SOCIAL SCIENCE-Code- 087

SAMPLE QUESTION PAPER

CLASS: X (2025-26)

Time Allowed: 3 Hours Maximum Marks: 80

General Instructions:
1. There are 38 questions in the Question paper. All questions are compulsory.
2. The question paper has Four Sections – A-History, B-Geography C- Political Science, and D-
Economics.
3. Each Section is of 20 Marks and has MCQs, VSA, SA, LAs and CBQ.
4. Very Short Answer Type Questions (VSA), carry 2 marks each. Answers to each question should
not exceed 40 words.
5. Short Answer Type Questions (SA), carry 3 marks each. Answers to each question should not
exceed 60 words.
6. Long answer type questions (LA), carry 5 marks each. Answers to each question should not
exceed 120 words.
7. There are case based questions (CBQ) with three sub questions and are of 4 marks each.
Answers to each question should not exceed 100 words.
8. The map-based questions, carry 5 marks with two parts- Q9. In Section A-History (2 marks) and
Q19. In Section B -Geography (3 marks)
9. There is no overall choice in the question paper. However, an internal choice has been provided
in few questions. Only one of the choices in such questions must be attempted.
10. In addition to this, NOTE that a separate question has been provided for Visually Impaired
candidates in lieu of questions having visual inputs, map etc. Such questions are to be attempted
by Visually Impaired candidates only.

Sr.No SECTION A Marks

HISTORY (20 marks)
1. Match the following and Choose the correct option: 1

COLUMN I COLUMN II
A Frederic Sorrieu 1 Torch of enlightenments
B Statue of Liberty 2 Shattered remains of absolutist
Institutions
C Foreground in front of the Statue 3 Democratic and Social
of Liberty Republics
D Sorrieu’s utopian vision. 4 French Artist

1.A-4, B-1, C-2, D-3

2.A-2, B-4, C-4, D-1
3.A-1, B-2, C-4, D-3
4.A-4, B-1, C-3, D-4

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Please note that the assessment scheme of the Academic Session 2024-25 will continue in the current session i.e. 2025-26
 2. Identify and name the leader shown in the picture given below: - 1

Source-India and the Contemporary World-II, NCERT

A. Lala Lajpat Rai

B. Bal Gangadhar Tilak
C. Gopal Krishan Gokhale
D. Raja Rammohan Roy

Note: The following question is for Visually Impaired Candidates only in lieu of
Q. No. 2

Which one option from the following is the appropriate reason for the formation of the
Swaraj party?

A. To ask for Poorna Swaraj for Indians.

B. To return to Council Politics.
C. To ask Dominion State for India.
D. To oppose Simon Commission.
3. Thousands of people fled Europe for America in the 19th century due to - 1

A. Widespread poverty and deadly diseases

B. Frequent famines and poor living conditions
C. Continuous wars and political instability
D. Harsh climate and repeated natural disasters
4. Louise-Sebastien Mercier proclaimed “Tremble, therefore, tyrants of the world! 1
Tremble before the virtual writer!” Who are referred to as the tyrants in this context?

A. Educated classes who wanted to change the society

B. Absolutist institutions like monarchy and church
C. Authors of the new books
D. Printing press

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 5A. “The Silk route was a good example of vibrant pre-modern trade and cultural links 2
between distant parts of the world.” Explain the statement with any two examples.
OR
5B. ‘Sometimes the new crops could make the difference between life and death.’.
Explain the statement with any two examples.
6 A. ‘A variety of cultural processes played an important role in developing a sense of 3
nationalism in India’. Support the statement with suitable examples.
OR
6 B. Salt March 'became an effective tool of resistance against colonialism.’ Analyse the
statement with suitable reasons.
7A. ‘In Britain the formation of the nation-state was not the result of a sudden upheaval 5
or revolution but was the result of a long-drawn-out process.’ Analyse this statement
with suitable reasons.
OR
7B. ‘The Treaty of Vienna was drawn up in 1815 with the object of undoing most of the
changes that had come about in Europe during the Napoleonic wars.’ Highlight the
significant provisions of this treaty.
8. Read the given text and answer the following questions:(4)
Why Newspapers?
Krishnaji Trimbuck Ranade inhabitant of Poona intends to publish a Newspaper in
the Marathi Language with a view of affording useful information on every topic of
local interest. It will be open for free discussion on subjects of general utility, scientific
investigation and the speculations connected with the antiquities, statistics,
curiosities, history and geography of the country and of the Deccan especially... the
patronage and support of all interested in the diffusion of knowledge and Welfare of
the People is earnestly solicited.
Bombay Telegraph and Courier, 6 January 1849

"The task of the native newspapers and political associations is identical to the role
of the Opposition in the House of Commons in Parliament in England. That is to
critically examine government policy to suggest improvements, by removing those
parts that will not be to the benefit of the people, and also by ensuring speedy
implementation.
These associations ought to carefully study the particular issues, gather diverse
relevant information on the nation as well as on what are the possible and desirable
improvements, and this will surely earn it considerable influence”.
Source: Native Opinion, 3 April 1870
.
8.1. Explain the main reason for publishing newspapers by Krishna ji. 1

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 8.2. How was the task of native newspaper and political association seen identical 1
to the role of the opposition?
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8.3. Analyze the reasons for the popularity of newspapers during the 19th century.

MAP SKILL-BASED QUESTION (2 marks)

9. Two places A and B have been marked on the given outline map of India. Identify (1+1=
them and write their correct names on the lines marked on the map. 2)

A) The place where the Civil Disobedience Movement was launched.

B) The city where Indian National Congress session was held in September
1920.

Note: The following question is for Visually Impaired Candidates only in lieu of
Question 9.
A) The place where the Civil Disobedience Movement was launched.
B) The place where Indian National Congress session was held in September 1920

SECTION B
GEOGRAPHY (20 marks)

10. What is essential for resource development to contribute to overall development? 1

A. The availability of resources alone is enough.
B. The presence of foreign invaders and their governance.
C. Technological development and institutional changes.
D. Only human resources can contribute to development.

11. Identify the appropriate option to fill in the empty boxes: 1

Classification of Soils

Alluvial ? ?

Ideal for the growth of sugarcane, paddy, Ideal for suitable for crops
wheat and other cereal and pulse crops. growing cotton like cashew nut.

A. Black soil, Red and Yellow soils

B. Laterite soil, Black soil.
C. Red & Yellow soils & Black soil.
D. Black soil & Laterite soil.

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 12. A total of 628 tigers died in India during the past five years due to natural causes and 1
other reasons, including poaching, according to government data. Meanwhile, 349
people were killed in tiger attacks during this period, with one state alone recording
200 deaths.
[source: https://www.ptinews.com/story/national/628-tigers-died-in-india-in-past-five-years-govt-data/1685133t/]
Which of the following is the most significant indirect consequence of poaching on
the tiger population?

A. Reduction in the prey species, dwindling tiger's food supply.

B. Increase in human-wildlife conflicts in protected areas
C. Rise in the tiger population.
D. Decrease in tourism revenue in national parks
13. Based on the classification of forests, which of the following statements would most 1
likely apply to places like Jammu and Kashmir, Andhra Pradesh, and Kerala etc.?

A. These places mostly have forests managed as reserved or protected forests for
conservation.
B. They rely on unclassed forests and local community management for forest
conservation.
C. They have forest resources and primarily focus on industrial development.
D. There are no classified forests and forest management is entirely left to private
ownership.
14. Which one of the following states has made roof top water harvesting compulsory in 1
India?

A. Haryana
B. Punjab
C. Assam
D. Tamil Nadu.
15. Which of the following statements best evaluates the overall goal of the Pradhan 1
Mantri Krishi Sinchaee Yojana?

A. Addressing the negative ecological effects of large dams by reducing water usage.
B. To provide better irrigation systems and sustainable water conservation practices
for farmers.
C. Shifting farmers from traditional crops to more commercial, water-intensive crops.
D. Preserve the natural river flow and prevent the fragmentation of aquatic
ecosystems.

16. Rice is grown as a commercial crop in Haryana and Punjab, but as a subsistence 2
crop in Odisha. Using your understanding of geographical factors and economic
practices, explain why rice cultivation differs in these regions.
17A. Person P is willing to establish a mineral based industry. He has been advised to set 5
up a bauxite industry in Odisha as a suitable way to make a profitable venture.
Analyse the possible reasons behind the advice given to her.

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 OR

17B. ‘Coal is the most important and abundant fossil fuel in India.’ Justify the statement
by evaluating the significant role it plays in the growth of the Indian economy in its
different forms.

18. Read the given text and answer the following questions:(1+2+1=4) 4

Global pollution is rising due to rapid economic growth, population increases, and
insufficient environmental management. This poses serious health risks for people
and ecosystems, particularly in low- and middle-income countries. Contributing to
these challenges, the global economy relies on deeply intertwined supply chains,
sustained by more than 100 billion tons of raw materials entering the system each
year. Intensive material consumption depletes natural resources and causes
negative environmental impacts at every stage of the product lifecycle. Global waste
is expected to increase to 3.4 billion tons by 2050.
Pollution of all types hinders development outcomes. Exposure to air pollution, water
pollution, and hazardous chemicals and wastes like mercury, lead and persistent
organic pollutants (POPs) causes debilitating and fatal illnesses, creates harmful
living conditions, and destroys ecosystems. Pollution undermines sustainable
economic growth, exacerbates poverty and inequality in both urban and rural areas,
and significantly contributes to climate change. Poor people, who cannot afford to
protect themselves from the negative impacts of pollution, end up suffering the most.
Pollution is the largest environmental cause of disease and premature death. It is
estimated to be several times more deaths than from AIDS, tuberculosis, and malaria
combined. Global health crises, such as the COVID-19 pandemic, are reminders of
the strong linkages between environment and health and of the need to address such
linkages systematically. [Source: https://www.worldbank.org/en/topic/pollution]

18.1 Why do you think is global waste expected to increase by 2050?

18.2 How do manufacturing industries cause pollution of different types? Explain with
examples.
18.3 Is it correct to consider pollution as a possible cause for worsening of the current
global trends of poverty and inequality? Justify.

MAP SKILL-BASED QUESTION (3 marks)

19. On the same outline map of India locate and label the following with suitable symbols: 1

I.(p) The dam in the Sutlej-Beas river basin, which is being used both for hydel
power production and irrigation.
OR

(q) The dam in the Mahanadi basin that integrates conservation of water with
flood control.

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 II. Any two of the following: (1x2=
(i) A major sea port in West Bengal 2)
(ii) An international airport in Tamil Nadu
(iii) An international airport in Punjab

Note: The following question is for Visually Impaired Candidates only in lieu of
Q. No. 19.

b) Answer any three of the following:

i Name the dam in the Mahanadi basin that integrates conservation of water
with flood control.
ii Specify the name of a major sea port in West Bengal.
iii Name an international airport in Tamil Nadu.
iv State the name of an international airport in Punjab.
SECTION C
POLITICAL SCIENCE (20 marks)
20. Which of the following statement(s) are true with respect to the ethnic composition of 1
Belgium?
I. 59 percent of the total population of Belgium lives in the Wallonia region and
speaks French.
II. 40 percent live in the Flemish region and speak Dutch.
III. One percent of the Belgians speak German.
IV. In the capital city Brussels, 80 percent people speak French while 20 per cent
are Dutch speaking.
Choose the correct option:
A. I and II
B. III and IV
C. I, II and III
D. I and IV
21. The cartoon below depicts Germany’s government that was formed after the 2005 1
elections. It included the two major parties of the country, namely the Christian
Democratic Union and the Social Democratic Party. The two parties are historically
competing with each other. Which of the following options best explains the cartoon?

Source-Democratic Politics, NCERT

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 A. Coalition Government.
B. Two Party System.
C. Democratic government.
D. Bi-party system.
Note: The following question is for Visually Impaired Candidates only in lieu of
Q. No. 21
Consider the following statements on Power Sharing and choose the correct
statement(s) -
I. Imposing the will of the majority community over others.
II. It helps in reducing the possibility of conflict between the social groups.
III. Power Sharing is a good way to ensure the stability of political order.
IV. It brings socio- political opposition among parties.

Choose the correct option:

A. I and II
B. I and III
C. II and IV
D. II and III
22. Consider the following case and choose the correct option- 1

Suppose the Government of India plans to issue new currency notes of different
denominations in order to curb the influence of black money. The Government of one
state is opposed to this policy of the Central Government. Can the state government
stop the union government from implementing this policy?

A. Yes, because Currency is the subject of State List

B. No, because Currency is a subject of Union List
C. Yes, because the approval of both the governments is necessary to implement
this change.
D. No, because any such change must be approved by the local government also.

23. Two statements are given as Assertion (A) and Reason(R). Study the statements 1
carefully and identify the correct alternative:
ASSERTION (A): Exclusive attention to caste can produce negative results in
democracy.
REASON (R): It can divert attention from other important issues thus leading to
tensions, conflicts and even violence.
Choose the correct option:
A. Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
B. Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
C. A is true but R is false.
D. A is false but R is true

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Please note that the assessment scheme of the Academic Session 2024-25 will continue in the current session i.e. 2025-26
 24. Highlight any two key features of federalism. 2

25. ‘Women in India face discrimination, disadvantages and oppression in many ways.’ 2
Highlight any two aspects of life where you witness this inequality.
26. ‘Democracy leads to peaceful and harmonious life among citizens in every sphere.’ 3
Support this statement with suitable arguments.
27A. ‘Political parties play a significant role in the effective working of a democracy.’ 5
Explain.

OR
27B. Analyse how the issue of leadership succession poses a challenge to political parties
in India.
28. Read the given text and answer the following questions:(1+1+2=4) 4
Sri Lanka emerged as an independent country in 1948. The leaders of the Sinhala
community sought to secure dominance over government by virtue of their majority.
As a result, the democratically elected government adopted a series of
MAJORITARIAN measures to establish Sinhala supremacy. Over the years, it
created feelings of alienation among the Sri Lankan Tamils. They felt that none of
the major political parties led by the Buddhist Sinhala leaders was sensitive to their
language and culture. As a result, the relations between the Sinhala and Tamil
communities strained over time. On the other hand, the Belgian leaders took a
different path. They recognised the existence of regional differences and cultural
diversities. Between 1970 and 1993, they amended their constitution four times to
work out an arrangement that would enable everyone to live together within the same
country. Source-Adapted from Power Sharing,NCERT

28. 1 State any two demands of Tamils in Sri Lanka.

28. 2 State the results of the Majoritarian Government in Sri Lanka.
28. 3 Explain any two provisions of the Belgian model of power sharing.

SECTION D
ECONOMICS (20 marks)

29. Underemployment is caused when - 1

A. More workers are employed than actually required
B. Fewer workers are employed than actually required
C. Workers are paid more than their actual output
D. Jobs are given only to highly educated workers

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 30. What can be inferred about the limitations of using per capita income (average 1
income) to compare well-being across countries? Choose the correct option as the
answer.

A. It shows how equally or unequally income is distributed among the people in a

country.
B. The only measure needed to understand a country’s development is Per capita
income.
C. It gives a basic idea of economic well-being but hides the income inequality.
D. It only reflects the industrial growth of a country and does not consider other
important factors.

31. Which of the following examples best demonstrates how the tertiary sector supports 1
both the primary and secondary sectors?

A. Farmers grow vegetables and sell them directly to consumers, with no

transportation or storage involved.
B. A factory makes shoes and uses raw materials like leather to create the product,
relying on transport and retail stores to distribute the shoes.
C. A bakery bakes bread and uses delivery services to send the bread to local
shops for sale, without any direct involvement of raw materials.
D. A company produces furniture from wood, but does not require any transport or
retail services to sell the product.

32. Which one of the following issues currency notes in India? 1

A. Finance Ministry.
B. Reserve Bank of India.
C. State Bank of India.
D. Central Bank of India.

33. Person Z tries to explain how the requirement of a double coincidence of wants in a 1
barter system limits trade and exchange. Which of the following justification do you
think will be used by him/her?

A. It makes trade more complicated, as each person must have what the other
person wants, limiting the pool of potential trade partners.
B. The barter system allows trade to be conducted more efficiently since both parties
already know what they need from the transaction.
C. It increases the number of exchanges because each person can trade for exactly
what they want.
D. The system creates value for goods by ensuring that both parties have a direct
need for each other’s goods.

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Please note that the assessment scheme of the Academic Session 2024-25 will continue in the current session i.e. 2025-26
 34. Recognize and choose the option that correctly matches the effects and consequent 1
outcomes of globalization.

Column A Column B
(Effects of globalisation) (Outcomes)

1.Increased foreign investment i. Expansion of global markets and access to

technology

2.Cultural exchange and ii. Loss of traditional jobs due to automation and
awareness cheaper labor elsewhere

3.Techonological exchange iii. Spread of cultural practices, ideas, and values

and awareness across borders

4.Growth of multinational iv. Large companies becoming dominant players

corporations in global markets

Choose the correct option:

A. 1-iii, 2-ii, 3-i, 4-iv
B. 1-iv, 2-ii, 3-i, 4-iii
C. 1-ii, 2-iv, 3-iii, 4-i
D. 1-i, 2-iii, 3-ii, 4-iv
35. Evaluate the utility of public services in contributing to the overall well-being of 3
individuals and society.
36. ‘Expanding access to loans in the formal sector is important, yet it is equally critical 3
that these loans are accessible to all people for national development.’ Justify the
statement.
37. Highlight the significant three factors that have contributed to the growth of 3
globalisation.
38A. A research student spoke with two people, M and N to learn about their work-related 5
differences. On the basis of the interview conducted with both of them, the student
concludes that while person M was working in an organized sector, person N was an
employee of a workplace that was functioning in an unorganised way. Analyse the
key differences between the two sectors that must have enabled the research
student to come to this conclusion.
OR
38B. Privatisation can have both positive and negative effects on the economy. Support
the statement with argument.

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 Map for Q. no. 9 (Section A) & Q. no. 19 (Section B)

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Please note that the assessment scheme of the Academic Session 2024-25 will continue in the current session i.e. 2025-26