Subject: Basic Science Class:
JSS2
OBJECTIVES
1. Joules is the unit of: (i) energy (ii) power (iii)work
A (i) only B (i) and (ii) only C (i) and (iii) only D (ii) and (iii) only E (i), (ii) and
(iii)
2. The product of force and distance moved in the direction of the force is known as
A energy B power C work D force E momentum
3. Power is defined asA ability to do work. B strength of a man. C rate of doing work.
D energy a man has. E solar energy.
4. The energy a body has due to its position is
A chemical energy B potential energy C kinetic energy D elastic energy E heat energy
5. A water tanker of mass 2.5 kg is raised 4 m above the ground. Calculate the energy at this
height if g = 10 m/s2 A 100 J B 250 J C 500 J D 750 J E 1000 J
6. How much work is done when an object weighing 10 N is lifted through 6 m?
A 6 joules B 6 newton C 60 newton D 60 joules E 60 watts
7. A girl whose weight is 30 N runs up a flight of stairs 5 m high in 6 s. what is her average
power?
A 5 W B 6 W C 25 W D 150 W E 180 W
8. Name the energy transfer which occurs when a ball is thrown upwards.A Chemical to K.E
B K.E to P.E C Mechanical to sound D Sound to electrical E Electrical to
sound
9. The following statements describe conservation of energy except
Aenergy changes form B energy cannot be made or destroyed C energy transfer
produces heat D energy can be created and destroyed E energy transfer is important in
generating electricity.
10. Kinetic energy is energy of
A a static body B running girl C sleeping body D a ten-story building E stationary
building
11. Which of these conditions does not affect the evaporation of liquids?
A Wind B Temperature C Nature of liquid D Volume of liquid E Heat
energy
12. Boiling of a liquid takes place at
A all temperatures B a particular temperature C 1000C D at 00C E none of the
above.
13. Evaporation brings about a cooling effect.
A False B True C Not at all times D Not sure E All of the above
14. The particles of matter can move
A False B True C It is not possible D Only in gas E Not sure
15. The particles of matter can move faster than
A gas particles B solid particles C water particles D all of the above
16. The following occurrences will lead to change of state except
A melting B evaporation C sublimation D water particles E condensation
17. One of the following statements explains why a solid has a definite shape and a liquid has
none
A The particles in solid are not closely packed as in liquids. B The particles in solid can
move from one place to another. C The particles in solid are tightly packed and vibrate
about their fixed positions D The particles in solids are held together by weak attractive
forces. E The particles in solids are easily compressed.
18. Which of the following occurrences takes place at all temperature?
A Boiling B Condensation C Evaporation D Pressure E Melting
19. The following statements explain the structure of liquids except
A Liquids have fore of attraction B Liquids have no fixed shape C Liquids are
compressible D The form of the cohesion in liquids is negligible E The particles in
liquids can slide past each other
20. Boiling takes place when
A evaporation occurs B a liquid is heated without stopping C the saturated vapor
pressure of a liquid equals the atmospheric pressure (external pressure) D at all
temperature E when the liquids particles change into gas.
22. ____ carried blood to the other parts of the body
(a) veins (b) arteries (c) capillaries (d) ureter (e) urethra
23. Clinical thermometer is used to measure ____
(a) body temperature (b) rainfall (c) wind direction (d) length (e) time
24. Which of the following is a standard unit of measuring lengths?
(a) cubit (b) foot (c) meter (d) pace (e) span
25. Animals with backbones are called ____
(a) mammals (b) reptiles (c) avis (d) vertebrates (e) invertebrates
26. At puberty, the following changes occurs in girls EXCEPT____
(a) the hip becomes broader (b) menstruation starts (c) the breasts develop
(d) the is rapid increase in height (e) the voice cracks and becomes deepen
30. A ball of mass 12000g is released from a height of 10m. What is the potential energy of the ball)?
(g=10m/s)
A.1.2KJ
B.1200KJ
C.120000KJ
D.1200000KJ
THEORY
Answer three questions no1 is compulsory
(1) What is energy?
(1b) explain the term (i) potential energy (ii) kinetic energy
(1c) the kinetic energy of a boat is calculated at 36,0000J.if the boat has a mass of
6,000kg,with what velocity is it moving (10 marks)
(2) What is family life education
(2b) what is sex education
(2c) state three importance of sex education and (2) agent of sex education (10 marks)
(3) State the difference between solid ,liquid and gas
(3b) explain the following (I) evaporation (ii) boiling (iii) vapour pressure
(3c) State of kinetic theory matter (10 marks)
1. (10 marks)
BUSSINES STUDIES
1) A person who takes an insurance policy is known as ____ A. Insurance B. Insured C.
InsurerD. Premium
2) Below are insurance policies except ____ A. fire B. life C. marine D.
earthquake
3) ______ is a financial provision made to protect individuals and organizations from losses
which might be caused by unforeseeable events.A. Insurable interest B. Insurance
C. Insurer D. Premium
4) The quality of keeping to the time and rules set by themselves in order to achieve success
by the entrepreneur is _________ A. Discipline B. Determination C. Passion D.
Diligence
5) The written agreement between the insurance company and its clients is called an
insurance A. Policy B. Premium C. Policy takerD. Assured
6) A body of policies that aims at regulating the products, services, methods and standards
of manufacturers, sellers and advertisers in the interest of the buyer is known as
_______A. Consumer rights B. ConsumerismC. Consumers responsibility D.
Consumers obligation
7) When loss occurs, the insurance company pays the ____ A. Agent B. Broker C.
Insured D. Insurer
8) Uberrimaefidei means A. Utmost good faith B. Let the buyer beware C.
Subrogation D. Contribution
9) In insurance, principle of indemnity means?A. The insured is refunded the cost of the
total premiums paid to the insurer if a loss is suffered. B. The insured is restored to a
better position than before the loss was suffered. C. The insured is restored to the
original position before the loss was suffered. D. The compensation is from the premiums
in the insurance pool.
10) Which of the following is not a quality of an entrepreneur? A. Negligence B.
Courage C. Commitment D. Determination
11) The following are some of the responsibilities of the consumers except _____
A. self-education B. sourcing information C. Raising alarm D. Following
product instruction
12) The right of a consumer to be attended to in a clean surrounding is
A. Right to be informed B. Right to choose C. Right to safety D. Right to
safe environment
13) Integrity, uprightness and honesty in keeping accounting records refers to
_____________
A. Probity B. Accountability C. Transparency D. Integrity
14) TAP means __________________, __________________, _______________________
a. Transporters Association and ProcurementB. Transparency, Accountability and
probity
C. Transparency, Accountability and Promotion D. Transparency, Accountability and
Privileges
15) Which principle states that in the event of loss, the insured has to be restored to
theposition he wasbefore the loss is A. Indemnity B. Subrogation C.Utmost
good faith D. Insurable risk
16) The consumer must have information about variety of brands of a product available in the
market. Thisrefers to the consumer’s responsibility of ______
A. sourcing information B. raising alarm C. following product instructions D. proper
use of product
17) The basic entitlements the law confers on users of goods and services in an economy
describes
A. Consumer rights B. Consumer protection C. Consumerism D. Consumer
responsibility
18) Documents are filed in chronological order when they are arranged according to
……………. A. dates B. location C. alphabets D. numbers
19) The highest financial institution in Nigeria is called ______ bank.
A. Commercial B. Development C. Central D. Merchant
20) The following are types of insurance policies EXCEPT_____
A. Burglary B. Marine C. Fire D. Life asssurance
21) An applicant seeking employment in an organisation should direct his application to the
���. office [a] personnel [b] accounts [c] products [d] all of the above [e] none of the
above
22) Clerical duties are BEST performed in ��.. [a] company [b] office [c] ministry [d]
school [e] market
23) Which of the following document(s) will Mr Abu fill when he wants to see the manager
of an organisation? [a] reception book [b] manager�s book [c] visitor�s book [d] diary
[e] visitor�s request form
24) The best way through which a receptionist will handle an aggrieved customer who insults
her is to � [a] bear it , but give him/her the last warning [b] drive him/her out of Lagos
[c] issue him/her a query [d] harbour the insults [e] kneel down and beg him/her
25) Collecting quotation from many suppliers before attempting to place an order enables the
buyer to ��. [a] pay directly [b] settle accounts [c] cheat [d] increase purchases [e] buy
wisely
26) The following shows the time a receptionist should be courteous [a] during the closing
hours [b] in the morning [c] when a new visitor comes [d] when an old visitor comes [e]
at all time
27) The best storage system for every important document is ��. Cabinet [a] save [b]
metal proof [c] drawer [d] fire proof [e]wooden
28) Which of the following is used for the production of further wealth? [a] goodwill [b]
entrepreneur [c] capital [d] labour [e] land
29) The reward for capital is [a] effective [b] interest [c] efficiency [d] wages [e] rent
30) All goods bought for resale are called [a] purchases [b] returns [c] assets [d] liabilities [e]
sales.
THEORY
INSTRUCTION: Answer any TWO questions
1. (1) Define insurance
(1b) state the principles of insurance
(1c) list the importance of insurance (10 MARKS)
(2) What is entrepreneurship
(2b) List and explain the concept Entrepreneurship
(2c) list 4 characteristics of entrepreneurship (10 MARKS)
(3) What is consumer right
(3b) state the eight consumers rights and explain them .
(3c) explain the types of insurance (10
MARKS)
1mark
Subject: Social Studies
JSS2
1. Pick from the under listed alternatives one that is not a condition for marriage (a)
psychological fitness (b) financial readiness (c) unwanted pregnancy (d) psychological
fitness
2. An attempt on the part of man to maintain a relationship with his creator best describes (a)
fellowship (b) divination (c) religion (d) worship
3. Bolanle andAdeola went to court to sign a marriage certificate. This type of marriage is
known as
(a) ordinance (b) customary (c) religious (d) traditional
4. The practice where a woman marries more than one husband at a time as practised in India is
called
(a) polyandry (b) monogamy (c) polygamy (d) bigamy
5. Identify from these alternatives one function of marriage registry
(a) contracting marriage (b) approving marriage (c) initiate marriage (d) dissolving marriage
6. The main institute responsible for teaching moral in our society is
(a)legal (b) political (c) religious (d) economic
7. The pope, imam, pastor and alfa are classified as
(a) political leaders (b) religious leaders (c) institutional leaders (d) traditional leaders
8. Which of the following options shows similarity in our religion
(a) unity (b) holy land (c) symbols (d) mode of worship
9. From the following indicate the one that is not a challenge in marriage
(a) death(c) faithfulness(c) quarrels (d) separation
10. Indicate from the under listed one that is not a function of marriage
(a) security (b) companionship (c) procreation (d)share love s
11. A marriage between people of different ethnic groups is called
(a) inter-ethnic marriage (b) inter-state marriage (c) different languages (d) inter-tribal
marriage
12. Select from the alternatives provided one advantage of inter-ethnic marriage (a) promote
inter- ethnic segregation (b) interfere with ethnic identity (c) eliminate ethnic differences (d)
encourage tribalism
13. Marriage ceremony based on the law and customs of the bride is known as
(a) customary marriage (b) traditional marriage (c) ordinance marriage (d) religious marriage
14. Which of the following is not the function of the family (a) child production (b) head count
of the members (c) provides the need of the members (d) right to name
15. The marriage conducted according to certain decree is called (a) Christian marriage (b)
muslim marriage (c) ordinance marriage (d) traditional marriage
16. -------------- conducts an ordinance marriage (a) teacher (b) parent (c) senior local
government official or registrar (d) the elders or the family heads
17. The habit of self medication is (a) drug abuse (b) drug baron (c) drug addiction (d) drug
trafficking
18. ________ is the act of exporting drugs illegally for sales in other countries (a) drug abuse (b)
drug exploitation (c)drug exportation (d) drug trafficking
19. The group of people related by blood is called (a) family (b) organisation (c) member (d)
father
20. Permanent separation of husband and wife is called (a) companionship (b) divorce (c)
monogamy (d) polygamy
21 which of the following is a product of science and technology? [a] increase in poverty
level[b]increase in armed robbery operation[c] improved transportation and communication[d]
improvement in oil spillage
22.The three types of families are------------[a]village, nuclear and extended [b]
community,extended and village[c]nuclear ,extended and village[d] nuclear,extended and
compound
23 religion is important to us because it-----------[a]improves the quality of life[b] is not a
socializing agent [c]does not bring about social change [d]does not improve the quality of life
24 The mother, father and children make up the -------- family [a]compound, [b]nuclear and
[c]extended [d]village
25 ----- is the governor of the central bank of Nigeria?[professor jerry Ghana [b] godwin
emefiele [c] professor Attahiru Jega [d] alhaji Dangote
26 The following are reasons for going into drug trafficking EXCEPT----[a]poverty
[b]unemployment [c]bad or peer group influence [d] fun seeking
27 E.T.F. means-----[a]Education Trust Fund [b] Emergency Transport Fee[c] environmental
Trial fund [d] All of the abcve
28 The full meaning of N.D.L.E.A is [a]National Drug Enforcement Agency[b]NationalDrug
law Enforcement Agent [c] National Drug Law Enforcement Agency [d]National Drug Law
And Enforcement Agency
29 The group of people related by blood is called (a) family (b) organisation (c) member (d)
father
30 Permanent separation of husband and wife is called (a) companionship (b) divorce (c)
monogamy (d) polygamy
THEORY(SECTION B)
Instruction >Answer all question
(1) What is value
(1b) state the importance of value
(1c) list the factors that promote good value system (8 marks)
(2) What is marriage
(2b) explain four marriage system in Nigeria(8 marks)
(3) What is Gender?
(3b) give two similarities and difference of gender(8 marks)
(4) what is gender stereotype
(4b) explain two what is gender discrimination(8 marks)
Subject: Home Economics Class: JSS2
1. All of these are examples of intrinsic value except (a) love (b) efficiency (c) truth (d)sincerity (e)
honesty
2. What prevent children from dieseas? (a) Air (b) Sun (c) immunization (d) Warmth (e) Love
3. ________is a special clothe used for dusting surfaces and iterms in home. (a) Glove (b)
Dusters (c) Warp (d) Brooms (e) Brush
4. Beliefs, feelings or ideas of what is important, desirable and goods is called ________
(a) Standard (b) Goal (c) Resources (d) Value (e) Need
5. Special material used for decorating and covering floor is called floor_________
(a) Linen (b) Protector (c) Finishes (d) Cement (e) Coverings
6. All these are type of stiches, EXCEPT ____________
(a) Temporary stiches (b) Permanent stiches (c) permanent-temporary stiches (d) Decorative
stiches
7. For the welfare of family, conflict are best ____________
(a) Resolved (b) Ignored (c) neglected (d) Overlooked (e) Buried
8. Which of this is an instrumental value? (a) Love (b) Orderliness (c) Freedom (d) sincerity
(e) Truth
9. Sexually transmitted disease is an illness spread from one person to another through
__________
(a) Handshake (b) Dancing (C) Exchange of greetings (d) Sharing of food (e) Sexual contact
10. _________ is a collection of simple sewing tools and aids packet in a special container such
as box or bag. (a) Sewing machine (b) Sewing kit (c) Sewing thin (d) Sewing needle
11. The struggle between two or more people who disagree is called ____________
(a) Crisis (b) Conflict (c) Problem (d) Challenge (e) Fault
12. ________ are used for joining two or more separate pieces of material together permanently
(a) Temporary stitches (b) Permanenet stitches (c) design stitches (d) decorative stitches
13. Physical force used to harm someone is ____________
(a) Action (b) violence (c) Behaviour (d) Hurt (e) Injury
14. The value that help you to achieve higher value is (a) Intrinsic values (b) Extrinsic values
(c) Important values (d) Instrumental values (e) Industrial value
15. Side cupboard is a pieces of furniture commonly found in the _______________
(a)Toilet (b) dinning room (c)kitchen (d)sitting room
16. All of these are family value except (a)honesty (b) integrity (c) love (d)mutual understanding
(e) hatred
17. A family _____ is a graph or diagram that shows the kinship pattern of a family.
(a) Tree (b) pattern (c) kit (d) type (e) picture
18. ______ is a group of people who are related by blood, adoption and marriage.
(a) Family (b) Marriage (c) class mate (d) set mate (e) course mate.
19. Conflict can happen when family members have different views or beliefs that _____
(a) are the same (b) clash (c) are good (d) are bad
20. All of these are Cultural differences except
(a) gender (b) age (c) gender stereotypes (d) food (e) Respect
21 Freedom and benefits guaranteed to people by law is
a. bills b. rights c. responsibilities d. needs
22 A child is someone below the age of
a. 12 b. 13 c. 14 d. 18
23 One of the ways of resolving conflict is
a. compromise b. personal differences c. argument d. referring to the
past
24 A situation that marks a turning point in the life of the family members is
a. conflict b. crisis c. violation d. right
25 Conflict in the family can arise from any of the following
a. situation, personality, unity b. situation, personality, power struggle
c. situation, personality, affection d. personality, power struggle, love
26 For the welfare of the family, conflicts are best
a. overlooked b. resolved c. ignored ,suppressed
27 Not all conflicts are
a. poor b. rich c. bad d. loose
28 The process of preventing harmful bacterial from growing in food is called food
a. preparation b. service c. storage d. hygiene
29 Unresolved conflicts can lead to
a. hostility b. peace c. harmony d. negotiation
30 The field of study that deals with the food we eat and how it nourishes the body is
a. nutrients b. food technology c. nutrition d. foods
(30Marks)
Subject>Basic science
Class jss2
Answer three questions no1 is compulsory
(1) what is value (1ii) what is lifestyle
(1b) list and explain the types of value
(1c) list and explain the types of lifestyle (10 Marks)
(2) define family crisis/ family conflict
(2b) list and explain the type of family crisis
(2c) state the way of resolving conflict(10 Marks)
(3) what is STD (ii) state the types of STD disease
(3b) what is HIV (ii) way which HIV spread
(3c) what is AIDS (ii) what Is self medication (10 Marks)
Phe
1. The objective of physical education can be summarized as the development of an individual to be
(a) intellectually sound (b) mentally adjusted (c) physically and morally sound (d) physically
and socially sound (e) physically, mentally, socially and morally sound.
2. The number of lanes on a standard track is (a) 4 (b) 6 (c) 8 (d) 10 (e) 12
3. Crouch start can be used in the following races EXCEPT (a) 100m (b) 200m
(c) 4 � 100m (d) 400m (e) 1500m
4. The use of red card in soccer competition signifies (a) expulsion (b) half time
(c) substitution (d) time out (e) warning
5. The father of physical education in Nigeria is (a) F.U Amuchie (b) H.J Ekperigin
(c) Isaac Akinoye (d) J.A Adedeji (e) Balogun
6. Which of these is not true about warm up exercise? (a) improves performance (b) increases
muscular contraction (c) reduces blod circulation (d) prevents early fatigue
7. Which of these is not an outdoor recreational activity? (a) Badminton (b) Camping
(c) Dart (d) Draft (e) Table Tennis
8. In short distance races, competitors are expected to (a) change lanes after running for a particular
distance (b) change lanes at the end of the race (c) delay the first incoming runner to gain
advantage over him (d) maintain their lanes throughout the race (e) run on any lane during the
race.
9. Which of the following is a skill in handball? (a) Dribbling (b) Heading (c) scooping (d)
spiking (e) Volleying
10. Which of these is a source of protein? (a) Beans (b) cocoyam (c) Plantain (d) potatoes (e)
Sugar
11. Which of the following is a component of physical fitness? (a) Distance (b) Height (c) size
(d) Speed (e) Weight
12. The human skeleton performs the following functions EXCEPT (a) absorbing shock in the body
(b) aiding blood formation (c) making movement of the body possible (d) Giving shape
to the body
13. The air we breath in during physical activities is called (a) ammonia (b) carbon dioxide
(c) hydrogen (d) nitrogen (e) oxygen
14. When a bone is cracked, the victim is said to have a (a) bruise (b) cramp (c) fracture (d)
sprain (e) strain
15. Which of the following statements is correct about athletics? (a) activities that involve running,
jumping and throwing (b) Activities that people engage at will (c) Athletes are allowed to
receive the baton after the exchange zone (d) activities involving kicking (e) activities
involving dancing
16. Which of the following is an official in soccer game? (a) assistance referee (b) Lap scorer
(c) Starter (d) Time keeper (e) Umpire
17. Which of the following is not a bone in huma skeleton? (a) Clavicle (b) Deltoid (c) Femur
(d) Humerus (e) Ulna
18. These are types of fracture EXCEPT (a) compound (b) Greenstick (c) Immovable (d)
Simple (e) Multiple
19. The range of movement possible at a joint is been referred to as _____ (a) agility
(b) balance (c) endurance (d) flexibility (e) strength
20. The process of breaking down food materials into simple substances within a special canal refers
to (a) absorption (b) Assimilation (c) Digestion (d) Granulation (e) ossification
21. Which of the following is associated with human skeletal system? (a) Skull (b) diaphragm
(c) pelvic girdle (d) thoracic vertebral (e) vertebral column
22. The food nutrients that are most appropriate for long distance runners is
(a) carbohydrates (b) fats (c) mineral salts (d) protein (e) water
23. The following games have duration of play EXCEPT (a) basketball (b) soccer (c) handball
(d) hockey (e) volleyball
24. In hockey, the only player that is allowed to kick the ball in the striking circle is the (a) attacker
(b) defender (c) goal keeper (d) midfielder (e) winger
25. Which of these is a basic skill in hockey? (a) heading (b) scooping (c) shooting (d) smashing
(e) trapping
26. The following are the components of physical fitness EXCEPT (a) balance (b) concentration
(c) co-ordination (d) flexibility (e) speed
27. Which of these is NOT a recreational activity? (a) Camping (b) jogging (c) swimming (d)
tennis (e) wrestling
28. In an emergency situation, which of the following will you treat first? (a) Bleeding
(b) Burn (c) Dislocation (d) Sparin (e) Strain
29. Bones of the fingers and toes are called
(a) carpals (b) fingers (c) metacarpals (d) phalanges (e) tarsals
30. Hiking is an/a (a) game of low organization (b) gymnastics activity (c) indoor activity
(d) outdoor recreational activity (e) warm up activity
THEORY:answer ll question
(1) What is table tennis
(1b) list the equipment of table tennis
(1c) list the official of table tennis and their duties (10 marks)
(2) What is pollution
(2b) list and explain the types of environmental pollution
(2c)Give example for each pollution (10 marks)
(3) Define school health program
(3b) list the component of school health program
(3c)define school health program (10 marks)
Class: JS2 Subject: Agric. Sc.
INSTRUCTION: Answer all questions
1. Which of these is not an effect of parasites on animals?
a rapid growth b loss of appetite c weakness of the body d reduced production
2. Disease causing organisms are called … a parasites b pathogen c vectors d pests
3. The washing down of soil nutrients from the topsoil to the subsoil is called …
a mulchingb leaching c erosion d flooding
4. The transfer of seedlings from one plot to another is called …
a weedingb transplanting c weathering d uprooting
5. The following are ways of improving soil fertility, except …
a fertilizer application b crop rotation c organic manuringd leaching
6. Legumes are commonly noted for … a starch b protein c sugar d vitamin
7. The process of removing big trees together with their roots is called …
a stumpingb planting c tilling d removal
8. The tillage practice that aids easy penetration of crop roots is …
a ploughingb ridging c harrowing d flooding
9. Farm inputs include the following, except …
a farm tools b fertilizers c harvested crops d pesticides
10. In choosing a farm site, which of these is not considered? avegetation bclimate c soil typed
education
11. Which of the following is nota preplanting operation?
a thinningb choice of farm site c stumping d farm clearing
12. The type feeds fed to birds at the point of laying eggs is called … mash
a eggs b finishers c layers d chicks
13. Which of the following feeds is the best for a day old fowl?
a broilers’ mash b layers’ mash c growers’ mash d chicks’ mash
14. The feeds with high protein and low crude fibre are called …
a concentratesb roughage c silage d supplement
15. Which of these is not a major source of carbohydrate to animals?
a cassavab groundnut c maize d potato
16. A layer bird requires high quantity of … in its diet to produce eggs with strong shells
a bean cake b blood meal c bone meal d coconut meal
17. The following are sources of carbohydrates to farm animals, except …
a yam peel b cassava peel c cereals residue d fish meal
18. Silage refers to … a fermented grasses b grasses preserved dry c green forages d natural
grasses
19. The preserved dried grasses and legumes for feeding farm animals are referred to as …
a crop residue b hay c silage d green fodder
20. Oil can be extracted from the following crops, excepta cashew nut b groundnut c sun flower
d wheat
21. The tillage practice that aids easy penetration of crop roots is …
a ploughingb ridging c harrowing d flooding
22. Farm inputs include the following, except …
a farm tools b fertilizers c harvested crops d pesticides
23. In choosing a farm site, which of these is not considered? avegetation bclimate c soil typed
education
24. Which of the following is nota preplanting operation?
a thinningb choice of farm site c stumping d farm clearing
25. The type feeds fed to birds at the point of laying eggs is called … mash
a eggs b finishers c layers d chicks
26. Which of the following feeds is the best for a day old fowl?
a broilers’ mash b layers’ mash c growers’ mash d chicks’ mash
27. The feeds with high protein and low crude fibre are called …
a concentratesb roughage c silage d supplement
28. Which of these is not a major source of carbohydrate to animals?
a cassavab groundnut c maize d potato
29. A layer bird requires high quantity of … in its diet to produce eggs with strong shells
a bean cake b blood meal c bone meal d coconut meal
30. The following are sources of carbohydrates to farm animals, except …
a yam peel b cassava peel c cereals residue d fish meal
31. Silage refers to … a fermented grasses b grasses preserved dry c green forages d natural
grasses
32. The preserved dried grasses and legumes for feeding farm animals are referred to as …
a crop residue b hay c silage d green fodder
33.
THEORY: Answer all questions
INSTRUCTION > Answer all question
1) Define the following
(1i) concentrate (ii) roughages (ii) hay (iii) silage(iv) soilage
(1b) characteristics of carbohydrate (8 marks)
(2) what is soil fertility
(2b) list the ways of maintaining of soil fertility (8 marks)
(3) define farming system and types of farming system
(3b) explain the following (i) mixed farming (ii) shifting cultivation (8 marks)
(4) what is mono-cropping ,mixed cropping ,continuous farming
(4b) give one (1) advantage and disadvantages for each of the (8 marks)
a.
Subject: CRS Class: JSS 2 Time:
1 Hour
PART 1: OBJECTIVES
1. All the following parables teach about maturity and responsibility EXCEPT the parable of
A. Talents B. Ten Virgins C. Sower D. Unmerciful servant.
2. In the parable of the wheat and tare, the tares represent _____
(a) satan (b) evil one (c) the righteous (d) sinners
3. Barn in the same parable above represents ____ (a) warehouse (b) heaven (c) farm (d)
packing store
4. Jesus Christ taught in parables in order to?
(a) Win more converts (b) Point out that He was wise (c) Confuse His hearers (d) Make His
lesson clearer
5. In the parable of the Sower, the seeds fell on all these places except?
(a) Thorns (b) Rocks (c) The Path (d) Sandy Soil
6. The parable of the Sower teaches about the?
(a) Mysteries of the kingdom (b) Misfortunes of farmers (c) Various responses to the gospel
messages
(d) Demands of the kingdom of God
7. In the parable of the Wheat and tares, the weeds were sown by the?
(a) Farmer (b) Hired servants (c) Enemy (d) Hired labourers
8. How many different soils do we have in the parable of the Sower?
(a) Four (b) Three (c) Five (d) Two
9. Another name for Tares is _____________?(a) Crops (b) Weeds (c) Shrubs (d)
Trees
10. In the parable of the Prodigal son, Jesus Christ intended to teach?
(a) Respect for parents (b) God’s love for repentant sinner
(c) His dislike for careless living (d) Love of parents for their children
11. Which of the following parables illustrates the Day of Judgment?
(a) The Sower (b) The Wheat and the tares (c) The Mustard Seed (d) The lost sheep
12. Which of the following is not a parable of the kingdom?
(a) The Sower (b) The Mustard Seed (c) The seed growing secretly (d) The
Prodigal Son
13. Which of the following is not a parable of the Return of Christ:
A. the prodigal son B. the Ten Virgins C. the sheep and the goat D. the unmerciful servant
14. The parable of the Rich fool is an example of which category of parable
A. Parables of the kingdom B. Parables of God's love C. Parables of the Return of Christ
D. Parables of concern for one another
15. One of the following parables is not an example of the parables of God's love.
A. The lost sheep B. the prodigal son C. the Banquet D. the lost coin
16. The reaper in the parable of the Wheat and the Tare represents the:
A. Farmer B. neighbour of the farmer C. angels of God D. servant of the farmer
17. In the parable of the Lost Sheep, how many sheep did the man have before he lost one?
A. 50 B. 10 C. 90 D. 100
18. The parables of God's Love teach us about:
A. God's relationship with His people B. Our duty to God C. our relationship with one
another
D. maturity and respnsibility
19. In the story of the prodigal son, the attitude of the elder brother showed that he:
A. just came back from the farm tired B. wanted to do like his brother
C. was happy to see his brother D. jealous of his brother
20. The seed sown in the parable of the Sower represents:
A. bean grain B. maize grain C. mustard seed D. word of God
PART 2: THEORY
ANSWER ALL QUESTIONS HERE
1. Give any two definitions of parables (10
marks)
2a. Why did the master in the parable of the Wheat and the Tare refuse his
servants' request to go and uproot the tares? (2 marks)
b. Mention the four different soils in the parable of the Sower. (8 marks)
SUBJECT: ENGLISH STUDIES CLASS: J S.S 2
PART A
INSTRUCTION: Answer All Questions
TEST OF ORALS
1. We have a total of………… diphthongs in English language? (A) 6 (B) 5 (C) 20 (D) 8
2. All the following words have the diphthong sound /ϽI/ in them EXCEPT?
(A) Boy (B) Voice (C) Toy (D) Tow
3. All the following words have the diphthong sound /ei/ in them EXCEPT?
(A) Now (B) Late (C) Eight (D) Take
4. All the following words have the diphthong sound /ai/ in them EXCEPT?
(A) Choice (B) Fine (C) I (D) Sight
[4 marks]
GRAMMAR:
5. Another expression for Indirect Speech is known as……….. ?
(A) Direct speech (B) Utterance (C) Vocal speech (D) Reported speech
6. Another expression for Direct Speech is known as…………?
(A) Utterance speech (B) Verbal speech (C) Quoted speech (D) Sentence speech
7. Change this sentence to Direct Speech: He said that he liked apples. It will be…
(a) I love apples said he (b) I will like apple today (c) “I like apples”, he said. (d) I disliked
apples
8. Change this sentence to Indirect Speech: She said, “It is cold”. It will be…
(a) She likes cold environment (b) She said it was cold (c) She is having cold (d) She did not
like cold.
[4 marks]
Complete each of the following sentences with a correct preposition taken from the options (A
to D):
9. Where are you heading……….. ? (a) for (b) in (c) against (d) to
10. My classmates are angry……….our teacher (a) about (b) with (c) from (d) unto
11. Those boys are suffering………. Chicken pox (a) with (b) over (c) from (d) between
12. Nigerians are tired………… empty promises (a) under (b) on (c) of (d) after
13. I washed my hands………. Playing outside (a) at (b) after (c) because (d) by
[5 marks]
From the options lettered A to D, choose the Nearest in Meaning to the Underlined words in
the following sentence(s):
14. It has a coarse surface. (a) smooth (b) large (c) bad (d) rough
15. They tried to retract the information. (a) retrieve (b) swallow (c) lost (d) throw away
From the options lettered A to D, choose the Opposite in Meaning to the Underlined words in
the following sentence(s):
16. I will not relate with a dishonest man, I only value………….
(a) trust (b) lies (c) honesty (d) fame
17. They accepted our goods at the port, while that man’s cargo was……….
(a) cancelled (b) rejected (c) retained (d) maintained [4 marks]
LITERATURE-IN-ENGLISH
18. …………. is the figure of speech that is used when human attribute is given to non-human
entity?
(a) personification (b) metaphor (c) simile (d) alliteration
19. ………….. is the figure of speech that is used when two opposing words are placed side by
side.
(a) antithesis (b) synonym (c) oxymoron (d) paradox
20. Metaphor is also referred to as……….. ?
(a) simile (b) as and like (c) paradox (d) direct comparison
[3 marks]
PART B
INSTRUCTION: Answer all questions in this section.
1. Write out 5 features or characteristics of a Formal letter
2. Give the Simple past tense of the following Irregular Verbs:
(a) Arise
(b) Bind
(c) Bleed
(d) Creep
(e) Cut [10 marks]