (D) Pulmonary artery
50. Circulatory system does not help in
(A) Transport of gases (B) Transport of nutrients

18
(C) Transport of hormones (D) Passage of impulses
51. Lub sound produced by heart is caused by
(A) Ventricular systole (B) Ventricular diastole
(C) Atrial diastole (D) Atrial systole
52. Number of action potentials that can be generated by sino-atrial node is
(A) 40—50/min (B) 70—75/min (C) 80—120/min (D) 100—120/min
53. If blood pressure reads 140 systole and 90 diastole the i condition is called
(A) Hypertension (B) Normal (C) Hypotension (D) Ischemia
54. Choose the correct option.
(i) Human heart is ectodermal in origin.
(ii) Mitral valve guards the opening between right atrium and left ventricle.
(iii) SAN is located on the left upper comer of right atrium
(iv) Stroke volume x Heart rate = Cardiac output
(A) (i) alone is correct (B) (i) and (ii) alone are correct
(C) (ii) and (iii) alone are correct (D) (iv) alone is correct (E) (ii) and (iv) alone are correct
55. Choose the correct statement.
(A) T-wave in ECG represents excitation of ventricle
(B) Sum of P and T waves can determine heart beat r
(C) End of P-wave marks end of systole
(D) In a standard ECG, a person is connected to match with three electrical leads
56. From which part of heart does the largest artery arise?
(A) Left ventricle (B) Right ventricle (C) Left atrium (D) Right atrium
57. Volume of blood that enters aorta with each ventriculs systole is
(A) Vital capacity (B) Cardiac cycle (C) Stroke volume (D) Cardiac output
58. Select the correct option.

ANS : - (B)
59. The other term for heart attack is
(A) Coronary thrombosis (B) Myocardial infarction (C) Ischaemia (D) Cardiac arrest
60. Which is not correct about circulatory system of aves?
(A) Heart is four chambered (B) Well developed renal portal system
(C) Sinus venosus and truncus arteriosus are lacking (D) RBCs are nucleated
61. How do parasympathetic neural signals affect the working of the heart?

19
(A) Heart rate decreases but cardiac output increases
(B) Reduce both heart rate and cardiac output
(C) Heart rate is increased without affecting the cardiac output
(D) Both heart rate and cardiac output increase
62 Person with blood group AB is considered as universal recipient because he has
(A) Both A and B antigens in the plasma but no antibodies
(B) Both A and B antigens on RBC but no antibodies in the plasma
(C) Both A and B antibodies in the plasma
(D) No antigen on RBC and no antibody in the plasma
63. Mitral valve in mammalian heart guards the opening between
(A) Pulmonary vein and left auricle (B) Right atrium and right ventricle
(C) Left atrium and left ventricle (D) Left ventricle and dorsal aorta
64. A clinical condition in which the bone marrow stops producing WBC, is known as
(A) Leukaemia (B) Apoptosis (C) Leucopenia (D) Anaemia
65. The RBC membrane of a person contains no antigen. His blood group will be
(A) A (B) B (C) AB (D) O
66. Which of the following statements is true with respect to sounds produced during cardiac cycle?
(A) The first heart sound (lub) is associated with the closure of semilunar valves
(B) The first heart sound (lub) is associated with closure of tricuspid and bicuspid valves
(C) Second heart sound (dub) is associated with closure of bicuspid valves
(D) Second heart sound (dub) is associated with closure of tricuspid valves
67. Persons with blood group ‘O’ are universal donors because they have
(A) Antigen ‘A’ on RBCs (B) Antigen ‘B’ on RBCs
(C) No antigen on RBCs (D) Antigens ‘A’ and ‘B’ on RBCs
68. Blood pressure in the mammalina aorta is maximum during
(A) Systole of the left ventricle (B) Diastole of the right atrium
(C) Systole of the left atrium (D) Diastole of the right ventricle
69. Which one of the following is correct?
(A) Lymph = Plasma + RBC + WBC (B) Blood = Plasma + RBC + WBC + Platelets
(C) Plasma = Blood - Lymphocytes (D) Serum = Blood + Fibrinogen
70. Erythropoiesis starts in
(A) Spleen (B) Red bone marrow (C) Kidney (D) Liver
71. Doctors use stethoscope to hear the sounds produced during each cardiac cycle. The second sound is
heard when
(A) Ventricular walls vibrate due to gushing in of blood from atria
(B) Semilunar valves close down after the blood flows into vessels from ventricles
(C) AV node receives signal from SA node (D) AV valves open up
72. Hardening of arteries due to precipitation of Ca salts and cholesterol causes
(A) Heart attack (B) Arteriosclerosis (C) Atherosclerosis (D) Hypertension
73. Reduction in pH of blood will
(A) Reduce the rate of heart beat (B) Reduce the blood supply to the brain
(C) Decrease the affinity of hemoglobin with oxygen
(D) Release bicarbonate ions by the liver
74. Blood pressure in the pulmonary artery is
(A) Same as that in the aorta (B) More than that in the carotid
(C) more than that in the pulmonary vein (D) less than that in the venae cavae.

20
75. Name the blood cells, when reduction in number can cause clotting disorder, leading to excessive loss of
blood from the body
(A) Neutrophils (B) Thrombocytes (C) Erythrocytes (D) Leucocytes
76. The hepatic portal vein drains blood to live from
(A) Stomach (B) Kidneys (C) Intestine (D) Heart
77. Frog’s heart when taken out of the body continues to beat for sometime. Select the best option from the
following statements.
(a) Frog is poikilotherm (b) Frog does not have any coronary circulation
(c) Heart is “myogenic” in nature (d) Heart is autoexcitable
Options:
(A) Only d (B) aandb (C) c and d (D) Only c
78. Match the items given in Column I with those in Column II and select the correct option given below.
Column I Column II
a. Tricuspid valve i. Between left atrium and left ventricle
b. Bicuspid valve ii. Between right ventricle and pulmonary artery
c. Semilunar valve iii. Between right atrium and right ventricle

a b c a b c
(A) iii i ii (C) i ii iii
(B) i iii ii (D) ii i ii
79. Match the items given in Column I with those in Column II and select the correct option given below.
Column I Column II
a. Fibrinogen i. Osmotic balance
b. Globulin ii. Blood clotting
c. Albumin iii. Defence mechanism
a b c a b c
(A) iii ii i (C) i iii ii
(B) i ii iii (D) ii iii i
AIIMS Questions
1. Which one of the following is a correct matching pair?
(A) Lub—Sharp closure of AV valves at the beginning of ventricular systole.
(B) Dup—Sudden opening of semilunar valves at the beginning of ventricular diastole.
(C) Pulsation of the radial artery valves in the blood vessels.
(D) Purkinje fibers—Initiation of the heart beat.
2. Which one of the following is a matching pair of a certain body feature and its value/count in a normal
human adult?
(A) Urea: 5-10 mg/100 ml of blood (B) Blood sugar (fasting): 70-100 mg/100 ml
(C) Total blood volume: 2-3L
(D) ESR in Wintrobe method: 9-15 mm in males and 20-34 mm in females
3. In which of the following pairs the two items mean one and the same thing?
(A) Malleus—Anvil (B) SA node—Pace maker
(C) Leucocytes—Lymphocytes (D) Haemophilia—Blood cancer
4. An artificial pace maker is implanted subcutaneously and connected to the heart in patients
(A) Having 90% blockage of the three main coronary arteries
(B) Having a very high blood pressure
(C) With irregularity in the heart rhythm
(D) Suffering from arteriosclerosis

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5. The figure below shows an angioplasty of the coronary blood vessel. Which one of the following
statements correctly describes, what is being done?

(A) It is coronary artery which has a cancerous growth that is being removed.
(B) It is coronary artery which is blocked by a plaque and the same is being cracked.
(C) It is coronary vein in which the defective valves are being opened.
(D) It is coronary vein blocked by a parasite (blood fluke) that is being removed.
6. The component of blood which prevents its coagulation in the blood vessels is
(A) haemoglobin (B) Plasma (C) Thrombin (D) Heparin
7. Thickening of arteries due to cholesterol deposition is
(A) Arteriosclerosis (B) Rheumatic heart (C) Blood pressure (D) Cardiac arrest
8. Arteries supplying blood to the heart are called
(A) Carotid arteries (B) Hepatic arteries (C) Coronary arteries (D) Pulmonary arteries
9. The blood glucose level is commonly expressed as
(A) mm of Hg (B) Milligram per decilitre (C) parts per million (D) gram (mg/dl) per litre
10. A man whose blood group is not known meets with a serious accident and needs blood transfusion
immediately, which one of the blood groups readily available in the hospital will be safe for transfusion?
(A) O, Rh- (B) O, Rh+ (C) AB, Rh- (D) AB, Rh+
11. With reference to the blood in a normal person, which one of the following statements is correct?
(A) Compared to arteries, veins are less numerous and hold less of the body’s blood at any given time.
(B) Blood cells constitute about 70 per cent of the total volume of the blood.
(C) White blood cells (WBC) are made by lymph nodes only.
(D) The blood has more platelets than WBC.
12. Given below is the ECG of a normal human. Which one of its components is correctly interpreted below?

(A) Peak P and Peak R together—Systolic and diastolic blood pressures

(B) Peak P—Initiation of left atrial contraction only
(C) Complex QRS—One complete pulse
(D) Peak T—Initiation of total cardiac contraction.
13. Approximately seventy percent of carbon dioxide absorbed by the blood will be transported to the lungs
(A) as bicarbonate ions (B) in the form of dissolved gas molecules
(C) by binding to RBC (D) as carbamino-haemoglobin

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14. The diagram given here is the standard ECG of a normal person, the P-wave represents the

(A) Initiation of the ventricular contraction (B) Beginning of the systole

(C) End of systole (D) Contraction of both the atria
15. Mature RBCs lose their ability for
(A) DNA replication (B) Anaerobic respiration
(C) Aerobic respiration and DNA replication
(D) Aerobic respiration, DNA replication and RNA synthesising machinery.
16. When kidney of a person is damaged, he/she invariably suffers from anaemia because
(A) RBCs pass through the glomerulus (B) Sufficient erythropoietin is not produced
(C) haemoglobin is not synthesized sufficiently
(D) Iron and vitamin B12 are not able to bind to haemoglobin.
17. Which of the following statements are wrong?
(i) Leucocytes disintegrate in the spleen and liver.
(ii) RBC, WBC and blood platelets are produced by bone marrow.
(iii) Neutrophils bring about destruction and detoxification of toxins of protein origin.
(iv) The important function of lymphocytes is to produce antibodies.
(A) (i) and (ii) only (B) (i) and (iv) only (C) (i) and (iii) only (D) (ii) and (iii) only
Assertion and Reason Type Questions
These questions consist of two statements each, printed as As­ sertion and Reason. While answering these
questions you are required to choose any one of the following five responses.
(A) If both assertion and reason are true and the reason is a correct explanation of the assertion.
(B) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not a correct explanation of the assertion.
(C) If the assertion is true but reason is false.
(D) If both the assertion and reason are false.
(E) If the assertion is false but the reason is true.
18. Assertion: WBCs accumulate at site of wounds by diapedesis.
Reason: It is squeezing of leucocytes from endothelium.
19. Assertion: Blood coagulates in uninjured blood vessels.
Reason: Uninjured blood vessels release an anticoagulant heparin.
20. Assertion: Oxyhaemoglobin dissociates near the organ tissue due to Bohr Effect and oxygen is released.
Reason: Increased CO2 concentration reduces the affinity of haemoglobin for oxygen.
21. Assertion: Prothrombinase enzyme act as antiheparin.
Reason: Heparin prevents coagulation of blood in blood vessels.
22. Assertion: When there is a fall in the blood pressure due to loss of blood volume, this is compensated by
Vasoconstriction of veins.
Reason: Veins hold the extra amount of blood which can be shifted to the arteries as required.
23. Assertion: Blood is colourless in the insects.
Reason: Insect blood has no role in O2 transport.

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 SECTION D: CHAPTER-END TEST

1. Papillary muscles occur in

(A) Ventricles (B) Atria (C) Atrioventricular valves (D) Pulmonary valves
2. Battery of artificial pacemaker is built of
(A) Nickel (B) Lithium (C) Photosensitive material (D) Dry cadmium
3. Middle man of the body is
(A) Plasma (B) Lymph (C) WBC (D) RBC
4. What is true of leucocytes?
(A) They undergo diapedesis or squeeze through capillary walls
(B) Sudden fall in number indicates cancer
(C) Produced in thymus (D) Enucleate
5. Polycythemia is characterised by
(A) Decrease in O2 content (B) Increase in RBC content
(C) Decrease in RBC content (D) Increase in WBC content
6. Largest internal vein from alimentary canal to liver is
(A) Aorta (B) Hepatic artery (C) Hepatic vein (D) Hepatic portal vein
7. Blood vessel carrying least CO2 is
(A) Pulmonary vein (B) Pulmonary artery (C) Vena Cava (D) Hepatic vein
8. Pernicious anaemia is caused by
(A) Low RBC count (B) Death of WBC
(C) Obstruction of RBC maturation (D) Destruction of young RBC
9. Blood leaving liver and moving to heart will have more concentration of
(A) Bile (B) Glycogen (C) Amino acids (D) Urea
10. Oval RBCs are found in
(A) Rat (B) Humans (C) Bat (D) Camel
11. To which organ does femoral artery supply blood?
(A) Dorsal part of thigh (B) Ventral part of hind limb (C) All parts of hind limb (D) Rectum
12. Blood of which of the following is colourless
(A) Earthworm (B) Cockroach (C) Leech (D) Frog
13. Erythrocyte maturing factor is
(A) Folic acid (B) Cyanocobalamine (C) Vitamin B2 (D) Vitamin C
14. Cattle fed on spoilt Sweet Clover having Dicumerol have
(A) Excellent health due to good diet (B) Catch infections readily
(C) May suffer vitamin K deficiency and prolonged bleeding
(D) May suffer from beriberi due to vitamin B deficiency
15. Serum is
(A) Blood minus fibrinogen (B) Lymph minus corpuscles
(C) Lymph (D) Blood minus corpuscles and fibrinogen
16. For analysis, the blood drawn from a patient will not be placed in a tube having
(A) Sodium oxalate (B) Heparin (C) Calcium bicarbonate (D) Been chilled
17. Which one is not a blood group?
(A) ABO and Rh (B) Rh and MN (C) Buffs and Kips (D) Lewis and Duffy
18. Lymphocytes of lower vertebrates are produced in
(A) Liver (B) Spleen (C) Bone marrow (D) Vertebrae
19. Diapedesis is
(A) Bursting of WBC (B) Production of pus (C) Production of WBC

24
(D) Passage of WBC out of blood capillaries to the site of injury
20. Pulmonary artery differs from pulmonary vein in having
(A) Thick wall (B) Thin wall (C) Valves (D) Both B and C
21. Normal pulse pressure is
(A) 80 mm Hg (B) 120 mm Hg (C) 40 mg Hg (D) 320 mm Hg
22. Amount of blood received by brain every minute is
(A) 2500 ml (B) 1000 ml (C) 750 ml (D) 450 ml
23. Which is transmitted through serum?
(A) Venereal diseases (B) Cirrhosis (C) Tuberculosis (D) Hepatitis
24. Which organ received only oxygenated blood?
(A) Gill (B) Spleen (C) Lung (D) Liver
25. In which of the following, blood is carried by a set of capillaries and then taken away by another
set of capillaries?
(A) Liver (B) Heart (C) Brain (D) Alveolus of lungs
26. Mineral involved in formation of bone and teeth and clotting of blood is
(A) Potassium (B) Sulphur (C) Calcium (D) Iodine
27. Collecting of WBCs at the site of injury occurs due to
(A) Phagocytosis (B) Hemolysis (C) Diapedesis (D) All of the above
28. In Prawn, the heart pumps
(A) Deoxygenated blood (B) Oxygenated blood (C) Both A and B (D) Mixed blood
29. Oedema is due to
(A) Increased permeability of capillary walls (B) Reduced return of lymph
(C) Increased capillary pressure (D) All of the above
30. Pace maker is
(A) Instrument for measuring heart beat (B) Instrument for measuring pulse rate
(C) Atrioventricular node that provides impulse for heart beat
(D) Sinoauricular node that provides impulse for heart beat
31. Heart beat is heard on left side as
(A) Aorta is on left side (B) Heart is on left side
(C) Ventricles are on left side (D) Left ventricle is on left side
32. The one devoid of muscular coat is
(A) Vein (B) Artery (C) Arteriole (D) Capillary
33. Glucose is carried from digestive tract to liver by
(A) Hepatic (B) Hepatic portal vein (C) Pulmonary vein (D) None of the above
34. Glucose is carried from digestive tract to liver by
(A) Heart will be small (B) Heart will be large(C) Lungs will be small(D) Lungs will be large
35. Erythropoiesis is assisted by
(A) Mg2+ (B) Ca2+ (C) Cu2+ (D) Fe2+
36. Typical Tub-dub’ sounds heard in heart beat are due to
(A) Closing of bicuspid and tricuspid valves (B) Closing of semilunar valves
(C) Blood under pressure through aorta
(D) Closure of bicuspid—tricuspid valves followed by semilunar valves
37. Largest heart is of
(A) Giraffe (B) Elephant (C) Crocodile (D) Lion
38. RBC placed in distilled water will
(A) Burst (B) Shrink (C) Stick to one another (D) Divide
39. Origin of heart beat and its conduction is represented by
(A) AV node —>Bundle of His —> SA node —> Purkinje fibres

25
(B) SA node —> Purkinje fibres —> AV node —> Bundle of His
(C) Purkinje fibres -> AV node —> SA node —> Bundle of His
(D) SA node —> AV node —> Bundle of His —> Purkinje fibres
40. Blood vessel of diaphragm is called
(A) Coronary (B) Cardiac (C) Phrenic (D) Pulmonary
41. Anemia is due to deficiency of
(A) Ca (B) Fe (C) Mg (D) P
42. Carotid artery carries
(A) Impure blood to brain (B) Oxygenated blood to brain
(C) Impure blood to kidney (D) Oxygenated blood to heart
43. Systole causes
(A) Entry of blood into lungs (B) Entry of blood into heart
(C) Exit of blood from brain (D) Exit of blood from ventricle
44. Blood capillaries are made of
(A) Endothelium, connective tissue and muscle fibers
(B) Endothelium and muscle fibers
(C) Endothelium and connective tissue (D) Endothelium only
45. Granules of neutrophils are derived from
(A) Phagosomes (B) Mitochondria (C) Golgi bodies (D) E.R.
46. Which term does not apply to human heart?
(A) Neurogenic (B) Pacemaker (C) Four chambered (D) Mitral valve
47. Iron containing haem is attached with globin of haemoglobin as
(A) Coenzyme (B) Apoenzyme (C) Prosthetic group (D) Inorganic group
48. Raising of pH of blood shall result in
(A) Inhibition of carbonic anhydrase
(B) Production of carbon monoxide and causing carbon monoxide poisoning
(C) Non - release of carbon dioxide from carbonic acid and carbonates
(D) Non - dissociation of oxygen from oxyhaemoglobin
49. A vein that breaks up into capillaries is
(A) Pelvic vein (B) Pulmonary vein (C) Renal vein (D) Hepatic portal vein
50. If nerves supplying heart are cut, the heart will
(A) Shrink (B) Beat arhythmically (C) Beat rhythmically (D) Stop
51. In given statements which is/are common for both artery and veins?
(A) Both consist of three layers (B) Both have valves
(C) The tunica media is comparatively thin in the veins
(D) Both carry oxygenated blood
Match column I with column II, and select the correct combinations from the options given.
52.
Column I Column II
a RBC i Coagulation
b. Systole ii. Gas transport
c. Platelets iii. Resist infection
d. AB groups iv. Contraction of heart
e. Eosinophils v. Universal recipients
a b c d e a b c d e

(A) ii iv i v iii (B) ii i iv v iii

(C) ii iv i iii v (D) iii iv I v ii

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53.
Column I Column II
a. Albumin 1. Immunity
b. Globulin 2. Coagulation
c. Fibrinogen 3 Phagocytosis
d. Neutrophils 4. Osmotic balance
a b c d a b c d
(A) 1 2 3 4 (B) 3 4 1 2
(C) 4 1 2 3 (D) 2 3 4 1
54.
Column I Column II
a. Cardiac output 1. 70 ml
b. Stroke volume 2. 5 litres
c. First heart sound . 3. dub
d. Second heart sound 4. lub
a b c d a b c d
(A) 1 2 3 4 (B) 2 1 3 4
(C) 1 2 4 3 (D) 2 1 4 3
55.
Column I Column II
a. Depolarisation of the atria 1. QRS complex
b. Repolarisation of the ventricles 2. P-wave
c. Depolarisation of the ventricles 3. T-wave
a b c a b c
(A) 1 2 3 (B) 3 2 1
(C) 2 1 3 (D) 2 3 1
56.
Column I Column II
a. Eosinophil i.0.5-1%
b. Basophil ii .2-3%
c. Neutrophil iii. 6-8%
d. Lymphocyte iv. 20-25%
e. Monocyte v. 60-65%
a b c d e a b c d e
(A) iii i v iv ii (B) ii i v iv iii
(C) iii iv i iv ii (D) ii i v iii iv
57.
Column I Column II
a. Heart attack 1. Heart stops beating
b. Cardiac arrest 2. Heart muscle is suddenly damaged
c. Heart failure 3. Acute chest pain
d. Angina pectoris 4. Heart is not pumping bio effectively enough to
meet the needs of the body
a b c d a b c d
(A) 1 2 3 4 (B) 2 1 4 3
(C) 3 4 1 2 (D) 4 2 2 1

27
58.
Column I Column II
a. AB group 1. Universal donor
b. o group 2. Universal recipient
c. A group 3. anti-B antibody
d. B group 4. anti-A antibody
a b c d a b c d
(A) 1 2 3 4 (B) 1 2 4 3
(C) 2 1 3 4 (D) 2 1 4 3
59.
Column I Column II
a. Fibrinogen 1. Biconcave
b. Granulocyte 2. Clotting of blood
c. Largest sized WBCs 3. Basophils
d. RBCs 4. Monocytes
a b c d a b c d
(A) 1 2 3 4 (B) 2 3 4 1
(C) 1 2 4 3 (D) 2 1 4 3
60.
Column I Column II
a. Thrombin is formed from 1. Immunity
b. Anti-inflammatory 2. Universal recipients
c. Globulin 3. Prothrombin
d. AB groups 4. Basophils
a b c d a b c d
(A) 1 2 3 4 (B) 2 1 3 4
(C) 3 4 1 2 (D) 2 1 4 3
SECTION A

1 B 2 A 3 D 4 D 5 C 6 A 7 B 8 C 9 D 10 C
11 D 12 D 13 C 14 B 15 D 16 C 17 C 18 D 19 C 20 A
21 A 22 C 23 C 24 B 25 A 26 C 27 D 28 C 29 D 30 A
31 D 32 C 33 B 34 B 35 A 36 A 37 C 38 A 39 B 40 A
41 C 42 A 43 D 44 D 45 D 46 C 47 B 48 B 49 C 50 B
51 A 52 C 53 D 54 A 55 C 56 D 57 B 58 D 59 A 60 D
61 C 62 D 63 A 64 A 65 D 66 A 67 C 68 C 69 D 70 C
71 A 72 C 73 C 74 A 75 A 76 C 77 B 78 A 79 C 80 D
81 A 82 C 83 A 84 C 85 D 86 B 87 A 88 B 89 B 90 A
91 C 92 C 93 A 94 D 95 D 96 D 97 C 98 A 99 B 100 A
101 B 102 B 103 C 104 C 105 C 106 D 107 D 108 B 109 B 110 D
111 D 112 A 113 D 114 D 115 B 116 B 117 B 118 A 119 A 120 C
121 C 122 D 123 C 124 A 125 B 126 C 127 A 128 B 129 B 130 C
131 B 132 A 133 D 134 B 135 B 136 D 137 B 138 D 139 C 140 B
141 A 142 D 143 A 144 C 145 C 146 D 147 C 148 A 149 A 150 D
151 A 152 C 153 C 154 B 155 D 156 C 157 C 158 B 159 A 160 B
161 D 162 B 163 B 164 A

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 SECTION B

1 D 2 A 3 A 4 A 5 A 6 B 7 B 8 B 9 A 10 C
11 C 12 A

SECTION C
NEET / AIPMT QUESTIONS

1 D 2 C 3 B 4 A 5 D 6 C 7 A 8 C 9 B 10 C
11 A 12 C 13 B 14 B 15 C 16 A 17 B 18 D 19 D 20 C
21 C 22 B 23 A 24 B 25 D 26 B 27 C 28 D 29 C 30 A
31 B 32 A 33 A 34 A 35 A 36 C 37 B 38 B 39 A 40 C
41 D 42 B 43 B 44 A 45 B 46 A 47 B 48 B 49 C 50 D
51 A 52 B 53 A 54 D 55 D 56 A 57 B 58 B 59 C 60 D
61 B 62 B 63 C 64 C 65 D 66 B 67 C 68 A 69 B 70 B
71 B 72 B 73 C 74 C 75 B 76 C 77 C 78 A 79 D

AIIMS QUESTIONS

1 A 2 B 3 B 4 C 5 B 6 D 7 A 8 C 9 B 10 A
11 D 12 C 13 A 14 D 15 D 16 B 17 C 18 B 19 B 20 A
21 B 22 A 23 B

SECTION D

1 A 2 B 3 B 4 A 5 B 6 D 7 A 8 C 9 D 10 D
11 A 12 B 13 A 14 C 15 D 16 C 17 C 18 A 19 D 20 A
21 C 22 C 23 D 24 B 25 A 26 C 27 C 28 B 29 D 30 D
31 D 32 D 33 B 34 B 35 D 36 D 37 B 38 A 39 D 40 C
41 B 42 B 43 D 44 D 45 C 46 A 47 C 48 A 49 D 50 B
51 A 52 A 53 C 54 D 55 D 56 B 57 B 58 C 59 B 60 C

29